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• How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

  - by Rory Becker

  Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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• Which JavaScript or ASP.NET Charting Component/Tool/Library Will Work For This?

  - by Jason Bunting

  [Update]: Forgot to include ComponentArt... Hi, An interaction designer employed by the client I am currently working for produced some mock-ups, and now it is my job to determine the best way of implementing the charts included therein. After looking at the options I am aware of and was able to find doing some simple Google searches, I have narrowed it down to using either ComponentArt, Dundas Charts or Infragistics, simply because from what I can see of their demos, they have certain features I believe I will need to get things done. Here are the pictures from the mock-ups - ideally I need one piece of software that will cover all of these: This chart seems to be simple enough. Notice the arbitrary spacing between the years - not yet sure if this will be a sticking-point for the client or not. I don't know that I have ever seen a chart like this one - it combines the previous chart with some additional data. Here is the same chart, only this time illustrating what happens when a user mouses-over or clicks on an annotation within the chart. They want the nice styling within the pop-up, so the pop-up needs to be something like an iframe or similar. Any ideas or recommendations would be appreciated, I haven't used charting controls in years, so I am at a bit of a loss and the client wants an estimate soon. Thank you!

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• How is it legal to reference an undefined type inside a structure?

  - by paxdiablo

  As part of answering another question, I came across a piece of code like this, which gcc compiles without complaint. typedef struct { struct xyz *z; } xyz; int main (void) { return 0; } This is the means I've always used to construct types that point to themselves (e.g., linked lists) but I've always thought you had to name the struct so you could use self-reference. In other words, you couldn't use xyz *z within the structure because the typedef is not yet complete at that point. But this particular sample does not name the structure and it still compiles. I thought originally there was some black magic going on in the compiler that automatically translated the above code because the structure and typedef names were the same. But this little beauty works as well: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz *z; } xyz; What am I missing here? This seems a clear violation since there is no struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz type defined anywhere. When I change it from a pointer to an actual type, I get the expected error: typedef struct { struct NOTHING_LIKE_xyz z; } xyz; qqq.c:2: error: field `z' has incomplete type Also, when I remove the struct, I get an error (parse error before "NOTHING ...). Is this allowed in ISO C?

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• Multiple ajax request and progress bar

  - by hunt

  Hi, In a following piece of code i am create a progress bar and showing its progress as the ajax request get processed. i am faking the progress shown here just by adding 5 in to cnt counter variable after that i made a check when counter reach to 90. at this point if the request is not executed successfully then i will pause/disable the progress bar and whenever response come i will complete the whole progress bar with 100. now the problem is i want to add multiple progress bar as i am firing multiple ajax request. so following is the code to implement only for one request and one progress bar but i want it for more than one. as global variables are used over here for checking response and timer id so i don't know how well i can handle it for multiple request var cnt=0; var res=null; function getProgress(data){ res=data; } var i =0; $('#start').click(function(){ i = setInterval(function() { if(res!=null) { clearInterval(i); $("#pb1").progressbar( "option", "value", cnt=cnt+100 ); } var value = $("#pb1").progressbar("option", "value"); if(value >=90 && res==null){ $("#pb1").progressbar("option", "disable"); } else{ $("#pb1").progressbar( "option", "value", cnt=cnt+5 ); } },2500); $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost/beta/demo.php', success: getProgress }); }); $("#pb1").progressbar({ value: 0 , change: function(event, ui) { if(res!=null) clearInterval(i); } });

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• how to apply iddata into calculation?

  - by Sam

  I am trying to figure out how to combine the input and output data into the ARX model and then apply it into the BIC (Bayesian Information Criterion) formula. Below is the code that I am currently working on: for i=1:30; %% Set Model Order data=iddata(output,input,1); model = arx(data,[8 9 i]); yp = predict(model,data); ye = regress(data,yp{1,1}(1:4018,1)); M(i) = var(yp); BIC(i)=(N+i*(log(N)-1))/(N-i)*log(M(i)); end But it does not work. It keep on giving me an error something like below: "The syntax "Data{...}" is not supported. Use the "getexp" command to extract individual experiments from an IDDATA object." I did not understand what does that mean. Can someone explain it to me and where do I do wrong on my piece of code? Thanks in advance. Sam.

