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• Subversion - Do I need to reintegrate if I don't merge from trunk

  - by user314584

  Hi, I have read quite a bit about the need to re-integrate when you merge from a branch back to the trunk in SVN (This article was really helpful http://blogs.open.collab.net/svn/2008/07/subversion-merg.html). The problem seems to come from the fact that people are regularly updating the branch from the trunk which means that the final merge back is reflective. In my use-case, we want to create a release branch which will live for as long as it takes to stabilise the branch and fix any bugs. To maintain stability we don't want to merge up from the trunk but we do want to regularly merge fixes down from the release branch so that trunk gets all the bug fixes for free. We also don't want to wait until the end of QA to merge back to trunk. We therefore want to: 1.) Create the branch 2.) Make regular changes to the branch (and trunk) 3.) Merge back to trunk regularly (daily perhaps) Since we will never merge up from trunk I don't think that we need to worry about the problems that re-intergrating is designed to fix. Can anyone see a problem with this approach? Cheers, Matt

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• Databinding question: DataGridView <=> XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

  - by Pretzel

  Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

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• Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

  - by James Black

  I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

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• Regex with optional part doesn't create backreference

  - by padraigf

  I want to match an optional tag at the end of a line of text. Example input text: The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog {tag} I want to match the part in curly-braces and create a back-reference to it. My regex looks like this: ^.*(\{\w+\})? (somewhat simplified, I'm also matching parts before the tag): It matches the lines ok (with and without the tag) but doesn't create a back-reference to the tag. If I remove the '?' character, so regex is: ^.*(\{\w+\}) It creates a back-reference to the tag but then doesn't match lines without the tag. I understood from http://www.regular-expressions.info/refadv.html that the optional operator wouldn't affect the backreference: Round brackets group the regex between them. They capture the text matched by the regex inside them that can be reused in a backreference, and they allow you to apply regex operators to the entire grouped regex. but must've misunderstood something. How do I make the tag part optional and create a back-reference when it exists?

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• Jsp page getting called from cache rather than getting loaded from server

  - by sam4u-optimistic86

  I am calling a jsp based on 2 parameters which is passed from jsp 1 in this way.Below i pass 2 parameters into 2.jsp and based on these 2 parameters data is displayed in 2.jsp.I have a loop in which i have a number of hrefs like the one i have described below.Each of these href passes a different set of value to 2.jsp. out.println("<a href=\"2.jsp?prId=" + prog.getId() + count + "\">" + prog.getName() + "</a>"); I retrieve these 2 parameters in 2.jsp using the following lines count_id = request.getParameter( "country_id" ); prog_id = Integer.parseInt(request.getParameter( "program_id" )); Based on these 2 parameters i show the corresponding data in 2.jsp Now i have a back button in 2.jsp and i call 1.jsp in 2.jsp using the following code <a href="1.jsp"><img src="/image/back.gif" border="0"></a> The problem is when i use the back button and go back to 1.jsp and select another href like the one i have described above i get the data related to the previous href selected. I guess the problem is when i request the page is loaded from cache rather than from the server. Please advice

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• UINavigationController navigation stack problems in Landscape Mode

  - by David F

  I have a iPhone application that I am currently converting to a Universal Binary to work with the iPad. I have successfully implemented everything I need in terms of layout so that full landscape functionality is now supported in my app (previously I primarily used portrait mode to display content). But, I have one strange problem, and it ONLY occurs in landscape mode: when I push a view controller onto the stack, it takes two taps on the back button to return to the previous view controller!!! The first tap shows a blank view, but with the same name on the left-side back navigation button, the second tap takes the controller back to previous view like it should. I don't have an iPad to test, so I am relying on the simulator. The problem does not show up on the iPhone and doesn't show up if you rotate back to portrait mode. My app consists of a tabbarcontroller with navigation controllers loaded for its vc's: //application delegate - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application //.... WebHelpViewController *vc8 = [[WebHelpViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *nv8 = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:vc8]; [self.tabBarController setViewControllers:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:nv1,nv2,nv3,nv4,nv5,nv6,nv7,nv8,nil]]; To implement landscape capability, the UITabBarController is overridden to autorotate when required: //CustomTabBarController.m - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return [[(UINavigationController *)self.selectedViewController topViewController] shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:interfaceOrientation]; } ... works fine. I navigate into new views using this method SomeViewController *vc = [[SomeViewController alloc] init]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; Has anyone encountered this problem, and do they know if it's only a simulation error?

