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  • Gridview empty when SelectedIndexChanged called

    - by xan
    I have a DataGrid which is being bound dynamically to a database query. The user enters some search text into a text field, clicks search, and the code behind creates the appropriate database query using LINQ (searches a table based on the string and returns a limited set of the columns). It then sets the GridView datasource to be the query and calls DataBind(). protected void btnSearch_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var query = from record in DB.Table where record.Name.Contains(txtSearch.Text) //Extra string checking etc. removed. select new { record.ID, record.Name, record.Date }; gvResults.DataSource = query; gvResults.DataBind(); } This works fine. When a user selects a row in the grid, the SelectedIndexChanged event handler gets the id from the row in the grid (one of the fields), queries the full record from the DB and then populates a set of editor / details fields with the records full details. protected void gvResults_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { int id = int.Parse(gvResults.SelectedRow.Cells[1].Text); DisplayDetails(id); } This works fine on my local machine where I'm developing the code. On the production server however, the function is called successfully, but the row and column count on gvResults, the GridVeiw is 0 - the table is empty. The GridView's viewstate is enabled and I can't see obvious differences. Have I made some naive assumptions, or am I relying on something that is likely to be configured differently in debug? Locally I am running an empty asp.net web project in VS2008 to make development quicker. The production server is running the sitecore CMS so is configured rather differently. Any thoughts or suggestions would be most welcome. Thanks in advance!

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  • Format date from SQLCE to display in DataGridView

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    hi folks, I have a DataGridView bound to a table from a .sdf database through a BindSource. The date column display dates like "d/M/yyyy HH:mm:ss". e.: "27/2/1971 00:00:00". I want to make it display just "27/02/1971" in its place. I tried to apply DataGridViewCellStyle {format=dd/MM/yyyy} but nothing happens, event with other pre-built formats. On the the other side, there's a Form with a MasketTextBox with a "dd/MM/yyyy" mask to its input that is bound to the same column and uses a Parse and a Format event handler before display and send it to the db. Binding dataNascimentoBinding = new Binding("Text", this.source, "Nascimento", true); dataNascimentoBinding.Format += new ConvertEventHandler(Util.formatDateConvertEventHandler); dataNascimentoBinding.Parse += new ConvertEventHandler(Util.parseDateConvertEventHandler); this.dataNascimentoTxt.DataBindings.Add(dataNascimentoBinding); public static string convertDateString2DateString(string dateString, string inputFormat, string outputFormat ) { DateTime date = DateTime.ParseExact(dateString, inputFormat, DateTimeFormatInfo.InvariantInfo); return String.Format("{0:" + outputFormat + "}", date); } public static void formatDateConvertEventHandler(object sender, ConvertEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(string)) return; if (e.Value.GetType() != typeof(string)) return; String dateString = (string)e.Value; e.Value = convertDateString2DateString(dateString, "d/M/yyyy HH:mm:ss", "dd/MM/yyyy"); } public static void parseDateConvertEventHandler(object sender, ConvertEventArgs e) { if (e.DesiredType != typeof(string)) return; if (e.Value.GetType() != typeof(string)) return; string value = (string)e.Value; try { e.Value = DateTime.ParseExact(value, "dd/MM/yyyy", DateTimeFormatInfo.InvariantInfo); } catch { return; } } Like you can see by the code it was expexted that Date coming from SQL would be a DateTime value as is its column, but my eventHandler is receiving a string instead. Likewise, the result date for parse should be a datetime but its a string also. I'm puzzled dealing with this datetime column.