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• Application Design: Single vs. Multiple Hits to the DB

  - by shyneman

  I'm building a service that performs a set of configured activities based on the type of request that it receives. Each activity involves going to the database and retrieving/updating some kind of information. The logic for each activity can be generalized and re-used across different request types. The activities may need to participate in a transaction for the duration of the servicing the request. One option, I'm considering is having each activity maintain its own access to DAL/database. This fully encapsulates the activity into a stand-alone re-usable piece, but hitting the database multiple times for one request doesn't seem like a viable option. I don't really know how to easily implement the concept of a transaction across the multiple activities here either. The second option is to encapsulate ALL the activities into one big activity and hit the database once. But this does not allow re-use and configuration of these activities for different requests. Does anyone have any suggestions and input about what should be the best way to approach my problem? Thanks for any help.

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• ldap login form works, but need to add active-directory group access

  - by Brad

  I created a form that asks you to log in, then verifies the user/pass against the ldap server/active-directory, if successful, it creates a session, which will be checked on every page. Now I want to check the session, which is the username of the person who is logged in, and do a search for them using ldap_search, so I can check what group they belong to and pass that group thru a function to verify that they can view that page. Each page will accessible to a certain group or groups of users, which those groups are defined within Active Directory. I am unsure on how I can do that using ldap_search, or maybe that is just one piece of the puzzle I am trying to solve. Any help is appreciated - thank you! In the example code below, it is seeing if the user belongs to the student active-directory group (I do not know if this code works, but it should give you an idea of what I want to accomplish). $filter = "CN=StudentCN=Users,dc=domain,dc=control"; $result = ldap_search($ldapconn,$filter,$valid_session_username); if($result == TRUE) { print $valid_session_username.' does have access to this page'; } else { print $valid_session_username.' does NOT have access to this page'; }

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• I want to input JSONObject from jquery.post() to a a simple JS chart(bar chart)?

  - by ann-stack

  HI I am very new to both json and js charts. In the example of bar chart, they are giving a hard coded array like this, var myData = new Array(['U.S.A.', 69.5], ['Canada', 2.8], ['Japan & SE.Asia', 5.6] ); var myChart = new JSChart('graph', 'bar'); myChart.setDataArray(myData); Instead of that I want to use the response of $.post() method which is in json. Here is the piece of code. var myData=[]; $.post("JSONServlet", function(data) { $.each(data.Userdetails, function(i, data) { myData[i] = []; myData[i]['text'] = data['firstname']; myData[i]['id'] = data['ssn']; alert("first name " +myData[i]['text']+ " salary " +myData[i]['id']); // I am getting correct data here, but how to assign this myData to barchart }); }, "json"); is this the logic to use or how else can i get username and salary from the response and pass it to the barchart. Please help. I am stuck with this. thanks in advance.

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• ActionScript : Applying frame to a image / background?

  - by Jay

  I am editing a custom calendar application in flash. The purpose of this app is to let you select your own images, and create a calendar out of it. You can basically, drag and drop images of your choice and they apply frame/borders, or drag and drop embellishments. Here is the piece of code that draws a border/frame on the embellishment/image of your choice. tempListener.onLoadInit = function(target_mc:MovieClip) { var mcName = target_mc._name.substring(0, target_mc._name.indexOf("@", 0)); if(mcName == "frame_Image") { target_mc.onPress = function() { if(_root.selectedImage != null) { var index = this._name.substring(this._name.indexOf("@",0)+1, this._name.length); var objPath = nodesFrames.childNodes[index-1].attributes.image; if(_root.selectedImage._name.split("@")[0] == "image") { var mask = _root.selectedImage[_root.selectedImage._parent._name + "_" + _root.selectedImage._name + "_maskMc"]; frameImageWidth = mask._width; frameImageHeight = mask._height; frameImageXScale = -1; frameImageYScale = -1; } else { frameImageXScale = _root.selectedImage._xscale; frameImageYScale = _root.selectedImage._yscale; _root.selectedImage._xscale = 100; _root.selectedImage._yscale = 100; frameImageWidth = _root.selectedImage._width; frameImageHeight = _root.selectedImage._height; } if(_root.selectedImage["frame"]) {} else { _root.selectedImage.createEmptyMovieClip("frame", _root.selectedImage.getNextHighestDepth()); } var image_mcl1:MovieClipLoader = new MovieClipLoader(); image_mcl1.addListener(_root.mclFrameListener); image_mcl1.loadClip("Images/" + objPath, _root.selectedImage["frame"]); } } } I need to somehow apply the chosen frame image, to the entire background - not just to the embellishment or image. How do I go about this? Thanks in advance for your inputs. Please let me know if the question doesn't make sense, I will attach some images that can help you with the context.