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• Possible bug in ASP.net UpdatePanel control?

  - by Ben Robinson

  I have come across what seems to be an annoying bug with asp.net UpdatePanels in 2 seperate projects. If you have some kind of autopostback enabled control that can cause all of the controls in the update panel to have visible=false set, resulting in an empty update panel. When you change the autopostback control back to the postion that would re enable all of the controls in the update panel, it simply does not make a call back to the server and the update panel does not update. If you do anything else that makes a call back on the same page, then the update panel contents magically appear. It is as if asp.net has decided the update panel is empty so there is no point maikng a callback, even though making the call back would fill the updatepanel with content. The only way round this is to add a style of display:none to the controls instead of setting visible=false property. Then it works fine. Has anyone else encountered this problem? Is it a bug as i suspect or is it likely i am doing soemthing wrong? I haven't got time to post example code at the moment as the code i am using is too wrapped up in other unrealted things, if people think it would help i will create a simple example and post it when I get time.

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• Updates to fullcalendar events (through updateEvent) not maintaining across ajax month changes

  - by user549615

  Hey there. I have the calendar configured to allow me to edit and add (drag/drop) calendar events. I use .fullCalendar('updateEvent', theEvent) to edit an event, and it immediately updates on the page. Excellent. If I move to another month and then move back (get via ajax), that change is undone. By contrast, if I add a new event by drag/drop using: .fullCalendar('renderEvent', newEventObject, true); it appears on the calendar, and if I move to another month, and move back, it maintains. If I edit this newly added event object, and move to another month and back, the updates are retained! So the "stickiness" of edits seem to work on newly added events, but not events that were pulled via ajax (since it just pulls a fresh version via ajax when the month changes). My calendar config is: $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ theme: true, header: { left: "prev,next today", center: 'title', right: "today prev,next" }, selectable: true, selectHelper: true, select: calendarSelect, droppable: true, drop: calendarDrop, events:getCalendarData, eventClick:calendarEventClicked }); I tried setting editable: true, as well, but no dice. I noticed that if I view "event.source" on one of the ajax pulled events, it shows me a function, and if i read the source attribute on one of the "added" events, it reads [object]. So I tried setting the event.source of the event being added, to that same event object: curCalendarEvent.source = curCalendarEvent But no dice. It sets, but when I move back month forward again, it returns to the function as a source. I tried adding lazyFetching: false to my calendar config, but that didn't help. I even tried a .fullCalendar('renderEvent', curCalendarEvent, true); on the existing "edited" event to see if I could get "stick" to work, and it didn't help. The only thing I can think of doing is deleting the event flat out and recreating it. Any help would be appreciated. -Brian

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• New to web development - backend questions

  - by James

  I'm new to web development although I'm confident in the roadmap for the front-end. I need direction on two things: Basic architecture Back-end technologies For architecture, what do I need to get started? From what I know, its: Get a domain name registered (godaddy?) Find a web host ??? anything else? or start developing the site? I don't think its that easy, there must be something I'm missing, right? For the back-end technologies, I have application development experience with Java and Python, but how likely is it to find a back-end hosting site that supports these languages over PHP? Is PHP a better choice? If I stick with what I know for the back-end, am I sabotaging myself later on? If I need help, how is the market for a python/java developer vs. a php developer? What do I need to know about databases? I have some basic SQL experience. Do hosting sites have limitations on the type of databases or bandwidth I need to worry about? I'm working through some of the common sites: StackOverflow, Sitepoint forums, Google, etc...are there other resources I should use?

