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  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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  • C# COM Cross Thread problem

    - by user364676
    Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

    - by Simon
    What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

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  • SSL certificate pre-fetch .NET

    - by Wil P
    I am writing a utility that would allow me to monitor the health of our websites. This consists of a series of validation tasks that I can run against a web application. One of the tests is to anticipate the expiration of a particular SSL certificate. I am looking for a way to pre-fetch the SSL certificate installed on a web site using .NET or a WINAPI so that I can validate the expiration date of the certificate associated with a particular website. One way I could do this is to cache the certificates when they are validated in the ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback handler and then match them up with configured web sites, but this seems a bit hackish. Another would be to configure the application with the certificate for the website, but I'd rather avoid this if I can in order to minimize configuration. What would be the easiest way for me to download an SSL certificate associated with a website using .NET so that I can inspect the information the certificate contains to validate it? EDIT: To extend on the answer below there is no need to manually create the ServicePoint prior to creating the request. It is generated on the request object as part of executing the request. private static string GetSSLExpiration(string url) { HttpWebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; using (WebResponse response = request.GetResponse()) { } if (request.ServicePoint.Certificate != null) { return request.ServicePoint.Certificate.GetExpirationDateString(); } else { return string.Empty; } }

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • What am I doing wrong with HttpResponse content and headers when downloading a file?

    - by Slauma
    I want to download a PDF file from a SQL Server database which is stored in a binary column. There is a LinkButton on an aspx page. The event handler of this button looks like this: protected void LinkButtonDownload(object sender, EventArgs e) { ... byte[] aByteArray; // Read binary data from database into this ByteArray // aByteArray has the size: 55406 byte Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.ClearContent(); Response.BufferOutput = true; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + "12345.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; using (BinaryWriter aWriter = new BinaryWriter(Response.OutputStream)) { aWriter.Write(aByteArray, 0, aByteArray.Length); } } A "File Open/Save dialog" is offered in my browser. When I store this file "12345.pdf" to disk, the file has a size of 71523 Byte. The additional 16kB at the end of the PDF file are the HTML code of my page (as I can see when I view the file in an editor). I am confused because I was believing that ClearContent and ClearHeaders would ensure that the page content is not sent together with the file content. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for help!

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  • Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

    - by Tzur Gazit
    I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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  • Replace System.Net.Mail.MailMessage with manually created message and send it

    - by DEH
    I am trying to send emails that will bounce to a known mailbox. I plan to use VERP. Unfortunately the System.Net.Mail.MailMessage object does not allow me to precisely set the From: and Sender: headers within my email - it forces the values so that the resulting email contains the phrase 'on behalf of', and does not allow me fine control over the relevant mime headers. I therefore plan to manually write mime email messages directly to the pickup directory so that I can independently control the From and Sender headers. My dev box is a Vista box and therefore does not have an SMTP server. I would like to configure the dev box so that I have an SMTP server running on it. I can then turn off the SMTP server, write messages to the pickup dir, then turn on the SMPT server and see how the individual emails that I have written will behave (some delivered, some bounced to a bounce handler on a different email domain, as dictated by the Sender). Two questions: 1. Can anyone recommend an SMTP server that will monitor a pickup directory? 2. If I set headers as follows; From:[email protected]; Sender:[email protected] then the recipient will see the email as having come from [email protected] ( and won't see any reference to [email protected]), but if the mail bounces then the NDR will be sent to [email protected]). It's a real pain to have to do this, but I can't see any way of using System.Net.Mail.MailMessage without it messing up my headers.

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  • A more elegant way to start a multithread alarm in Rebol VID ? (What's the equivalent of load event?

    - by Rebol Tutorial
    I want to trigger an alarm when the GUI starts. I can't see what's the equivalent of load event of other language in Rebol VID, so I put it in the periodic handler which is quite circumvoluted. So how to do this more cleanly ? alarm-data: none set-alarm: func [ "Set alarm for future time." seconds "Seconds from now to ring alarm." message [string! unset!] "Message to print on alarm." ] [ alarm-data: reduce [now/time + seconds message] ] ring: func [ "Action for when alarm comes due." message [string! unset!] ] [ set-face monitor either message [message]["RIIIING!"] ; Your sound playing can also go here (my computer doesn't have speakers). ] periodic: func [ "Called every second, checks alarms." fact action event ] [ either alarm-data [ ; Update alarm countdown. set-face monitor rejoin [ "Alarm will ring in " to integer! alarm-data/1 - now/time " seconds." ] ; Check alarm. if now/time > alarm-data/1 [ ring alarm-data/2 ;alarm-data: none ; Reset once fired. ] ][ either value? 'message [ set-alarm seconds message ][ set-alarm seconds "Alarm triggered!" ] ] ] alarm: func[seconds message [string! unset!]][ system/words/seconds: seconds if value? 'message [ system/words/message: message ] view layout [ monitor: text 256 "" rate 1 feel [engage: :periodic] button 256 "re/start countdown" [ either value? 'message [ set-alarm seconds message ][ set-alarm seconds "Alarm triggered!" ] set-face monitor "Alarm set." ] ] ]