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• What is wrong with accessing DBI directly?

  - by canavanin

  Hi everyone! I'm currently reading Effective Perl Programming (2nd edition). I have come across a piece of code which was described as being poorly written, but I don't yet understand what's so bad about it, or how it should be improved. It would be great if someone could explain the matter to me. Here's the code in question: sub sum_values_per_key { my ( $class, $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ) = @_; my %results; my $dbh = DBI->connect( $dsn, $user, $password, $parameters ); my $sth = $dbh->prepare( 'select key, calculate(value) from my_table'); $sth->execute(); # ... fill %results ... $sth->finish(); $dbh->disconnect(); return \%results; } The example comes from the chapter on testing your code (p. 324/325). The sentence that has left me wondering about how to improve the code is the following: Since the code was poorly written and accesses DBI directly, you'll have to create a fake DBI object to stand in for the real thing. I have probably not understood a lot of what the book has so far been trying to teach me, or I have skipped the section relevant for understanding what's bad practice about the above code... Well, thanks in advance for your help!

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• Is there any appreciable difference between if and if-else?

  - by Drew

  Given the following code snippets, is there any appreciable difference? public boolean foo(int input) { if(input > 10) { doStuff(); return true; } if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); return true; } return false; } vs. public boolean foo(int input) { if(input > 10) { doStuff(); return true; } else if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); return true; } else { return false; } } Or would the single exit principle be better here with this piece of code... public boolean foo(int input) { boolean toBeReturned = false; if(input > 10) { doStuff(); toBeReturned = true; } else if(input == 0) { doOtherStuff(); toBeReturned = true; } return toBeReturned; } Is there any perceptible performance difference? Do you feel one is more or less maintainable/readable than the others?

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• Bytecode and Objects

  - by HH

  Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

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• Why should I override hashCode() when I override equals() method?

  - by Bragaadeesh

  Ok, I have heard from many places and sources that whenever I override the equals() method, I need to override the hashCode() method as well. But consider the following piece of code package test; public class MyCustomObject { int intVal1; int intVal2; public MyCustomObject(int val1, int val2){ intVal1 = val1; intVal2 = val2; } public boolean equals(Object obj){ return (((MyCustomObject)obj).intVal1 == this.intVal1) && (((MyCustomObject)obj).intVal2 == this.intVal2); } public static void main(String a[]){ MyCustomObject m1 = new MyCustomObject(3,5); MyCustomObject m2 = new MyCustomObject(3,5); MyCustomObject m3 = new MyCustomObject(4,5); System.out.println(m1.equals(m2)); System.out.println(m1.equals(m3)); } } Here the output is true, false exactly the way I want it to be and I dont care of overriding the hashCode() method at all. This means that hashCode() overriding is an option rather being a mandatory one as everyone says. I want a second confirmation.

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• Impossible to be const-correct when combining data and it's lock?

  - by Graeme

  I've been looking at ways to combine a piece of data which will be accessed by multiple threads alongside the lock provisioned for thread-safety. I think I've got to a point where I don't think its possible to do this whilst maintaining const-correctness. Take the following class for example: template <typename TType, typename TMutex> class basic_lockable_type { public: typedef TMutex lock_type; public: template <typename... TArgs> explicit basic_lockable_type(TArgs&&... args) : TType(std::forward<TArgs...>(args)...) {} TType& data() { return data_; } const TType& data() const { return data_; } void lock() { mutex_.lock(); } void unlock() { mutex_.unlock(); } private: TType data_; mutable TMutex mutex_; }; typedef basic_lockable_type<std::vector<int>, std::mutex> vector_with_lock; In this I try to combine the data and lock, marking mutex_ as mutable. Unfortunately this isn't enough as I see it because when used, vector_with_lock would have to be marked as mutable in order for a read operation to be performed from a const function which isn't entirely correct (data_ should be mutable from a const). void print_values() const { std::lock_guard<vector_with_lock>(values_); for(const int val : values_) { std::cout << val << std::endl; } } vector_with_lock values_; Can anyone see anyway around this such that const-correctness is maintained whilst combining data and lock? Also, have I made any incorrect assumptions here?