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• Database sharing/versioning

  - by DarkJaff

  Hi everyone, I have a question but I'm not sure of the word to use. My problem: I have an application using a database to stock information. The database can ben in access (local) or in a server (SQL Server or Oracle). We support these 3 kind of database. We want to give the possibility to the user to do what I think we can call versioning. Let me explain : We have a database 1. This is the master. We want to be able to create a database 2 that will be the same thing as database 1 but we can give it to someone else. They each work on each other side, adding, modifying and deleting records on this very complex database. After that, we want the database 1 to include the change from database 2, but with the possibility to dismiss some of the change. For you information, ou application is already multiuser so why don't we just use this multi-user and forget about this versionning? It's because sometimes, we need to give a copy of the database to another company on another site and they can't connect on our server. They work on their side and then, we want to merge. Is there anyone here with experience with this type of requirement? We have a lot of ideas but most of them require a LOT of work, massive modification to the database or to the existing queries. This is a 2 millions and growing C++ app, so rewriting it is not possible! Thanks for any ideas that you may give us! J-F

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• modifying ajax returned data before showing

  - by Nick

  I'm processing subscribtion form with jQuery/ajax and need to display results with success function (they are different depending on if email exists in database). But the trick is I do not need h2 and first "p" tag. How can I show only div#alertmsg and second "p" tag? I've tried revoming unnecessary elements with method described here, but it didn't work. Thanks in advance. Here is my code: var dataString = $('#subscribe').serialize(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/templates/willrock/pommo/user/process.php", data: dataString, success: function(data){ var result = $(data); $('#success').append(result); } Here is the data returned: <h2>Subscription Review</h2> <p><a href="url" onClick="history.back(); return false;"><img src="/templates/willrock/pommo/themes/shared/images/icons/back.png" alt="back icon" class="navimage" /> Back to Subscription Form</a></p> <div id="alertmsg" class="error"> <ul> <li>Email address already exists. Duplicates are not allowed.</li> </ul> </div> <p><a href="login.php">Update your records</a></p>

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• Does posting data with a textarea automatically add slashes to (escape) the text?

  - by animuson

  Ok, so I'm having a problem with a simple textarea. I'm using a kind of hidden page to easily encode some data using JSON. However, all of my text input is automatically being escaped somewhere and I don't know where. All of my $_POST variables are automatically run through the htmlentities() function when the script starts up, as seen below: $ani->i->post = $this->clean($_POST, true); function clean($values, $unset = false) { if (is_array($values)) { foreach ($values as $key => $value) { $newkey = strtolower($key); $return[$newkey] = $this->clean($value); unset($values[$key]); } return $return; } return htmlentities($values); } I keep getting \' for all of my single quotes when I put the value back into the textarea. I can't find anywhere where it would be adding slashes and I don't remember it being a feature that they were automatically added when you submit from a textarea, and if that was so, why would they not be returning back to a single quote when put back into the textarea? Do I really need to run variables through stripslashes() to get them back to their original form? Edit: My 'test.php' file is as follows: <h1>To Be Encoded:</h1> <form action="/test" method="post"> <textarea name="encode" rows="20" cols="50"><?= html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode']) ?></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Encode It!" /> </form> <h1>Encoded By JSON:</h1> <textarea name="encoded" rows="20" cols="50"><?= json_encode(html_entity_decode($ani->i->post['encode'])) ?></textarea> <?php die(); ?> P.S. The die() is just there for compatibility with my framework.

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• Android - sendOrderedBroadcast help

  - by Donal Rafferty

  I am trying to use a sendOrderedBroadcast in my Android app. I want to be able to send the Intent from one of my applications to another and I then want to get data back from the Application that recieves the Intent, in this case a boolean true or false. Here is the current code: Intent i = new Intent(); i.setAction(GlobalData.PROPOSE_IN_DOMAIN_ROAM_INTENT); i.putExtra("com.testnetworks.QCLEVEL", aProposedTheoreticalQoSLevel); sendOrderedBroadcast(i, null, null, null, Activity.RESULT_OK, null, null); Is this the correct way to achieve what I want? If so what do I use as the resultReceiver* parameter? (3rd parameter) And then how to I recieve data back from the Broadcast? I have done a quick google and not come up with any examples, any help or examples greatly appreciated. UPDATED CODE: sendOrderedBroadcast(i, null, domainBroadcast, null, Activity.RESULT_OK, null, null); class DomainBroadcast extends BroadcastReceiver{ @Override public void onReceive(Context arg0, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if(GlobalData.PROPOSE_IN_DOMAIN_ROAM_INTENT.equals(action)){ Log.d("BROADCAST", "Returning broadcast"); Bundle b = intent.getExtras(); Log.d("BROADCAST", "Returning broadcast " + b.getInt("com.testnetworks.INT_TEST")); } } @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if(GlobalData.PROPOSE_IN_DOMAIN_ROAM_INTENT.equals(action)){ Bundle b = intent.getExtras(); int testQCLevel = b.getInt("com.testnetworks.QCLEVEL"); switch(testQCLevel){ case 1: Log.d("QCLevel ", "QCLevel = UNAVAILABLE"); break; case 2: Log.d("QCLevel ", "QCLevel = BELOWUSABILITY"); break; case 3: Log.d("QCLevel ", "QCLevel = VOICE"); break; } intent.putExtra("com.testnetworks.INT_TEST", 100); } So according to the Doc's I should recieve 100 back in my DomainBroadcast reciever but it always comes back as 0. Can anyone see why? *resultReceiver - Your own BroadcastReceiver to treat as the final receiver of the broadcast.