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  • Should an Event that has no arguments define its own custom EventArgs or simply use System.EventArgs

    - by Mike Rosenblum
    I have an event that is currently defined with no event arguments. That is, the EventArgs it sends is EventArgs.Empty. In this case, it is simplest to declare my Event handler as: EventHandler<System.EventArgs> MyCustomEvent; I do not plan on adding any event arguments to this event, but it is possible that any code could need to change in the future. Therefore, I am leaning towards having all my events always create an empty event args type that inheretis from System.EventArgs, even if there are no event args currently needed. Something like this: public class MyCustomEventArgs : EventArgs { } And then my event definition becomes the following: EventHandler<MyCustomEventArgs> MyCustomEvent; So my question is this: is it better to define my own MyCustomEventArgs, even if it does not add anything beyond inheriting from System.EventArgs, so that event arguments could be added in the future more easily? Or is it better to explicitly define my event as returning System.EventArgs, so that it is clearer to the user that there are no extra event args? I am leaning towards creating custom event arguments for all my events, even if the event arguments are empty. But I was wondering if others thought that making it clearer to the user that the event arguments are empty would be better? Much thanks in advance, Mike

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  • Retrieve parent node from selection (range) in Gecko and Webkit

    - by Jason
    I am trying to add an attribute when using a wysiwyg editor that uses "createLink" command. I thought it would be trivial to get back the node that is created after the browse executes that command. Turns out, I am only able to grab this newly created node in IE. Any ideas? The following code demonstrates the issue (debug logs at bottom show different output in each browser): var getSelectedHTML = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.getRange().htmlText; } else { var elem = this.getRange().cloneContents(); return $("<p/>").append($(elem)).html(); } }; var getSelection = function() { if ($.browser.msie) { return this.editor.selection; } else { return this.iframe[0].contentDocument.defaultView.getSelection(); } }; var getRange = function() { var s = this.getSelection(); return (s.getRangeAt) ? s.getRangeAt(0) : s.createRange(); }; var getSelectedNode = function() { var range = this.getRange(); var parent = range.commonAncestorContainer ? range.commonAncestorContainer : range.parentElement ? range.parentElement(): range.item(0); return parent; }; // **** INSIDE SOME EVENT HANDLER **** if ($.browser.msie) { this.ec("createLink", true); } else { this.ec("createLink", false, prompt("Link URL:", "http://")); } var linkNode = $(this.getSelectedNode()); linkNode.attr("rel", "external"); $.log(linkNode.get(0).tagName); // Gecko: "body" // IE: "a" // Webkit: "undefined" $.log(this.getSelectedHTML()); // Gecko: "<a href="http://site.com">foo</a>" // IE: "<A href="http://site.com" rel=external>foo</A>" // Webkit: "foo" $.log(this.getSelection()); // Gecko: "foo" // IE: [object Selection] // Webkit: "foo" Thanks for any help on this, I've scoured related questions on SO with no success!

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  • C# - update variable based upon results from backgroundworker

    - by Bruce
    I've got a C# program that talks to an instrument (spectrum analyzer) over a network. I need to be able to change a large number of parameters in the instrument and read them back into my program. I want to use backgroundworker to do the actual talking to the instrument so that UI performance doesn't suffer. The way this works is - 1) send command to the instrument with new parameter value, 2) read parameter back from the instrument so I can see what actually happened (for example, I try to set the center frequency above the max that the instrument will handle and it tells me what it will actually handle), and 3) update a program variable with the actual value received from the instrument. Because there are quite a few parameters to be updated I'd like to use a generic routine. The part I can't seem to get my brain around is updating the variable in my code with what comes back from the instrument via backgroundworker. If I used a separate RunWorkerCompleted event for each parameter I could hardwire the update directly to the variable. I'd like to come up with a way of using a single routine that's capable of updating any of the variables. All I can come up with is passing a reference number (different for each parameter) and using a switch statement in the RunWorkerCompleted handler to direct the result. There has to be a better way. Thanks for your help.

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • Extracting bool from istream in a templated function

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I'm converting my fields class read functions into one template function. I have field classes for int, unsigned int, long, and unsigned long. These all use the same method for extracting a value from an istringstream (only the types change): template <typename Value_Type> Value_Type Extract_Value(const std::string& input_string) { std::istringstream m_string_stream; m_string_stream.str(input_string); m_string_stream.clear(); m_string_stream >> value; return; } The tricky part is with the bool (Boolean) type. There are many textual representations for Boolean: 0, 1, T, F, TRUE, FALSE, and all the case insensitive combinations Here's the questions: What does the C++ standard say are valid data to extract a bool, using the stream extraction operator? Since Boolean can be represented by text, does this involve locales? Is this platform dependent? I would like to simplify my code by not writing my own handler for bool input. I am using MS Visual Studio 2008 (version 9), C++, and Windows XP and Vista.