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• Achieving Thread-Safety

  - by Smasher

  Question How can I make sure my application is thread-safe? Are their any common practices, testing methods, things to avoid, things to look for? Background I'm currently developing a server application that performs a number of background tasks in different threads and communicates with clients using Indy (using another bunch of automatically generated threads for the communication). Since the application should be highly availabe, a program crash is a very bad thing and I want to make sure that the application is thread-safe. No matter what, from time to time I discover a piece of code that throws an exception that never occured before and in most cases I realize that it is some kind of synchronization bug, where I forgot to synchronize my objects properly. Hence my question concerning best practices, testing of thread-safety and things like that. mghie: Thanks for the answer! I should perhaps be a little bit more precise. Just to be clear, I know about the principles of multithreading, I use synchronization (monitors) throughout my program and I know how to differentiate threading problems from other implementation problems. But nevertheless, I keep forgetting to add proper synchronization from time to time. Just to give an example, I used the RTL sort function in my code. Looked something like FKeyList.Sort (CompareKeysFunc); Turns out, that I had to synchronize FKeyList while sorting. It just don't came to my mind when initially writing that simple line of code. It's these thins I wanna talk about. What are the places where one easily forgets to add synchronization code? How do YOU make sure that you added sync code in all important places?

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• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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• Simple encryption - Sum of Hashes in C

  - by Dogbert

  I am attempting to demonstrate a simple proof of concept with respect to a vulnerability in a piece of code in a game written in C. Let's say that we want to validate a character login. The login is handled by the user choosing n items, (let's just assume n=5 for now) from a graphical menu. The items are all medieval themed: eg: _______________________________ | | | | | Bow | Sword | Staff | |-----------|-----------|-------| | Shield | Potion | Gold | |___________|___________|_______| The user must click on each item, then choose a number for each item. The validation algorithm then does the following: Determines which items were selected Drops each string to lowercase (ie: Bow becomes bow, etc) Calculates a simple string hash for each string (ie: `bow = b=2, o=15, w=23, sum = (2+15+23=40) Multiplies the hash by the value the user selected for the corresponding item; This new value is called the key Sums together the keys for each of the selected items; this is the final validation hash IMPORTANT: The validator will accept this hash, along with non-zero multiples of it (ie: if the final hash equals 1111, then 2222, 3333, 8888, etc are also valid). So, for example, let's say I select: Bow (1) Sword (2) Staff (10) Shield (1) Potion (6) The algorithm drops each of these strings to lowercase, calculates their string hashes, multiplies that hash by the number selected for each string, then sums these keys together. eg: Final_Validation_Hash = 1*HASH(Bow) + 2*HASH(Sword) + 10*HASH(Staff) + 1*HASH(Shield) + 6*HASH(Potion) By application of Euler's Method, I plan to demonstrate that these hashes are not unique, and want to devise a simple application to prove it. in my case, for 5 items, I would essentially be trying to calculate: (B)(y) = (A_1)(x_1) + (A_2)(x_2) + (A_3)(x_3) + (A_4)(x_4) + (A_5)(x_5) Where: B is arbitrary A_j are the selected coefficients/values for each string/category x_j are the hash values for each string/category y is the final validation hash (eg: 1111 above) B,y,A_j,x_j are all discrete-valued, positive, and non-zero (ie: natural numbers) Can someone either assist me in solving this problem or point me to a similar example (ie: code, worked out equations, etc)? I just need to solve the final step (ie: (B)(Y) = ...). Thank you all in advance.

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• Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

  - by JPM

  Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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• calculate camera up vector after glulookat()?

  - by carrots

  I'm just starting out teaching myself openGL and now adding openAL to the mix. I have some planets scattered around in 3D space and when I touch the screen, I'm assigning a sound to a random planet and then slowly and smoothly flying the "camera" over to look at it and listen to it. The animation/tweening part is working perfectly, but the openAL piece isn't quiet right. I move the camera around by doing a tiny translate() and gluLookAt() for every frame to keep things smooth (tweening the camera position and lookAt coords). The trouble seems to be with the stereo image I'm getting out of the headphones.. it seems like the left/right/up/down is mixed up sometimes after the camera rolls or spins. I am pretty sure the trouble is here: ALfloat listenerPos[]={camera->currentX,camera->currentY,camera->currentZ}; ALfloat listenerOri[]={camera->currentLookX, camera->currentLookY, camera->currentLookZ, 0.0,//Camera Up X <--- here 0.1,//Camera Up Y <--- here 0.0}//Camera Up Z <--- and here alListenerfv(AL_POSITION,listenerPos); alListenerfv(AL_ORIENTATION,listenerOri); I'm thinking I need to recompute the UP vector for the camera after each gluLookAt() to straighten out the audio positioning problem.. but after hours of googling and experimenting I'm stuck in math that suddenly got way over my head. 1) Am I right that I need to recalculate the up vector after each gluLookAt() i do? 2) If so, can someone please walk me though figuring out how to do that?

