Search Results

Search found 2821 results on 113 pages for 'curious jo'.

Page 108/113 | < Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113  | Next Page >

  • dojo.require() prevents Firefox from rendering the page

    - by Eduard Wirch
    Im experiencing strange behavior with Firefox and Dojo. I have a html page with these lines in the <head> section: ... <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.js" djconfig="parseOnLoad: true, locale: 'de'"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dojo.number"); </script> ... Sometimes the page loads normally. But sometimes it won't. Firefox will fetch the whole html page but not render it. I see only a gray window. After some experiments I figured out that the rendering problem has something to do with the load time of the html. Firefox starts evaluating the html page while loading it. If the page takes too long to load the above javascript will be executed BEFORE the html finishes loading. If this happens I'll get the gray window. Advising Firefox to show me the source code of the page will display the correct complete html code. BUT: if I save the page to disk (File-Save Page As...) the html code will be truncated and the above part will look like this: ... <script type="text/javascript" src="dojo.js" djconfig="parseOnLoad: true, locale: 'de'"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dojo.number"); </script></head><body></body></html> This explains why I get to see a gray area. But why does this code appear there? I assume the require() method of Dojo does something "evil". But I can't figure out what. There is no write.document("</head><body></body></html>"); in the Dojo code. I checked for it. The problem would be fixed, if I'd place the dojo.require("dojo.number"); statement in the window.load event: <script type="text/javascript"> window.load=function() { dojo.require("dojo.number"); } </script> But I'm curious why this happens. Is there a Javasctript function which forces Firefox to stop evaluating the page? Does Dojo do somethig "bad"? Can anyone explain this behavior to me? EDIT: Dojo 1.3.1, no JS errors or warnings.

    Read the article

  • EJB3 Transaction Propogation

    - by Matt S.
    I have a stateless bean something like: @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean implements MyStatelessLocal, MyStatelessRemote { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.SUPPORTED) public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.process(obj); } } @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } The typically usage then is the client would call processObjects(...), which doesn't actually interact with the entity manager. It does what it needs to do and calls process(...) individually for each object to process. The duration of process(...) is relatively short, but processObjects(...) could take a very long time to run through everything. Therefore I don't want it to maintain an open transaction. I do need the individual process(...) operations to operate within their own transaction. This should be a new transaction for every call. Lastly I'd like to keep the option open for the client to call process(...) directly. I've tried a number of different transaction types: never, not supported, supported (on processObjects) and required, requires new (on process) but I get TransactionRequiredException every time merge() is called. I've been able to make it work by splitting up the methods into two different beans: @Stateless @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED) public class MyStatelessBean1 implements MyStatelessLocal1, MyStatelessRemote1 { @EJB private MyStatelessBean2 myBean2; public void processObjects(List<Object> objs) { // this method just processes the data; no need for a transaction for(Object obj : objs) { this.myBean2.process(obj); } } } @Stateless public class MyStatelessBean2 implements MyStatelessLocal2, MyStatelessRemote2 { @PersistenceContext(unitName="myPC") private EntityManager mgr; @TransationAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW) public void process(Object obj) { // do some work with obj that must be in the scope of a transaction this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.merge(obj); // ... this.mgr.flush(); } } but I'm still curious if it's possible to accomplish this in one class. It looks to me like the transaction manager only operates at the bean level, even when individual methods are given more specific annotations. So if I mark one method in a way to prevent the transaction from starting calling other methods within that same instance will also not create a transaction, no matter how they're marked? I'm using JBoss Application Server 4.2.1.GA, but non-specific answers are welcome / preferred.

    Read the article

  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

    Read the article

  • Drawing performance with CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider?

    - by Rnegi
    I've actually curious about this for the iPhone. I am getting an MJPEG stream from a server and trying to render it natively on the iphone (without the use of safari class). Reasons for this is because the safari class while CAN render MJPEG natively, does not do so at the framerate I would like. So I tried drawing it natively, but I've come up with performance issues, namely a syncing issue between what I'm getting from the server and what I am able to draw onto the screen of the phone. (There should be a little lag, but the drift gets really bad, which is what I want to avoid). So I have a connection set up to my server and I do get the JPEGS. It's just data I insert into a NSMutableArray buffer CFMutableDataRef _t_data_ref = (CFMutableDataRef)[_buffer_array objectAtIndex:0]; //CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData (_cf_buffer_data); CGDataProviderRef imgDataProvider = CGDataProviderCreateWithCFData(_t_data_ref); CGImageRef image = CGImageCreateWithJPEGDataProvider(imgDataProvider, NULL, true, kCGRenderingIntentDefault); CGImageRef imgRef = image; CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 17, 380, 285), imgRef); CGImageRelease(image); CGDataProviderRelease(imgDataProvider); please note this is the gist of my code, but it should summarize what I am trying to accomplish with regards to drawing. Also in order to get the framerate in sync, I had to detach a separate thread that sleeps X seconds and calls [self setNeedsDisplay]. NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Top-level pool while(1) { //[NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:TIMER_REFRESH_VALUE]; //sleep(unsigned int ); usleep(MICRO_REFRESH_VALUE); if ([_buffer_array count] > 10) { //NSLog(@"stuff %d", [_buffer_array count]); //[self setNeedsDisplay]; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(setNeedsDisplay) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } } [pool release]; // Release the objects in the pool. My buffer of jpeg data actually fills up quite quick, but I can't seem to actually consume what i'm getting at the same rate, actually much slower. Are there any documents that can describe what kind of performance tuning I can do to make it go faster when rendering the JPEG to the screen? Or am I kind of stuck here? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MS Access 2003 - Unbound Form uses INSERT statement to save to table; what about subforms?