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  • Send HTTP 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Could not load ConfigurationSection class - type

    - by nCdy
    at web.config <section name="FlowWebDataProviders" type="FlowWebProvidersSection" requirePermission="false"/> <FlowWebDataProviders peopleProviderName="sqlProvider" IzmListProviderName="sqlProvider"> <PeopleProviders> <add name="sqlProvider" type="SqlPeopleProvider" connectionStringName="FlowServerConnectionString"/> <add name="xmlProvider" type="XmlPeopleProvider" schemaFile="People.xsd" dataFile="People.xml"/> </PeopleProviders> <IzmListProviders> <add name="sqlProvider" type="SqlIzmListProvider" connectionStringName="FlowServerConnectionString"/> </IzmListProviders> </FlowWebDataProviders> and public class FlowWebProvidersSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("peopleProviderName", IsRequired = true)] public PeopleProviderName : string { get { this["peopleProviderName"] :> string } set { this["peopleProviderName"] = value; } } [ConfigurationProperty("IzmListProviderName", IsRequired = true)] public IzmListProviderName : string { get { (this["IzmListProviderName"] :> string) } set { this["IzmListProviderName"] = value; } } [ConfigurationProperty("PeopleProviders")] [ConfigurationValidatorAttribute(typeof(ProviderSettingsValidation))] public PeopleProviders : ProviderSettingsCollection { get { this["PeopleProviders"] :> ProviderSettingsCollection } } [ConfigurationProperty("IzmListProviders")] [ConfigurationValidatorAttribute(typeof(ProviderSettingsValidation))] public IzmListProviders : ProviderSettingsCollection { get { this["IzmListProviders"] :> ProviderSettingsCollection } } } and public class ProviderSettingsValidation : ConfigurationValidatorBase { public override CanValidate(typex : Type) : bool { if(typex : object == typeof(ProviderSettingsCollection)) true else false } /// <summary> // validate the provider section /// </summary> public override Validate(value : object) : void { mutable providerCollection : ProviderSettingsCollection = match(value) { | x is ProviderSettingsCollection => x | _ => null } unless (providerCollection == null) { foreach (_provider is ProviderSettings in providerCollection) { when (String.IsNullOrEmpty(_provider.Type)) { throw ConfigurationErrorsException("Type was not defined in the provider"); } mutable dataAccessType : Type = Type.GetType(_provider.Type); when (dataAccessType == null) { throw (InvalidOperationException("Provider's Type could not be found")); } } } } } project : Web Application ... I need to find error first . . . why : Error message parser: Error creating configuration section handler for FlowWebDataProviders: Could not load type 'FlowWebProvidersSection'. ? by the way : syntax of nemerle (current language) is very similar C#, don't afraid to read the code... thank you

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  • Delphi - Message loop for Form created in DirectShow filter goes dead

    - by Robert Oschler
    I have a DirectShow filter created with Delphi Pro 6 and the DSPACK direct show library. I'm running under windows XP. I've tried creating the form dynamically when the container class for the DirectFilter has its constructor called, passing NIL into the constructor as the AOwner parameter (TMyForm.Create(nil) and then calling the Form's Show() method. The form does show but then appears to stop receiving windows messages because it never repaints and does not respond to input. As a test I then tried creating my own WndProc() and overriding the Form's WndProc(). My WndProc() did get called once but never again. I'm guessing it's because I'm a DLL and the context that I am running in is not "friendly" to the window message handler for the form; perhaps something to do with the thread that calls it or whatever. If someone could give me a tip on how to solve this or what the proper way to create a persistent window is from the context of a DirectShow filter I'd appreciate it. Note, as I said the window needs to be persistent so I can't create it as a Filter property page. Thanks, Robert