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• PHP: simplify with algorithm?

  - by tshabala

  Hello. Here's a piece of PHP code I think is not very "pretty", I'm sure it's possible to simplify it with for or something. I'm trying to find and algorithm that would work for this, but I can't figure it out, please help me. Here's the code: if(isset($four)) { if(isset($navi[$one][$two][$three][$four])) echo "/content/" . $one . "/" . $two . "/" . $three . "/" .$four . ".php"; else echo "error"; } else if(isset($three)) { if(isset($navi[$one][$two][$three])) echo "/content/" . $one . "/" . $two . "/" . $three . ".php"; else echo "error"; } else if(isset($two)) { if(isset($navi[$one][$two])) echo "/content/" . $one . "/" . $two . ".php"; else echo "error"; } else if(isset($one)) { if(isset($navi[$one]))echo "/content/" . $one . ".php"; else echo "error"; } else { echo "error"; } Thanks!

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• How someone using my Facebook website app can post to their pages timeline

  - by user1334414

  I have a website where businesses create content through a PHP backend system. Each time they create a new piece of content, I want it to publish to their Facebook pages timeline (not the users timeline). I have created the authenticate code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'XXXXXXXXXX', status : true, cookie : true, xfbml : true, oauth : true, }); }; (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk'; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; d.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(js); }(document)); </script> <div class="fb-login-button" scope="manage_pages"> Login with Facebook </div> With manage_pages as a scope. I need to know how they can select which page they want the post to go to (if they have more than 1 page), and also how to automatically post to that pages wall when they submit the content (which is done via a PHP form). Thanks

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• What caused the rails application crash?

  - by so1o

  I'm sure someone can explain this. we have an application that has been in production for an year. recently we saw an increase in number of support requests for people having difficulty signing into the system. after scratching our head because we couldn't recreate the problem in development, we decided we'll switch on debug logger in production for a month. that was june 5th. application worked fine with the above change and we were waiting. then yesterday we noticed that the log files were getting huge so we made another change in production config.logger = Logger.new("#{RAILS_ROOT}/log/production.log", 50, 1048576) after this change, the application started crashing while processing a particular file. this particular line of code was RAILS_DEFAULT_LOGGER.info "Payment Information Request: ", request.inspect as you can see there was a comma instead of a plus sign. this piece of code was introduced in Mar. the question is this: why did the application fail now? if changing the debug level caused the application to process this line of code it should have started failing on june 5th! why today. please someone help us. Are we missing the obvious here? if you dont have an answer, at least let us know we aren't the only one that are bonkers.

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• Opening a xul file in response to a toolbar extension button click

  - by Graham

  I'm currently building my first Firefox extension, and am having a little difficulty with one piece of functionality. I'd like to open a new browser tab in response to a button click on the toolbar. The new tab should contain the contents of a webpage, together with some extra buttons. At the moment I've created a separate xul file for the contents of the new tab: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window id="myapp-report-window" title="Example 4.5.1" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://myapp/content/main.js" /> <toolbox> <toolbar id="nav-toolbar"> <toolbarbutton label="This-is-going-to-do-some-stuff"/> </toolbar> </toolbox> <iframe id="myapp-report-frame" flex="1"/> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadPage(url){ document.getElementById('myapp-report-frame').setAttribute('src',url); } </script> </window> This xul file is launched via this javascript, referenced from the main myapptoolbar.xul: gBrowser.selectedTab = gBrowser.addTab('chrome://myapp/content/report.xul'); var newTabBrowser = gBrowser.getBrowserForTab(gBrowser.selectedTab); newTabBrowser.addEventListener("load", function(){ loadPage('http://www.somedynamicallysetwebsite.com'); }, true); The problem that I'm having is that the loadPage function is not being found, so the src attribute of the iframe is never set. I'm sure it's some silly scoping problem, but I'm very new to firefox extensions (day 2!) so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for looking! Graham

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• NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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