    - by Justin
    So I have an unbound form that I use to save data to a table on button click. Is there a way I can have subforms for entry that will allow me to save data to the table within that same button click? Basically I want to add more entry options for the user, and while I know other ways to do it, I am particularly curious about doing it this way (if it can be done). So lets say the 'parent form' is frmMain. And there are two child forms "sub1" and "sub2". Just for example sake lets say on frmMain there are two text boxes: txtTitle & txtAuthor. sub1 and sub2 both have a text Box on them that represent something like prices. The idea is Title & author of a book, and then a price at each store (simplified). So I tried this (because I thought it was worth a shot): Dim db as DAO.database Dim sql as String sql = "INSERT INTO (Title, Author, PriceA, PriceB) VALUES (" if not isnull(me.txtTitle) then sql = sql & """" & me.txtTitle & """," Else sql = sql & " NULL," End If if not IsNull(me.txtAuthor) then sql = sql & " """ & me.txtAuthor & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not IsNull (forms!sub1.txtPrice) then sql = sql & " """ & forms!sub1.txtPrice & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if without finishing the code, i think you may see the GOTCHA i am headed for. I tried this and got an "Access cannot find the form "" ". I think I can pretty much see why on this approach too, because when I click the button that calls the new sub form into the parent form, the values that were just entered are not held/saved as sub1 closes and sub2 opens. I should mention that the idea above is not intended to be a one or the other approach, rather both sub forms used everytime. so this is an example. i want to use this method (if possible) to have about 7 different sub form choices in one form, and be able to save to a table via a SQL statement. I realize that there may be better ways, but I am just wondering if I can get there with this approach out of curiousity. Thanks as always!

    Read the article

  • Help organising controllers logically

    - by kenny99
    Hi guys, I'm working on a site which i'm developing using an MVC structure. My models will represent all of data in the site, but i'm struggling a bit to decide on a good controller structure. The site will allow users to login/register and see personal data on a number of pages, but also still have access to public pages, e.g FAQs, Contact page etc. This is what I have at the moment... A Template Controller which handles main template display. The basic template for the site will remain the same whether or not you are logged in. A main Website Controller which extends the Template Controller and handles basic authentication. If the user is logged in, a User::control_panel() method is called from the constructor and this builds the control panel which will be present throughout the authenticated session. If user is not logged in, then a different view is loaded instead of the control panel, e.g with a login form. All protected/public page related controllers will extend the website controller. The user homepage has a number of widgets I want to display, which I'm doing via a Home Controller which extends the Website Controller. This controller generates these widgets via the following static calls: $this->template->content->featured_pet = Pet::featured(); $this->template->content->popular_names = Pet::most_popular(); $this->template->content->owner_map = User::generate_map(); $this->template->content->news = News::snippet(); I suppose the first thing I'm unsure about is if the above static calls to controllers (e.g Pet and User) are ok to remain static - these static methods will return views which are loaded into the main template. This is the way I've done things in the past but I'm curious to find out if this is a sensible approach. Other protected pages for signed in users will be similar to the Home Controller. Static pages will be handled by a Page Controller which will also extend the Website Controller, so that it will know whether or not the user control panel or login form should be shown on the left hand side of the template. The protected member only pages will not be routed to the Page Controller, this controller will only handle publicly available pages. One problem I have at the moment, is that if both public and protected pages extend the Website Controller, how do I avoid an infinite loop - for example, the idea is that the website controller should handle authentication then redirect to the requested controller (URL), but this will cause an infinite redirect loop, so i need to come up with a better way of dealing with this. All in all, does this setup make any sense?! Grateful for any feedback.

    Read the article

  • How to Determine the Size of MSADO Command Parameters

    - by Adam
    I am new to MS ADO and trying to understand how to set the size on command parameters as created by the command.CreateParameter (Name, Type, Direction, Size, Value) The documentation says the following: Size Optional. A Long value that specifies the maximum length for the parameter value in characters or bytes. ... If you specify a variable-length data type in the Type argument, you must either pass a Size argument or set the Size property of the Parameter object before appending it to the Parameters collection; otherwise, an error occurs. 1.) What should one pass for fixed-size parameters? Is it a "don't care"? I was a bit confused by the example found here, in which they set size to 3 for an adInteger parameter with Value set to a variant of type VT_I2 pPrmByRoyalty->Type = adInteger; pPrmByRoyalty->Size = 3; pPrmByRoyalty->Direction = adParamInput; pPrmByRoyalty->Value = vtroyal; VT_I2 implies two bytes. A tagVARIANT struct is 16 bytes. How did they land on three? I see that the enum value for adInteger happens to be three, but I suspect that is just a coincidence. So it's a bit confusing what to pass for fixed-size parameters. The team I'm working with has always passed sizeof(int) for adInteger, and it seems to work. Is that correct? Now, for "variable-length" parameters: we are instructed by the documentation to pass "the maximum length .. in characters or bytes". 2.) For adVarChar, is it sufficient to pass the max width as defined in the database? 3.) What about the Wide types (e.g. adVarWChar)? Is it characters or bytes? 4.) How about adVariant, which could contain fixed- or variable-length data? 5.) Do arrays ever come into play here? (we don't pass them as parameters, just curious) Any references or personal insights are welcome.