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  • PHP autoloader: ignoring non-existing include

    - by Bart van Heukelom
    I have a problem with my autoloader: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; include_once $file; } As you can see, it's quite simple. I just deduce the filename of the class and try to include it. I have a problem though; I get an exception when trying to load a non-existing class (because I have an error handler which throws exceptions). This is inconvenient, because it's also fired when you use class_exists() on a non-existing class. You don't want an exception there, just a "false" returned. I fixed this earlier by putting an @ before the include (supressing all errors). The big drawback with this, though, is that any parser/compiler errors (that are fatal) in this include won't show up (not even in the logs), resulting in a hard to find bug. What would be the best way to solve both problems at once? The easiest way would be to include something like this in the autoloader (pseudocode): foreach (path in the include_path) { if (is_readable(the path + the class name)) readable = true; } if (!readable) return; But I worry about the performance there. Would it hurt a lot? (Solved) Made it like this: public function loadClass($className) { $file = str_replace(array('_', '\\'), '/', $className) . '.php'; $paths = explode(PATH_SEPARATOR, get_include_path()); foreach ($paths as $path) { if (is_readable($path . '/' . $file)) { include_once $file; return; } } }

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  • Delphi access violation assigning local variable

    - by Justin
    This seems like the simplest thing in the world and I'm ready to pull my hair out over it. I have a unit that looks like this ; Unit myUnit; // ... //normal declarations //... Public //bunch of procedures including Procedure myProcedure; const //bunch of constants var //bunch of vars including myCounter:integer; Implementation Uses //(all my uses) // All of my procedures including Procedure myProcedure; try // load items from file to TListBox - this all works except on EReadError do begin // handle exception end; end; //try myCounter:=0; // <-- ACCESS VIOLATION HERE while myCounter //...etc It's a simple assignment of a variable and I have no idea why it is doing this. I've tried declaring the variable local to the unit, to the procedure, globally - no matter where I try to do it I can't assign a value of zero to an integer, declared anywhere, within this procedure without it throwing an access violation. I'm totally stumped. I'm calling the procedure from inside a button OnClick handler from within the same unit, but no matter where I call it from it throws the exception. The crazy thing is that I do the exact same thing in a dozen other places in units all over the program without problems. Why here? I'm at a total loss.

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  • MySQL Cursor Issue

    - by James Inman
    I've got the following code - this is the first time I've really attempted using cursors. DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS demo$$ DROP TABLE IF EXISTS temp$$ CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE temp( id INTEGER NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, start DATETIME NOT NULL, end DATETIME NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(id) ) $$ CREATE PROCEDURE demo() BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE a, b DATETIME; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; DECLARE cur2 CURSOR FOR SELECT MIN(start) AS start FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num LIMIT 1, 18446744073709551615; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur1; OPEN cur2; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO a; FETCH cur2 INTO b; IF NOT done THEN INSERT INTO temp(start, end) VALUES(a,b); END IF; UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; CLOSE cur2; END $$ SELECT * FROM temp; I'm not getting anything outputted into the temp table. Running the following query gives me output, so I know there's rows it should be matching - but I imagine I've made some obvious mistake. SELECT MAX(end) AS end FROM ( SELECT id, start, end, @r := @r + (start > @edate) AS num, @edate := GREATEST(@edate, end) FROM ( SELECT @r := 0, @edate := '0001-01-01' ) vars, student_lectures WHERE ( student_id = 1 AND start >= '2010-04-26 00:00:00' AND end <= '2010-04-30 23:59:59' ) ORDER BY start ) q GROUP BY num; The output this query returns: +---------------------+ | end | +---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-27 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-27 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-28 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-29 18:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-30 15:15:00 | | 2010-04-30 17:15:00 | +---------------------+ 11 rows in set (0.02 sec)

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  • XML Parseing Error when serving a PDF

    - by Andy
    I'm trying to serve a pdf file from a database in ASP.NET using an Http Handler, but every time I go to the page I get an error XML Parsing Error: no element found Location: https://ucc489/rc/NoteFileHandler.ashx?noteId=1,msdsId=3 Line Number 1, Column 1: ^ Here is my HttpHandler code: public class NoteFileHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { if (context.Request.QueryString.HasKeys()) { if (context.Request.QueryString["noteId"] != null && context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"] != null) { string nId = context.Request.QueryString["noteId"]; string mId = context.Request.QueryString["msdsId"]; DataTable noteFileDt = App_Models.Notes.GetNoteFile(nId, mId); if (noteFileDt.Rows.Count > 0) { try { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + noteFileDt.Rows[0][0] + ".pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] file = (byte[])noteFileDt.Rows[0][1]; context.Response.BinaryWrite(file); context.Response.End(); } catch { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("File Not Found"); context.Response.StatusCode = 404; } } } } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } Is there anything else I need to do (server configuration/whatever) to get my pdf file to load?