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• jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

  - by M Katz

  I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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• Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

  - by Jeremy Dowell

  I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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• Java the little console game won't repeat?

  - by Jony Kale

  Okay, what I have so far is: You enter the game, and write "spin" to the console. Program will enter the while loop. In the while loop, if entered int is -1, return to the back (Set console input back to "", and let the user select what game he would like to play). Problem: Instead of going back, and selecting "spin" again, the program exits? Why is it happening? How can I fix this? private static Scanner console = new Scanner(System.in); private static Spin spin = new Spin(); private static String inputS = ""; private static int inputI = 0; private static String[] gamesArray = new String[] {"spin", "tof"}; private static boolean spinWheel = false; private static boolean tof = false; public static void main (String[] args) { if (inputS.equals("")) { System.out.println("Welcome to the system!"); System.out.print("Please select a game: "); inputS = console.nextLine(); } while (inputS.equals("spin")) { System.out.println("Welcome to the spin game! Please write 1 to spin. and -1 to exit back"); inputI = console.nextInt(); switch (inputI) { case 1: break; case -1: inputI = 0; inputS = ""; break; } } }

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• Easiest RPC client method in PHP

  - by T.K.

  I've been asked to help a friend's company to bring up a web application. I have very limited time and I reluctantly accepted the request, at one condition. As most of the logic goes on in the back-end, I suggested that I would finish the complete back-end only, allowing a front-end developer to simply interface with my backend. I plan to do the back-end in Java EE or Python (with Pylons). It does not really matter at this point. I plan to have my back-end completely ready and unit-tested, so that my input will hardly be needed after my work is done. I know they have a PHP programmer, but as far as I could tell he is a real rookie. I want him to basically interface with my backend's services in the easiest possible way, with no way of him "stuffing" it up. It's basically a CRUD-only application. I could implement the backend as accessible through a webservice such as XML-RPC or SOAP. Even a RESTful API could be possible. However, my main objective is to make something that complete "noob" PHP programmer can easily interface with without getting confused. Preferably I do not even want to talk to him because I generally have an extremely busy schedule, and doing "support calls" is not something I am willing to do. Which approach should I choose? I would welcome any suggestions and inputs!

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• How can I suppress the vertical gridlines in a ggplot2 plot while retaining the x-axis labels?

  - by Tarek

  This is a follow-on from this question, in which I was trying to suppress the vertical gridlines. The solution, as provided by learnr, was to add scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA), but this had the side effect of also suppressing the x-axis labels, as well. I am totally happy to write the labels back in by hand, but it's not clear to me how to figure out where the labels should go. The other option is to suppress all gridlines (using opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank()) or some such) and then drawing back in just the major horizontal gridlines. Again, the problem here is how to figure out what the breaks are in the plot to supply to geom_hline(). So, essentially, my options are: Suppress vertical gridlines and x-axis labels (using scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) ) and add the x-axis labels back in. Suppress all gridlines (using opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank()) ) and add the major horizontal gridlines back in using geom_hline(). Here are the two options: library(ggplot2) data <- data.frame(x = 1:10, y = c(3,5,2,5,6,2,7,6,5,4)) # suppressing vertical gridlines and x-axis labels # need to re-draw x-axis labels ggplot(data, aes(x, y)) + geom_bar(stat = 'identity') + scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) + opts( panel.grid.major = theme_line(size = 0.5, colour = '#1391FF'), panel.grid.minor = theme_blank(), panel.background = theme_blank(), axis.ticks = theme_blank() ) # suppressing all gridlines # need to re-draw horizontal gridlines, probably with geom_hbar() ggplot(data, aes(x, y)) + geom_bar(stat = 'identity') + scale_x_continuous(breaks = NA) + opts( panel.grid.major = theme_blank(), panel.grid.minor = theme_blank(), panel.background = theme_blank(), axis.ticks = theme_blank() )