    Read the article

  • Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

    - by Dan Bryant
    I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

    Read the article

  • Using in app purchase to unlock features vs. using free & paid app versions for iPhone

    - by yabada
    I have an app that I was going to release as a free (lite) version with some of the total functionality and a paid full version with advanced functionality. Now, with in app purchase for free apps I am thinking of going that route with the ability to unlock features as needed. I'm not talking about a trial version that expires.I want people to be able to try out the app and get an idea of the interface and functionality before deciding to purchase the full functionality of each major section of the app, basically. Here's an analogy of what my app would be like. Let's say you have a cooking app that teaches you to cook in different styles. There could be major section for French, Italian, and Chinese. Each section could have some rudiments unlocked in the free app so users can see the UI and basics of the functionality. Then, the user could decide to purchase each major section (or not) individually with in app purchase or buy the full versioned app (with the free/paid model). One concern I have with offering a free app with in app purchase would be with feedback. I would be very clear in my description in the app store that there is in app purchase for full features but I'm worried that less serious users could/would leave negative feedback. I suppose that's always a risk but curious about any experience with this. It also seems that it could be a whole lot more complicated keeping track of what portions of the app are locked and unlocked with in app purchase. I know I'd have to have all the code for the full functionality and "lock" the portions that haven't been purchased. How do people usually lock portions of their code? I'm not talking about the process of purchasing (I've read the In App Purchase Programming Guide) but after the purchase has been made. Would I just keep track of what the user has purchased and put conditionals on the sections that are initially locked? Or is there another way to do this as well? My instinct is for the in app purchase (particularly since users could purchase the major sections that they want individually).

    Read the article

  • CodeGolf: Brothers

    - by John McClane
    Hi guys, I just finished participating in the 2009 ACM ICPC Programming Conest in the Latinamerican Finals. These questions were for Brazil, Bolivia, Chile, etc. My team and I could only finish two questions out of the eleven (not bad I think for the first try). Here's one we could finish. I'm curious to seeing any variations to the code. The question in full: ps: These questions can also be found on the official ICPC website available to everyone. In the land of ACM ruled a greeat king who became obsessed with order. The kingdom had a rectangular form, and the king divided the territory into a grid of small rectangular counties. Before dying the king distributed the counties among his sons. The king was unaware of the rivalries between his sons: The first heir hated the second but not the rest, the second hated the third but not the rest, and so on...Finally, the last heir hated the first heir, but not the other heirs. As soon as the king died, the strange rivaly among the King's sons sparked off a generalized war in the kingdom. Attacks only took place between pairs of adjacent counties (adjacent counties are those that share one vertical or horizontal border). A county X attacked an adjacent county Y whenever X hated Y. The attacked county was always conquered. All attacks where carried out simultanously and a set of simultanous attacks was called a battle. After a certain number of battles, the surviving sons made a truce and never battled again. For example if the king had three sons, named 0, 1 and 2, the figure below shows what happens in the first battle for a given initial land distribution: INPUT The input contains several test cases. The first line of a test case contains four integers, N, R, C and K. N - The number of heirs (2 <= N <= 100) R and C - The dimensions of the land. (2 <= R,C <= 100) K - Number of battles that are going to take place. (1 <= K <= 100) Heirs are identified by sequential integers starting from zero. Each of the next R lines contains C integers HeirIdentificationNumber (saying what heir owns this land) separated by single spaces. This is to layout the initial land. The last test case is a line separated by four zeroes separated by single spaces. (To exit the program so to speak) Output For each test case your program must print R lines with C integers each, separated by single spaces in the same format as the input, representing the land distribution after all battles. Sample Input: Sample Output: 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 0 0 1 2 0 2 1 0 1 1 0 2 0 2 2 2 0 0 1 2 0 0 2 0 0 0 1 2 2 Another example: Sample Input: Sample Output: 4 2 3 4 1 0 3 1 0 3 2 1 2 2 1 2

    Read the article

  • Code Golf: Evaluating Mathematical Expressions

    - by Noldorin
    Challenge Here is the challenge (of my own invention, though I wouldn't be surprised if it has previously appeared elsewhere on the web). Write a function that takes a single argument that is a string representation of a simple mathematical expression and evaluates it as a floating point value. A "simple expression" may include any of the following: positive or negative decimal numbers, +, -, *, /, (, ). Expressions use (normal) infix notation. Operators should be evaluated in the order they appear, i.e. not as in BODMAS, though brackets should be correctly observed, of course. The function should return the correct result for any possible expression of this form. However, the function does not have to handle malformed expressions (i.e. ones with bad syntax). Examples of expressions: 1 + 3 / -8 = -0.5 (No BODMAS) 2*3*4*5+99 = 219 4 * (9 - 4) / (2 * 6 - 2) + 8 = 10 1 + ((123 * 3 - 69) / 100) = 4 2.45/8.5*9.27+(5*0.0023) = 2.68... Rules I anticipate some form of "cheating"/craftiness here, so please let me forewarn against it! By cheating, I refer to the use of the eval or equivalent function in dynamic languages such as JavaScript or PHP, or equally compiling and executing code on the fly. (I think my specification of "no BODMAS" has pretty much guaranteed this however.) Apart from that, there are no restrictions. I anticipate a few Regex solutions here, but it would be nice to see more than just that. Now, I'm mainly interested in a C#/.NET solution here, but any other language would be perfectly acceptable too (in particular, F# and Python for the functional/mixed approaches). I haven't yet decided whether I'm going to accept the shortest or most ingenious solution (at least for the language) as the answer, but I would welcome any form of solution in any language, except what I've just prohibited above! My Solution I've now posted my C# solution here (403 chars). Update: My new solution has beaten the old one significantly at 294 chars, with the help of a bit of lovely regex! I suspected that this will get easily beaten by some of the languages out there with lighter syntax (particularly the funcional/dynamic ones), and have been proved right, but I'd be curious if someone could beat this in C# still. Update I've seen some very crafty solutions already. Thanks to everyone who has posted one. Although I haven't tested any of them yet, I'm going to trust people and assume they at least work with all of the given examples. Just for the note, re-entrancy (i.e. thread-safety) is not a requirement for the function, though it is a bonus. Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear/semi-obfuscated function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