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  • Error when calling Mysql Stored procedure

    - by devuser
    This is my stored procedure to search throgh all databases,tables and columns. This procedure got created with out any error. DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS mydb.get_table$$ CREATE DEFINER=root@% PROCEDURE get_table(in_search varchar(50)) READS SQL DATA BEGIN DECLARE trunc_cmd VARCHAR(50); DECLARE search_string VARCHAR(250); DECLARE db,tbl,clmn CHAR(50); DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE COUNTER INT; DECLARE table_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT concat('SELECT COUNT(*) INTO @CNT_VALUE FROM ', table_schema,'.', table_name, ' WHERE ', column_name,' REGEXP ''',in_search,'''' ) ,table_schema,table_name,column_name FROM information_schema.COLUMNS WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA NOT IN ('mydb','information_schema'); DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done=1; #Truncating table for refill the data for new search. PREPARE trunc_cmd FROM 'TRUNCATE TABLE temp_details'; EXECUTE trunc_cmd ; OPEN table_cur; table_loop:LOOP FETCH table_cur INTO search_string,db,tbl,clmn; #Executing the search SET @search_string = search_string; SELECT search_string; PREPARE search_string FROM @search_string; EXECUTE search_string; SET COUNTER = @CNT_VALUE; SELECT COUNTER; IF COUNTER0 THEN # Inserting required results from search to table INSERT INTO temp_details VALUES(db,tbl,clmn); END IF; IF done=1 THEN LEAVE table_loop; END IF; END LOOP; CLOSE table_cur; #Finally Show Results SELECT * FROM temp_details; END$$ DELIMITER ; But when calling this procedure following error occurs. call get_table('aaa') Error Code : 1064 You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'delete REGEXP 'aaa'' at line 1 (0 ms taken)

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  • Google Maps Api android key

    - by Cookie
    Hi, I have some trouble testing my Android application which includes the google maps API. The ooficial API example worked just fine but if I copy the code into my own project it keeps saying: "The application has stopped unexpectedly". I looked up the key in the keystore several times and registered it with google. Even tried reinstalling the SDK. Does anybody know what the problem is? Thanks in advance 05-16 14:31:11.142: ERROR/ActivityThread(662): Failed to find provider info for com.google.settings 05-16 14:31:11.150: ERROR/ActivityThread(662): Failed to find provider info for com.google.settings 05-16 14:31:12.598: ERROR/MediaPlayerService(542): Couldn't open fd for content://settings/system/notification_sound 05-16 14:31:12.624: ERROR/MediaPlayer(562): Unable to to create media player 05-16 14:31:05.098: ERROR/ActivityThread(608): Failed to find provider info for android.server.checkin 05-16 14:31:06.538: ERROR/ActivityThread(608): Failed to find provider info for android.server.checkin 05-16 14:31:06.645: ERROR/ActivityThread(608): Failed to find provider info for android.server.checkin 05-16 14:31:12.803: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(715): ERROR: thread attach failed 05-16 14:31:13.698: ERROR/ActivityThread(723): Failed to find provider info for com.google.settings 05-16 14:31:13.987: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(723): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception PS: there are some exceptions following but none pointing to my code, everything in background processes.

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  • Trigger element's onclick method with JQuery [ASP.NET]

    - by blu
    I have an ASP.NET server control that inherits from CheckBoxList that renders the controls with a UL and LIs. The control is set to AutoPostBack. Markup: <div id="foo"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" onclick="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(..." ... /> <label ... /> </li> </ul> </div> I would like to trigger the JavaScript that is rendered on the CheckBox when the parent LI is clicked. Here is what I have so far: $("#foo li").click(function() { $(this).find("input:eq(0)").trigger("click"); }); This fires a postback in FF 3.x but the event handler in the codebehind is not fired. In IE 7 a script error comes up and the browser just kind of hangs there for a bit then reloads the page. How should I be doing this?