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• Problem pushing multiple view controllers onto navigation controller stack

  - by Jim

  Hi, I am trying to push three view controllers onto the navigation controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:one animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:two animated:YES]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:three animated:YES]; The desired behavior is that view three will show, and when the back button is pressed it will go to view two and then to view one... What actually happens is that view one is visible and pressing back goes to view two and then back again it goes to view one. Which is to say that view one is shown instead of view three. Very strangely, looking at the viewController array of the navigationController after the calls above show the right entries, and looking at the visibleViewController property shows that it has view three in it... even though view one is visible. If i navigate to a sub view from the visible view one (that shows in the place of view three) and press back from that sub view... it goes to view three. It looks like it is showing view one, but knows it is on view three... I am completely confused... any ideas? Jim

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• Entity Framework. Updating EntityCollection using disconnected objects via navigation property.

  - by yougotiger

  I have a question, much liket this unanswered one. I'm trying to work with the entity framework, and having a tough time getting my foreign tables to update. I have something basically like this in the DB: Incident (table): -ID -other fields Responses (table): -FK:Incident.ID -other fields And and entities that match: Incident (entity) -ID -Other fields -Responses (EntityCollection of Responses via navigation property) Each Incident can have 0 or more responses. In my Webpage, I have a form to allow the user to enter all the details of an Incident, including a list of responses. I can add everything to the database when a new Incident is created, however I'm having difficulty with editing the Incident. When the page loads for edit, I populate the form and then store the responses in the viewstate. When the user changes the list of responses (adds one, deletes one or edits one). I store this back into the viewstate. Then when the user clicks the save button, I'd like to save the changes to the Incident and the Responses back to the DB. I cannot figure out how to get the responses from the detached viewstate into the Incident object so that they can be updated together. Currently when the user clicks save, I'm getting the Incident to edit from the db, making changes to the Incident's fields and then saving it back to the DB. However I can't figure out how to have the detached list of responses from the viewstate attach to the Incident. I have tried the following without success: Clearning the Incident.Responses collection and adding the ones from the viewstate back in: Incident.Responses.Clear() for each objResponse in Viewstate("Responses") Incident.Responses.add(objResponse) next Creating an EntityCollection from my list and then assiging that to the Incident.Responses Incident.Responses = EntityCollectionFromViewstateList Iterating through the responses in Incident.Response and assigning the corresponding object from viewstate: for each ObjResponse in Incident.Responses objResponse = objCorrespondingModifedResonseFromViewState Next These all fail, I'd like to be able to merge the changes into the Inicdent object so that when the BLL calls SaveChanges on the changes to both the Incident and Responses will happen at the same time. Any suggestions? I keep finding lots of stuff about assigning foreign keys (singular), but I haven't found a great solution for doing a set of entities assigned to another entity in this manner.

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• Redirecting from an update action to the referrer of the edit

  - by Mark Westling

  My Rails 2.3 application has a User model and the usual controller actions. The edit form can be reached two ways: when a user edits his own profile from the home page, or when an admin user edits someone else's profile from users collection. What I'd like to do is have the update action redirect back to the referred of the edit action, not the update action. If I do a simple redirect_to(:back) within update, it goes back to the edit form -- not good. One solution is to forget entirely about referrers and redirect based on the current_user and the updated user: if they're the same, go back to the home page, else go to the users collection page. This will break if I ever add a third path to the edit form. It's doubtful I'll ever do this but I'd prefer a solution that's not so brittle. Another solution is to store the referrer of edit form in a hidden field and then redirect to this value from inside the update action. This doesn't feel quite right, though I can't explain why. Are there any better approaches? Or, should I stop worrying and go with one of the two I've mentioned?