    Read the article

  • Collapsed Visibility Within a WPF ComboBoxItem

    - by user832747
    I used a Style setter to stretch out my ComboBoxItem (and button) so that it spans the entire length of the ComboBox like so: <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> This works fine. Now, I add an additional button within the same ComboBoxItem, but have it set to Visibility Collapsed. <ComboBox > <ComboBox.Resources> <Style TargetType="ComboBoxItem"> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ComboBox.Resources> <ComboBoxItem > <DockPanel > <Button Content="My Button" /> <Button Content="My Collapsed Button" Visibility="Collapsed" /> </DockPanel> </ComboBoxItem> </ComboBox> Now, the new button is invisible, but I expected my original button to still stretch the entire ComboBox, like it does with the above code. However, it does not. Why is this so? Is there a solution for this? I am using DataTriggers to edit the Visibility property. NOTE: I also get the same thing if I just set HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" in the ComboBox. UPDATE: Ok, this actually has something to do with the DockPanel. I changed it to a StackPanel, and it works as desired. However, I suppose I'm still curious as to why my first button would not stretch the entire DockPanel if the second button is collapsed?

    Read the article

  • Matching unmatched strings based on a unknown pattern

    - by Polity
    Alright guys, i really hurt my brain over this one and i'm curious if you guys can give me any pointers towards the right direction i should be taking. The situation is this: Lets say, i have a collection of strings (let it be clear that the pattern of this strings is unknown. For a fact, i can say that the string contain only signs from the ASCII table and therefore, i dont have to worry about weird Chinese signs). For this example, i take the following collection of strings (note that the strings dont have to make any human sence so dont try figguring them out :)): "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[003].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "-001- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1", "-002- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1" Now, what i need to have is a way of finding logical groups (and subgroups) of these set of strings, so in the above example, just by rational thinking, you can combine the first 3, the 2 after that and the last 2. Also the resulting groups from the first 5 can be combined in one main group with 2 subgroups, this should give you something like this: { { "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[003].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", } { "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", } { "-001- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1", "-002- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1" } } Sorry for the layout above but indenting with 4 spaces doesnt seem to work correctly (or im frakk'n it up). Anyways, I'm not sure how to approach this problem (how to get the result desired as indicated above). First of, i thought of creating a huge set of regexes which would parse most known patterns but the amount of different patterns is just to huge that this isn't realistic. Another think i thought of was parsing each indidual word within a string (so strip all non alphabetic or numeric characters and split by those), and if X% matches, i can assume the strings belong to the same group. (where X wil probably be around 80/90). However, i find the area of speculation kinda big. For example, when matching strings with each 20 words, the change of hitting above 80% is kinda big (that means that 4 words can differ), however when matching only 8 words, 2 words at most can differ. My question to you is, what would be a logical approach in the above situation? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Java Hardware Acceleration

    - by Freezerburn
    I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

    Read the article

  • memcpy segmentation fault on linux but not os x

    - by Andre
    I'm working on implementing a log based file system for a file as a class project. I have a good amount of it working on my 64 bit OS X laptop, but when I try to run the code on the CS department's 32 bit linux machines, I get a seg fault. The API we're given allows writing DISK_SECTOR_SIZE (512) bytes at a time. Our log record consists of the 512 bytes the user wants to write as well as some metadata (which sector he wants to write to, the type of operation, etc). All in all, the size of the "record" object is 528 bytes, which means each log record spans 2 sectors on the disk. The first record writes 0-512 on sector 0, and 0-15 on sector 1. The second record writes 16-512 on sector 1, and 0-31 on sector 2. The third record writes 32-512 on sector 2, and 0-47 on sector 3. ETC. So what I do is read the two sectors I'll be modifying into 2 freshly allocated buffers, copy starting at record into buf1+the calculated offset for 512-offset bytes. This works correctly on both machines. However, the second memcpy fails. Specifically, "record+DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset" in the below code segfaults, but only on the linux machine. Running some random tests, it gets more curious. The linux machine reports sizeof(Record) to be 528. Therefore, if I tried to memcpy from record+500 into buf for 1 byte, it shouldn't have a problem. In fact, the biggest offset I can get from record is 254. That is, memcpy(buf1, record+254, 1) works, but memcpy(buf1, record+255, 1) segfaults. Does anyone know what I'm missing? Record *record = malloc(sizeof(Record)); record->tid = tid; record->opType = OP_WRITE; record->opArg = sector; int i; for (i = 0; i < DISK_SECTOR_SIZE; i++) { record->data[i] = buf[i]; // *buf is passed into this function } char* buf1 = malloc(DISK_SECTOR_SIZE); char* buf2 = malloc(DISK_SECTOR_SIZE); d_read(ad->disk, ad->curLogSector, buf1); d_read(ad->disk, ad->curLogSector+1, buf2); memcpy(buf1+offset, record, DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset); memcpy(buf2, record+DISK_SECTOR_SIZE-offset, offset+sizeof(Record)-sizeof(record->data));