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  • IHttpAsyncHandler and IObservable web requests

    - by McLovin
    Within Async handler I'm creating an IObservable from webrequest which returns a redirect string. I'm subscribing to that observable and calling AsyncResult.CompleteCall() but I'm forced to use Thread.Sleep(100) in order to get it executed. And it doesn't work every time. I'm pretty sure this is not correct. Could you please shine some light. Thank you! public IAsyncResult BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _context = context; _ar = new AsyncResult(cb, state); _tweet = context.Request["tweet"]; string url = context.Request["url"]; if(String.IsNullOrEmpty(_tweet) || String.IsNullOrEmpty(url)) { DisplayError("<h2>Tweet or url cannot be empty</h2>"); return _ar; } _oAuth = new oAuthTwitterRx(); using (_oAuth.AuthorizationLinkGet().Subscribe(p => { _context.Response.Redirect(p); _ar.CompleteCall(); }, exception => DisplayError("<h2>Unable to connect to twitter, please try again</h2>") )) return _ar; } public class AsyncResult : IAsyncResult { private AsyncCallback _cb; private object _state; private ManualResetEvent _event; private bool _completed = false; private object _lock = new object(); public AsyncResult(AsyncCallback cb, object state) { _cb = cb; _state = state; } public Object AsyncState { get { return _state; } } public bool CompletedSynchronously { get { return false; } } public bool IsCompleted { get { return _completed; } } public WaitHandle AsyncWaitHandle { get { lock (_lock) { if (_event == null) _event = new ManualResetEvent(IsCompleted); return _event; } } } public void CompleteCall() { lock (_lock) { _completed = true; if (_event != null) _event.Set(); } if (_cb != null) _cb(this); } }

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  • Unable to read in my custom .config section

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, NOTE: this is very very similar to this SO question, but I need some more help. i'm trying to make the following section in my .config file, but i get an exception when trying to access this section. .config file <configSections> <section name="foos" type="Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foo.FooCollection, Ackbar.Mvc" requirePermission="false"/> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <foos> <add name="aaa" something="zzz"/> <add name="bbb" something="yyy"/> <add name="ccc" something="xxx"/> </foos> Ok, so this means i need to make two classes classes public class FooCollection : ConfigurationElementCollection { ... with my custom overrides, etc. ... } and public class FooElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("Name", IsRequired = true)] public string Name { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("Something ", IsRequired = true)] public string Something { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("IsDefault ", IsRequired = false, DefaultValue = false)] public bool IsDefault { .. } } Kewl. Now, when i do the following .... var whatever = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("foos") is throws the following exception :- An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for foos: Type 'Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foos.FooCollection' does not inherit from 'System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler'. Can someone please help me? I don't want to wrap the collection INSIDE a parent section. Cheers :)

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  • How can I make a server log file available via my ASP.NET MVC website?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC website that works in tandem with a Windows Service that processes file uploads. For easy maintenance of the site, I'd like the log file for the Windows Service to be accessible (to me, only) via the website, so that I can hit http://myserver/logs/myservice to view the contents of the log file. How can I do that? At a guess, I could either have the service write its log file in a "Logs" folder at the top level of the site, or I could leave it where it is and set up a virtual directory to point to it. Which of these is better - or is there another, better way? Wherever the file is stored, I can see that there's going to be another problem. I tried out the first option (Logs folder in my website), but when I try to access the file via HTTP I get an error: The process cannot access the file 'foo' because it is being used by another process. Now, I know from experience that my service keeps the file locked for writing while it's running, but that I can still open the file in Notepad to view the current contents. (I'm surprised that IIS insists on write access, if that's what's happening). How can I get around that? Do I really have to write a handler to read the file and serve it to the browser myself? Or can I fix this with configuration or somesuch? PS. I'm using IIS7 if that helps.