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  • JSF/Facelets: set `action` attribute to a dynamically evaluated string

    - by harto
    In my JSF/Facelets application, I want to dynamically generate a breadcrumb trail from a list of page IDs using a custom tag: <foo:breadcrumbs trail="foo,bar,baz"/> This should generate something like: <h:commandLink action="foo" ... /> <h:commandLink action="bar" ... /> <!-- (etc.) --> My code looks something like this: <ui:repeat value="#{fn:split(trail, ',')}" var="key"> <h:commandLink action="#{key}" ... /> </ui:repeat> The problem with this code is that #{key} is interpreted as a method binding. However, I just want the string value of #{key} to be returned as the navigation outcome. How can I achieve this? The only thing I could think of was creating a dummy managed-bean that has an outcome field and an action handler, and invoke it like so: <h:commandLink action="#{dummy.click}" ...> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{dummy.outcome}" value="#{key}" /> </h:commandLink> with the dummy class defined like so: public class Dummy { private String outcome; public String click() { return outcome; } public void setOutcome(String outcome) { this.outcome = outcome; } public void getOutcome() { return outcome; } } That seems ugly though, and I don't know if it would work.

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  • Is there an MVVM-friendly way to swap views without value converters firing unnecessarily?

    - by DanM
    I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • Is there any other efficient way to use table variable instead of using temporary table

    - by varta shrimali
    we are writing script to display banners on a web page where we are using temporary table in mysql procedure. Is there any other efficient way to use table variable instead of using temporary table we are using following code: -- banner location CURSOR -- DECLARE banner_location_cursor CURSOR FOR select bm.id as masterId, bm.section as masterName, bs.id as locationId, bs.sectionName as locationName from banner_master as bm inner join banner_section as bs on bm.id=bs.masterId where bm.section=sCode ; -- DECLARE banner CURSORS DECLARE banner_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT bd.id as bannerId, bd.sectionId, bd.bannerName, bd.websiteURL, bd.paymentType, bd.status, bd.startDate, bd.endDate, bd.bannerDisplayed, bs.id, bs.sectionName from banner_detail as bd inner join banner_section as bs on bs.id=bd.sectionId where bs.id= location_id and bd.status='A' and (dates between cast(bd.startDate as DATE) and cast(bd.endDate as DATE)) order by rand(), bd.bannerDisplayed asc limit 1 ; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET no_more_rows = 1; SET dates = (select curdate()); -- RESULTS TABLE WHICH WILL BE RETURNED -- CREATE temporary TABLE test ( b_id INT, s_id INT, b_name varchar(128), w_url varchar(128), p_type varchar(128), st char(1), s_date datetime, e_date datetime, b_display int, sec_id int, s_name varchar(128) ); -- OPEN banner location CURSOR OPEN banner_location_cursor; the_loop: LOOP FETCH banner_location_cursor INTO master_id, master_name, location_id, location_name; IF no_more_rows THEN CLOSE banner_location_cursor; leave the_loop; END IF; OPEN banner_cursor; -- select FOUND_ROWS(); the_loop2: LOOP FETCH banner_cursor INTO banner_id, section_id, banner_name, website_url, payment, status, start_date, end_date, banner_displayed, sec_id, section_name; IF no_more_rows THEN set no_more_rows = 0; CLOSE banner_cursor; leave the_loop2; END IF; INSERT INTO test ( b_id, s_id, b_name , w_url, p_type, st, s_date, e_date, b_display, sec_id, s_name ) VALUES ( banner_id, section_id, banner_name, website_url, payment, status, start_date, end_date, banner_displayed, sec_id, section_name ); UPDATE banner_detail set bannerDisplayed = (banner_displayed+1) where id = banner_id; END LOOP the_loop2; END LOOP the_loop; -- RETURN result SELECT * FROM test; -- DROP RESULTS TABLE DROP TABLE test; END

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  • Dynamically populated NSPopUpButtonCell menu in an NSOutlineView

    - by Mo
    I’m working with an NSOutlineView which has two columns. My dataSource supplies the outline view with a tree of items of a custom class which represents file types (that is, you initialise it with a UTI). The first column is the display name of the file type (e.g., “Source code”, “Interface Builder NIB document”, etc.). The second column is an NSPopUpButtonCell which is supposed to allow the user to pick a handler for the given document type (think of Xcode’s “File Types” preference pane, and you’re pretty much there). I can generate an NSMenu for a given item in the tree, populated with options based upon the Launch Services database entries for the UTI, complete with the relevant application icon and and so on. In fact, the menu itself works wonderfully, populated by way of NSPopUpButtonCellWillPopUpNotification. The problem is, try as I might, the cell when the menu isn’t popped up always contains precisely one of two things: either an empty string, or the default text for the cell, the former if the result of -handlerName on the item (the attribute assigned to the column) is non-nil, the latter otherwise. Moreover, I’m manually calling -selectItem: on the NSPopUpButtonCell instance, which just seems Wrong. In contrast, the left-hand column, which is just an NSTextFieldCell, everything just works (although granted, all it’s got to do is read the value from the item and present it). (Disclaimer: I’m fairly new at Cocoa UI stuff; I know Objective-C, and lots of other programming languages, but I’ve not a huge amount of experience of building Mac OS X UIs, so be gentle).

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