    Read the article

  • Auto update the content in ASP.NET

    - by Zerotoinfinite
    I have to design a website where user can update their status, just like facebook and twitter and other social networking sites. Now my requirement is to refresh the feed with new user updates. Ex: when the new status comes facebook automatically add that on the top of the feed. on the other hand twitter shows the number of updates which is ready to be load. both ways are acceptable to me Now, I have to decide what is the best way to achieve this functionality. I am open to use ASP.NET. So I am confused that regular repeater control with timer and auto refresh or any other way? (I am wondering that if I set repeater for auto update and meanwhile if user is performing some action on any status it will lost). or do I need to change my framework from ASP.NET to ASP.NET MVC (I am little afraid with MVC as I have very less knowledge regarding it and I know it has a learning curve to master ajax/Jquery things) Any suggestion how I can I achieve it in a better and feasible way? EDIT1 I am not looking for a code but I want advice to achieve this. Supporting URL's would be appreciated. EDIT2 I am open to JQuery which can regularly check the database and fill the section. But my concern is this that if user is updating any comment and want to load/feed is automatically generated. his textbox text shouldn't be disappear (just like facebook, twitter or Linkedin) EDIT3 I have seen that on Stack overflow when any other user has modified the question/answer, I got notification like this question/answer is modified. and when I clicked on that notification only that section got reloaded. I am curious to know how to achieve this functionality. So that when user is commenting on a status/post and if meanwhile someone has updated the content then it would show the other user comment. Edit4 Could someone please recommend me an example of ASP.NET MVC 3+ which can do similar kind of activity (i.e. one input box and once user insert an text it will add the item in the list (with JQuery).

    Read the article

  • Richfaces modal panel and a4j:keepAlive

    - by mykola
    Hello! I've got unexpected problems with richfaces (3.3.2) modal panel. When i try to open it, browser opens two panels instead of one: one is in the center, another is in the upper left corner. Besides, no fading happens. Also i have three modes: view, edit, new - and when i open my panel it should show either "Create new..." or "Edit..." in the header and actually it shows but not in the header as the latter isn't rendered at all though it should, because i set proper mode in action before opening this modal panel. Besides it works fine on all other pages i've made and there are tens of such pages in my application. I can't understand what's wrong here. The only way to fix it is to remove <a4j:keepAlive/> from the page that is very strange, imho. I'm not sure if code will be usefull here as it works fine everywhere in my application but this only case. So if you put it on your page it will probably work without problems. My only question is: are there any hidden or rare problems in interaction of these two elements (<rich:modalPanel> and <a4j:keepAlive>)? Or shall i spent another two or three days searching for some wrong comma, parenthesis or whatever in my code? :) For most curious. Panel itself: <!-- there's no outer form --> <rich:modalPanel id="panel" autosized="true" minWidth="300" minHeight="200"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:panelGroup id="panelHeader"> <h:outputText value="#{msg.new_smth}" rendered="#{MbSmth.newMode}"/> <h:outputText value="#{msg.edit_smth}" rendered="#{MbSmth.editMode}"/> </h:panelGroup> </f:facet> <h:panelGroup id="panelDiv"> <h:form > <!-- fields and buttons --> </h:form> </h:panelGroup> </rich:modalPanel> One of the buttons that open panel: <a4j:commandButton id="addBtn" reRender="panelHeader, panelDiv" value="#{form.add}" oncomplete="#{rich:component('panel')}.show()" action="#{MbSmth.add}" image="create.gif"/> Action invoked on button click: public void add() { curMode = NEW_MODE; // initial mode is VIEW_MODE newSmth = new Smth(); } Mode check: public boolean isNewMode() { return curMode == NEW_MODE; } public boolean isEditMode() { return curMode == EDIT_MODE; }

    Read the article

  • Any tool(s) for knowing the layout (segments) of running process in Windows?

    - by claws
    I've always been curious about How exactly the process looks in memory? What are the different segments(parts) in it? How exactly will be the program (on the disk) & process (in the memory) are related? My previous question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1966920/more-info-on-memory-layout-of-an-executable-program-process In my quest, I finally found a answer. I found this excellent article that cleared most of my queries: http://www.linuxforums.org/articles/understanding-elf-using-readelf-and-objdump_125.html In the above article, author shows how to get different segments of the process (LINUX) & he compares it with its corresponding ELF file. I'm quoting this section here: Courious to see the real layout of process segment? We can use /proc//maps file to reveal it. is the PID of the process we want to observe. Before we move on, we have a small problem here. Our test program runs so fast that it ends before we can even dump the related /proc entry. I use gdb to solve this. You can use another trick such as inserting sleep() before it calls return(). In a console (or a terminal emulator such as xterm) do: $ gdb test (gdb) b main Breakpoint 1 at 0x8048376 (gdb) r Breakpoint 1, 0x08048376 in main () Hold right here, open another console and find out the PID of program "test". If you want the quick way, type: $ cat /proc/`pgrep test`/maps You will see an output like below (you might get different output): [1] 0039d000-003b2000 r-xp 00000000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [2] 003b2000-003b3000 r--p 00014000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [3] 003b3000-003b4000 rw-p 00015000 16:41 1080084 /lib/ld-2.3.3.so [4] 003b6000-004cb000 r-xp 00000000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [5] 004cb000-004cd000 r--p 00115000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [6] 004cd000-004cf000 rw-p 00117000 16:41 1080085 /lib/tls/libc-2.3.3.so [7] 004cf000-004d1000 rw-p 004cf000 00:00 0 [8] 08048000-08049000 r-xp 00000000 16:06 66970 /tmp/test [9] 08049000-0804a000 rw-p 00000000 16:06 66970 /tmp/test [10] b7fec000-b7fed000 rw-p b7fec000 00:00 0 [11] bffeb000-c0000000 rw-p bffeb000 00:00 0 [12] ffffe000-fffff000 ---p 00000000 00:00 0 Note: I add number on each line as reference. Back to gdb, type: (gdb) q So, in total, we see 12 segment (also known as Virtual Memory Area--VMA). But I want to know about Windows Process & PE file format. Any tool(s) for getting the layout (segments) of running process in Windows? Any other good resources for learning more on this subject? EDIT: Are there any good articles which shows the mapping between PE file sections & VA segments?