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  • Webservice returning 403 error

    - by user48408
    I'm wondering whether I'm receiving the 403 errors because there are too many attempted connections being made to the webservice. If this is the case how do I get around it? I've tried creating a new instance of InternalWebService each time and disposing of the old one but I get the same problem. I've disabled the firewall and the webservice is located locally at the moment. I beginning to think it may be a problem with the credentials but the control tree is populated via the webservice at some stage. If I browse to the webmethods in my browser I can run them all. I return an instance of the webservice from my login handler loginsession.cs: static LoginSession() { ... g_NavigatorWebService = new InternalWebService(); g_NavigatorWebService.Credentials = System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials; ... } public static InternalWebService NavigatorWebService { get { return g_NavigatorWebService; } } I have a tree view control which uses the webservice to populate itself. IncidentTreeViewControl.cs: public IncidentTreeView() { InitializeComponent(); m_WebService = LoginSession.NavigatorWebService; ... } public void Populate() { m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByClientComplete), null); m_WebService.BeginGetIncidentSummaryByDepartment(new AsyncCallback(IncidentSummaryByDepartmentComplete), null); ... } private void IncidentSummaryByClientComplete(IAsyncResult ar) { MyTypedDataSet data = m_WebService.EndGetIncidentSummaryByCompany(ar); //403 ..cont... } I'm getting the 403 on the last line.

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  • PHP Simple DOM Parser

    - by Junior Coder
    Hi guys I'm using this wonderful class here to do a bit of code embed filtering: http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/. It extends the PHP DOM document class. Pretty much what I am doing is parsing a string through this class that contains embed code, i grab the unique bits of information eg id, width, height send through a handler function which inserts the id, width, height etc into my predefined "safe" template and reinsert my safe template in the place of the embed code the user has put in. May seem a backward way of doing it but it's the way it has to be done :) All of that works fine. Problem is when there is more than just embed code contained in the string, as I can't just replace the embed code i can only replace the entire string which wipes the rest of the tags etc string. For example if there were a p tag that would be wiped. So my question is how using this class can i just replace the certain part of the string? Spent the last few days trying to work this out and need some more input. It appears the class can do this so i'm stumped. Here's a basic version of what i have so far :) // load the class $html = new simple_html_dom(); // load the entire string containing everything user entered here $return = $html->load($string); // check for embed tags if($html->find('embed') == true { foreach($html->find('embed') as $element) { // send it off to the function which returns a new safe embed code $element = create_new_embed($parameters); // this is where i somehow i need to save the changes and send it back to $return } } Any input would be gratefully appreciated. If i have explained my problem well enough please let me know :)

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  • javascript class calling XMLHttpRequest internally, then handling onreadystatechange

    - by Radu M
    this thing almost works: function myClass(url) { this.source = url; this.rq = null; this.someOtherProperty = "hello"; // open connection to the ajax server this.start = function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { this.rq = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (this.rq.overrideMimeType) this.rq.overrideMimeType("text/xml"); } else this.rq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); try { this.rq.onreadystatechange = connectionEvent; this.rq.open("GET", this.source, true); this.rq.send(null); this.state = 1; } catch (err) { // some error handler here } } function connectionEvent() { alert("i'm here"); alert("this doesnt work: " + this.someOtherProperty); } } // myClass so it's nothing more than having the XMLHttpRequest object as a member of my class, instead of globally defined, and invoking it in the traditional way. however, inside my connectionEvent callback function, the meaning of "this" is lost, even though the function itself is scoped inside myClass. i also made sure that the object that i instantiate from myClass is kept alive long enough (declared global in the script). in all the examples of using javascript classes that i saw, "this" was still available inside the inner functions. for me, it is not, even if i take my function outside and make it a myClass.prototype.connectionEvent. what am i doing wrong? thank you.

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  • Javascript: Controlling the order that event handlers / listeners are exeucted in

    - by LRE
    Once again the IE Monster has hit me with an odd problem. I'm writing some changes into an asp.net site I inherited a while back. One of the problems is that in some pages there are several controls that add javascript functions as handlers to the onload event (using YUI if that matters). Some of those event handlers assume certain other functions have been executed. This is well and good in Firefox and IE7 as the handlers seem to execute in order of registration. IE8 on the other hand does this backwards. I could go with some kind of double-checking approach but given the controls are present in several pages I feel that'd create even more dependencies. So I've started cooking up my own queue class that I push the functions to and can control their execution order. Then I'll register an onload handler that instructs the queue to execute in my preferred order. I'm part way through that and have started wondering 2 things: Am I going OTT? Am I reinventing the wheel? Anyone have any insights? Any clean solutions that allow me to easily enforce execution order?