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• Alternative way of implementation of a code

  - by vikramjb

  The title is not exactly meaningful, but I am not share what else to name it. I wrote a TOC Generation code sometime later. Based on this I was writing code to check for duplicates also. The code is as follows curNumber = getTOCReference(selItem.SNo, IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); curNumber = realTOCRef; And the code for CheckForDuplicates is ListViewItem curItem = this.tlvItems.FindItemWithText(curNumber); if (curItem != null) { curNumber = this.getTOCReference(curNumber, !IsParent); CheckForDuplicates(curNumber, IsParent,out realTOCRef); } else { realTOCRef= curNumber; } What this code does, it gets a TOC and tries it find if it already exists in the ObjectListView and gets a new TOC if there is a existing TOC. Once it determines that the generated TOC is not there in the list it stores it in realTOCRef and sends it back to the main calling code. I have used "out" to return the last generated TOC, which is something I did not want to do. The reason why I did it was after the non duplicate TOC was generated the return was not going back to the calling code instead it looped through the previous instances then it returned back. When the looping back happened the TOC that was to be returned also got reset. I would appreciate any help on this.

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• Why is there a time lag when trying to change the text on a button in IE using JQuery?

  - by Deane

  I have some Ajax that runs on a button click. Sometimes it takes a few seconds to return, so I wanted a visual clue to the user that the browser was doing something. So, I have this: $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); As you can see, it changes the text on the button, and disables it. When the Ajax call comes back (it's synchronous, remember), the button changes back. In Firefox, this works great. In IE, it's...odd. It doesn't run the code in order. It doesn't change the text of the button and launches right into the Ajax call. The browser blocks with the Submit active and saying "Submit." Right after the Ajax comes back, the button quickly flashes "Working..." then back to Submit." So, for some reason, IE isn't changing the text of the button until after the Ajax call, even though the code for it is before the Ajax call. It's acting like this: //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); Again, this works perfectly in Firefox. But in IE, there's some kind of...lag?

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• PHP form processing - how to capture text from field that has variable Name/ID

  - by user80151

  I have a form that has a field pulled from the database as a dropdown. I need to get the text selected in the dropdown but I don't know in advance what the field ID will be. This is basically just a form that has already been generated. I don't need to pull anything from the database, it's already on this page. All I need to do is get the form information and email it, no writing to the database. I know how to do the _Request for the other fields based on the ID but I'm not sure how to do this one. The ID changes. It can be ID=1, ID-2, etc. I need to do something like: _REQUEST form element where ID is LIKE "ID[*]" or something similar. Any suggestions or links to tutorials? Here are a couple samples of what the dropdown renders on the page: <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib- 1">Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[1]" id="attrib-1"> <option value="45">VC3-4C</option> <option value="1">VC3-4PG</option> <option value="3">VC3-4SG</option> <div class="wrapperAttribsOptions"> <h4 class="optionName back"><label class="attribsSelect" for="attrib-14">SPK Model</label></h4> <div class="back"> <select name="id[14]" id="attrib-14"> <option value="43">SPK-4</option> <option value="44">SPK-8</option> </select> TIA

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• Obj-C: Passing pointers to initialized classes in other classes

  - by FnGreg7

  Hey all. I initialized a class in my singleton called DataModel. Now, from my UIViewController, when I click a button, I have a method that is trying to access that class so that I may add an object to one of its dictionaries. My get/set method passes back the pointer to the class from my singleton, but when I am back in my UIViewController, the class passed back doesn't respond to methods. It's like it's just not there. I think it has something to do with the difference in passing pointers around classes or something. I even tried using the copy method to throw a copy back, but no luck. UIViewController: ApplicationSingleton *applicationSingleton = [[ApplicationSingleton alloc] init]; DataModel *dataModel = [applicationSingleton getDataModel]; [dataModel retrieveDataCategory:dataCategory]; Singleton: ApplicationSingleton *m_instance; DataModel *m_dataModel; - (id) init { NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton.m initialized."); self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { if(m_instance != nil) { return m_instance; } NSLog(@"Initializing the application singleton."); m_instance = self; m_dataModel = [[DataModel alloc] init]; } NSLog(@"ApplicationSingleton init method returning."); return m_instance; } -(DataModel *)getDataModel { DataModel *dataModel_COPY = [m_dataModel copy]; return dataModel_COPY; } For the getDataModel method, I also tried this: -(DataModel *)getDataModel { return m_dataModel; } In my DataModel retrieveDataCategory method, I couldn't get anything to work. I even just tried putting a NSLog in there but it never would come onto the console. Any ideas?

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