    Read the article

  • HttpClient response handler always returns closed stream

    - by Alex Ciminian
    I'm new to Java development so please bear with me. Also, I hope I'm not the champion of tl;dr :). I'm using HttpClient to make requests over Http (duh!) and I'd gotten it to work for a simple servlet that receives an URL as a query string parameter. I realized that my code could use some refactoring, so I decided to make my own HttpResponseHandler, to clean up the code, make it reusable and improve exception handling. I currently have something like this: public class HttpResponseHandler implements ResponseHandler<InputStream>{ public InputStream handleResponse(HttpResponse response) throws ClientProtocolException, IOException { int statusCode = response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(); InputStream in = null; if (statusCode != HttpStatus.SC_OK) { throw new HttpResponseException(statusCode, null); } else { HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); if (entity != null) { in = entity.getContent(); // This works // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); } } return in; } } And in the method where I make the actual request: HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(target); ResponseHandler<InputStream> httpResponseHandler = new HttpResponseHandler(); try { InputStream in = httpclient.execute(httpget, httpResponseHandler); // This doesn't work // for (int i;(i = in.read()) >= 0;) System.out.print((char)i); return in; } catch (HttpResponseException e) { throw new HttpResponseException(e.getStatusCode(), null); } The problem is that the input stream returned from the handler is closed. I don't have any idea why, but I've checked it with the prints in my code (and no, I haven't used them both at the same time :). While the first print works, the other one gives a closed stream error. I need InputStreams, because all my other methods expect an InputStream and not a String. Also, I want to be able to retrieve images (or maybe other types of files), not just text files. I can work around this pretty easily by giving up on the response handler (I have a working implementation that doesn't use it), but I'm pretty curious about the following: Why does it do what it does? How do I open the stream, if something closes it? What's the right way to do this, anyway :)? I've checked the docs and I couldn't find anything useful regarding this issue. To save you a bit of Googling, here's the Javadoc and here's the HttpClient tutorial (Section 1.1.8 - Response handlers). Thanks, Alex

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net 4.0 - Response required in SiteMap building?

    - by Nick Craver
    I'm running into an issue upgrading a project to .Net 4.0...and having trouble finding any reason for the issue (or at least, the change causing it). Given the freshness of 4.0, not a lot of blogs out there for issues yet, so I'm hoping someone here has an idea. Preface: this is a Web Forms application, coming from 3.5 SP1 to 4.0. In the Application_Start event we're iterating through the SiteMap and constructing routes based off data there (prettifying URLs mostly with some utility added), that part isn't failing though...or at least isn't not getting that far. It seems that calling the SiteMap.RootNode (inside application_start) causes 4.0 to eat it, since the XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode method has been changed, looking in reflector you can see it's hitting HttpResponse.ApplyAppPathModifier here: str2 = HttpContext.Current.Response.ApplyAppPathModifier(str2); HttpResponse wasn't used at all in this method in the 2.0 CLR, so what we had worked fine, in 4.0 though, that method is called as a result of this stack: [HttpException (0x80004005): Response is not available in this context.] System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.GetNodeFromXmlNode(XmlNode xmlNode, Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.ConvertFromXmlNode(Queue queue) System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.BuildSiteMap() System.Web.XmlSiteMapProvider.get_RootNode() System.Web.SiteMap.get_RootNode() Since Response isn't available here in 4.0, we get an error. To reproduce this, you can narrow the test case down to this in global: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { var s = SiteMap.RootNode; //Kaboom! //or just var r = Context.Response; //or var r = HttpContext.Current.Response; //all result in the same "not available" error } Question: Am I missing something obvious here? Or, is there another event added in 4.0 that's recommended for anything related to SiteMap on startup? For anyone curious/willing to help, I've created a very minimal project (a default VS 2010 ASP.Net 4.0 site, all the bells & whistles removed and only a blank sitemap and the Application_Start code added). It's a small 10kb zip available here: http://www.ncraver.com/Test/SiteMapTest.zip Update: Not a great solution, but the current work-around is to do the work in Application_BeginRequest, like this: private static bool routesRegistered = false; protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!routesRegistered) { Application.Lock(); if (!routesRegistered) RouteManager.RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); routesRegistered = true; Application.UnLock(); } } I don't like this particularly, feels like an abuse of the event to bypass the issue. Does anyone have at least a better work-around, since the .Net 4 behavior with SiteMap is not likely to change?