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  • Thumbnail Provider not working

    - by Dan
    I'm trying to write a Windows Explorer thumbnail handler for our custom file type. I've got this working fine for the preview pane, but am having trouble getting it to work for the thumbnails. Windows doesn't even seem to be trying to call the DllGetClassObject entry point. Before I continue, note that I'm using Windows 7 and unmanaged C++. I've registered the following values in the registry: HKCR\CLSID\<my guid> HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32 (default value being path to my DLL) HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32\ThreadingModel (value = "Apartment") HKCR\.<my ext>\shellex\{E357FCCD-A995-4576-B01F-234630154E96} (value = my guid) I've also tried using the Win SDK sample, and that doesn't work. And also the sample project in this article (http://www.codemonkeycodes.com/2010/01/11/ithumbnailprovider-re-visited/), and that doesn't work. I'm new to shell programming, so not really sure the best way of debugging this. I've tried attaching the debugger to explorer.exe, but that doesn't seem to work (breakpoints get disabled, and none of my OutputDebugStrings get displayed in the output window). Note that I tried setting the "DesktopProcess" in the registry as described in the WinSDK docs for debugging the shell, but I'm still only seeing one explorer.exe in the task manager - so that "may" be why I can't debug it?? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Dan.

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • Reliable strtotime() result for different languages

    - by Maksee
    There was always a strange bug in Joomla when adding new article with back-end displayed with a language other than English (for me it's Russian). The field "Finish Publishing" started to be current date instead of "Never" equivalent in Russian. For a site in php4 finally found that strtotime function returns different results for arbitrary words. For "Never" it always -1 and joomla relies on this result in the JDate implementation. But in other case it sometimes returns a valid date. For russian translation of Never (???????) it is the case, but also for single "N" it is the case, so if one decided to change the string to some other he or she would face the same issue. So the code below <?php echo "Res:".strtotime("N")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Nev")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Neve")."<br>"; echo "Res:".strtotime("Never")."<br>"; ?> Outputs: Res:1271120400 Res:-1 Res:-1 Res:-1 So what are the solutions would be in this case? I would like not to write language-specific date.php handler, but to modify date method of JDate class, but what are language-neutral changes would be in order to detect invalid string. Thank you

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  • SL 3 navigation not working!

    - by Silver Gun
    Hey Guys I converted all my existing Silverlight app UserControls to Pages so I could use the Navigation Framework. Anyway so I created a UserControl called MyFrame, which would host all the pages. In my App.xaml.cs I have the following to make sure that MyFrame is loaded when the App loads: private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { this.RootVisual = new MyFrame(); } My UriMapper class resides in App.xaml and looks like the following: <navcore:UriMapper x:Key="uriMapper"> <navcore:UriMapping Uri="Login" MappedUri="Login.xaml"> </navcore:UriMapper> Within my 'MyFrame' class, I have the following <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <HyperlinkButton Tag="Login" Content="Login" Click="HyperlinkButton_Click" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <navigation:Frame x:Name="ContentFrame" Style="{StaticResource ContentFrameStyle}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> And within the callback for my HyperlinkButton's event handler, I have the following: private void HyperlinkButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ContentFrame.Navigate(new Uri((sender as HyperlinkButton).Tag.ToString(), UriKind.Relative)); } The Login.xaml file is in my root folder (right under Project). This navigation does not seem to work! The exception I get reads like so: Navigation is only supported to relative URIs that are fragments, or begin with '/', or which contain ';component/'. Parameter name: uri The Login page does not load. There is no problem with Login.xaml as when I set this.RootVisual = new Login(); the page loads just fine. I also tried setting the NavigateUri attribute of the HyperlinkButton to "Login." No cigar. I'll appreciate any help! Thanks a lot in advance

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