    Read the article

  • Expression Too Complex In Access 2007

    - by Jazzepi
    When I try to run this query in Access through the ODBC interface into a MySQL database I get an "Expression too complex in query expression" error. The essential thing I'm trying to do is translate abbreviated names of languages into their full body English counterparts. I was curious if there was some way to "trick" access into thinking the expression is smaller with sub queries, or if someone else had a better idea of how to solve this problem. I thought about making a temporary table and doing a join on it, but that's not supported in Access SQL. Just as an FYI, the query worked fine until I added the big long IFF chain. I tested the query on a smaller IFF chain for three languages, and that wasn't an issue, so the problem definitely stems from the huge IFF chain (It's 26 deep). Also, I might be able to drop some of the options (like combining the different forms of Chinese or Portuguese) As a test, I was able to get the SQL query to work after paring it down to 14 IFF() statements, but that's a far cry from the 26 languages I'd like to represent. SELECT TOP 5 Count( * ) AS [Number of visits by language], IIf(login.lang="ar","Arabic",IIf(login.lang="bg","Bulgarian",IIf(login.lang="zh_CN","Chinese (Simplified Han)",IIf(login.lang="zh_TW","Chinese (Traditional Han)",IIf(login.lang="cs","Czech",IIf(login.lang="da","Danish",IIf(login.lang="de","German",IIf(login.lang="en_US","United States English",IIf(login.lang="en_GB","British English",IIf(login.lang="es","Spanish",IIf(login.lang="fr","French",IIf(login.lang="el","Greek",IIf(login.lang="it","Italian",IIf(login.lang="ko","Korean",IIf(login.lang="hu","Hungarian",IIf(login.lang="nl","Dutch",IIf(login.lang="pl","Polish",IIf(login.lang="pt_PT","European Portuguese",IIf(login.lang="pt_BR","Brazilian Portuguese",IIf(login.lang="ru","Russian",IIf(login.lang="sk","Slovak",IIf(login.lang="sl","Slovenian","IIf(login.lang="fi","Finnish",IIf(login.lang="sv","Swedish",IIf(login.lang="tr","Turkish","Unknown")))))))))))))))))))))))))) AS [Language] FROM login, reservations, reservation_users, schedules WHERE (reservations.start_date Between DATEDIFF('s','1970-01-01 00:00:00',[Starting Date in the Following Format YYYY/MM/DD]) And DATEDIFF('s','1970-01-01 00:00:00',[Ending Date in the Following Format YYYY/MM/DD])) And reservations.is_blackout=0 And reservation_users.memberid=login.memberid And reservation_users.resid=reservations.resid And reservation_users.invited=0 And reservations.scheduleid=schedules.scheduleid And scheduletitle=[Schedule Title] GROUP BY login.lang ORDER BY Count( * ) DESC; @ Michael Todd I completely agree. The list of languages should have been a table in the database and the login.lang should have been a FK into that table. Unfortunately this isn't how the database was written, and it's not really mine to modify. The languages are placed into the login.lang field by the PHP running on top of the database.

    Read the article

  • Why no switch on pointers?

    - by meeselet
    For instance: #include <stdio.h> void why_cant_we_switch_him(void *ptr) { switch (ptr) { case NULL: printf("NULL!\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { void *foo = "toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values Just curious. Is this a technical limitation? EDIT People seem to think there is only one constant pointer expression. Is that is really true, though? For instance, here is a common paradigm in Objective-C (it is really only C aside from NSString, id and nil, which are merely a pointers, so it is still relevant — I just wanted to point out that there is, in fact, a common use for it, despite this being only a technical question): #include <stdio.h> #include <Foundation/Foundation.h> static NSString * const kMyConstantObject = @"Foo"; void why_cant_we_switch_him(id ptr) { switch (ptr) { case kMyConstantObject: // (Note that we are comparing pointers, not string values.) printf("We found him!\n"); break; case nil: printf("He appears to be nil (or NULL, whichever you prefer).\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { NSString *foo = @"toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); foo = kMyConstantObject; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test -framework Foundation test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values It appears that the reason is that switch only allows integral values (as the compiler warning said). So I suppose a better question would be to ask why this is the case? (though it is probably too late now.)

    Read the article

  • Dynamic mass hosting using mod_wsgi

    - by Virgil Balibanu
    Hi, I am trying to configure an apache server using mod_wsgi for dynamic mass hosting. Each user will have it's own instance of a python application located in /mnt/data/www/domains/[user_name] and there will be a vhost.map telling me which domain maps to each user's directory (the directory will have the same name as the user). What i do not know is how to write the WSGIScriptAliasMatch line so that it also takes the path from the vhost.map file. What i want to do is something like this: I can have on my server different domains like www.virgilbalibanu.com or virgil.balibanu.com and flaviu.balibanu.com where each domain would belog to another user, the user name having no neccesary connection to the domain name. I want to do this beacuse a user, wehn he makes an acoount receives something like virgil.mydomain.com but if he has his own domain he can change it later to that, for example www.virgilbalibanu.ro, and this way I would only need to chenage the line in the vhost.map file So far I have something like this: Alias /media/ /mnt/data/www/iitcms/media/ #all media is taken from here RewriteEngine on RewriteMap lowercase int:tolower # define the map file RewriteMap vhost txt:/mnt/data/www/domains/vhost.map #this does not work either, can;t say why atm RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/uploads/ RewriteCond ${lowercase:%{SERVER_NAME}} ^(.+)$ RewriteCond ${vhost:%1} ^(/.*)$ RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ %1/media/uploads/$1 #---> this I have no ideea how i could do WSGIScriptAliasMatch ^([^/]+) /mnt/data/www/domains/$1/apache/django.wsgi <Directory "/mnt/data/www/domains"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <DirectoryMatch ^/mnt/data/www/domains/([^/]+)/apache> AllowOverride None Options FollowSymLinks ExecCGI Order deny,allow Allow from all </DirectoryMatch> <Directory /mnt/data/www/iitcms/media> AllowOverride None Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <DirectoryMatch ^/mnt/data/www/domains/([^/]+)/media/uploads> AllowOverride None Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews Order allow,deny Allow from all </DirectoryMatch> I know the part i did with mod_rewrite doesn't work, couldn't really say why not but that's not as important so far, I am curious how could i write the WSGIScriptAliasMatch line so that to accomplish my objective. I would be very grateful for any help, or any other ideas related to how i can deal with this. Also it would be great if I'd manage to get each site to run in wsgi daemon mode, thou that is not as important. Thanks, Virgil

    Read the article

  • Delegates in Action -Help

    - by Amutha
    I am learning delegates.I am very curious to apply delegates to the following chain-of-responsibility pattern. Kindly help me the way to apply delegates to the following piece. Thanks in advance.Thanks for your effort. #region Chain of Responsibility Pattern namespace Chain { public class Player { public string Name { get; set; } public int Score { get; set; } } public abstract class PlayerHandler { protected PlayerHandler _Successor = null; public abstract void HandlePlayer(Player _player); public void SetupHandler(PlayerHandler _handler) { _Successor = _handler; } } public class Employee : PlayerHandler { public override void HandlePlayer(Player _player) { if (_player.Score <= 100) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} is greeted by Employee", _player.Name)); } else { _Successor.HandlePlayer(_player); } } } public class Supervisor : PlayerHandler { public override void HandlePlayer(Player _player) { if (_player.Score >100 && _player.Score<=200) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} is greeted by Supervisor", _player.Name)); } else { _Successor.HandlePlayer(_player); } } } public class Manager : PlayerHandler { public override void HandlePlayer(Player _player) { if (_player.Score > 200) { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} is greeted by Manager", _player.Name)); } else { MessageBox.Show(string.Format("{0} got low score", _player.Name)); } } } } #endregion #region Main() void Main() { Chain.Player p1 = new Chain.Player(); p1.Name = "Jon"; p1.Score = 100; Chain.Player p2 = new Chain.Player(); p2.Name = "William"; p2.Score = 170; Chain.Player p3 = new Chain.Player(); p3.Name = "Robert"; p3.Score = 300; Chain.Employee emp = new Chain.Employee(); Chain.Manager mgr = new Chain.Manager(); Chain.Supervisor sup = new Chain.Supervisor(); emp.SetupHandler(sup); sup.SetupHandler(mgr); emp.HandlePlayer(p1); emp.HandlePlayer(p2); emp.HandlePlayer(p3); } #endregion

    Read the article

  • Information Gain and Entropy

    - by dhorn
    I recently read this question regarding information gain and entropy. I think I have a semi-decent grasp on the main idea, but I'm curious as what to do with situations such as follows: If we have a bag of 7 coins, 1 of which is heavier than the others, and 1 of which is lighter than the others, and we know the heavier coin + the lighter coin is the same as 2 normal coins, what is the information gain associated with picking two random coins and weighing them against each other? Our goal here is to identify the two odd coins. I've been thinking this problem over for a while, and can't frame it correctly in a decision tree, or any other way for that matter. Any help? EDIT: I understand the formula for entropy and the formula for information gain. What I don't understand is how to frame this problem in a decision tree format. EDIT 2: Here is where I'm at so far: Assuming we pick two coins and they both end up weighing the same, we can assume our new chances of picking H+L come out to 1/5 * 1/4 = 1/20 , easy enough. Assuming we pick two coins and the left side is heavier. There are three different cases where this can occur: HM: Which gives us 1/2 chance of picking H and a 1/4 chance of picking L: 1/8 HL: 1/2 chance of picking high, 1/1 chance of picking low: 1/1 ML: 1/2 chance of picking low, 1/4 chance of picking high: 1/8 However, the odds of us picking HM are 1/7 * 5/6 which is 5/42 The odds of us picking HL are 1/7 * 1/6 which is 1/42 And the odds of us picking ML are 1/7 * 5/6 which is 5/42 If we weight the overall probabilities with these odds, we are given: (1/8) * (5/42) + (1/1) * (1/42) + (1/8) * (5/42) = 3/56. The same holds true for option B. option A = 3/56 option B = 3/56 option C = 1/20 However, option C should be weighted heavier because there is a 5/7 * 4/6 chance to pick two mediums. So I'm assuming from here I weight THOSE odds. I am pretty sure I've messed up somewhere along the way, but I think I'm on the right path! EDIT 3: More stuff. Assuming the scale is unbalanced, the odds are (10/11) that only one of the coins is the H or L coin, and (1/11) that both coins are H/L Therefore we can conclude: (10 / 11) * (1/2 * 1/5) and (1 / 11) * (1/2) EDIT 4: Going to go ahead and say that it is a total 4/42 increase.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113  | Next Page >