Search Results

Search found 61651 results on 2467 pages for 'function object'.

Page 115/2467 | < Previous Page | 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122  | Next Page >

  • ArrayList of my objects, indexOf problem

    - by majtits
    Hello! I have problem with Java's ArrayList. I've created an Object, that contains two atributes, x and y. Now I've loaded some object in my ArrayList. Problem is that I don't know how to find index of some object with x atribute I'm searching. Is there any way to do this?

    Read the article

  • difficulty with deleting a function from jquery snippet

    - by user1691389
    I'm trying to get rid of a function that appends a loading gif while the script is busy ajax'ing in new content, but I keep breaking the script so I'm posting it here hoping someone can just kindly edit it for me correctly. (I'd like to get rid of everything that has to do with #load and keep everything else intact.) $('#header_nav_content_container a, a.scroll_to_top, a.clear_banner, a.desire').not('.exception').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #content'; $('#content').hide(1555,'easeInOutQuint',loadContent); $('#load').remove(); $('body').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn(888); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-0); function loadContent() { $('#content').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent); } function showNewContent() { $('#content').show(777,'',hideLoader); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut(888); } return false; }); Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Anyone help me! java basic question

    - by Max
    How can I get a specific value from an object? I'm trying to get a value of an instance for eg. ListOfPpl newListOfPpl = new ListOfPpl(id, name, age); Object item = newListOfPpl; How can I get a value of name from an Object item?? Even if it is easy or does not interest you can anyone help me??

    Read the article

  • VBA Solution to VLOOKUP with Hyperlinks

    - by Emily2
    I am looking for some help with a VBA solution for preserving hyperlinks when using VLOOKUP on Excel (2010). I have a load of data on Sheet 1 for internal use only, and a cut-down version of this on Sheet 2. Instead of recreating Sheet 2 everytime, I am looking to have a working version which updates everytime Sheet1 is updated. Thus, I have used VLOOKUP on Sheet 2 so that only the desired info is returned on sheet 2. However, the problem was that sheet 1 contained in many cells Hyperlinks to external websites, and this would not pull through to Sheet2 using VLOOKUP. With some help, however, using the following VBA solution the hyperlinks now pull through: Function GetHyperLink(r As Range) As String If r.Hyperlinks.Count Then GetHyperLink = r.Hyperlinks(1).Address End If End Function And I am using the following formula in the relevant cell(s) in Sheet2: =HYPERLINK(GetHyperLink(INDEX('Sheet 1'!$B$1:$B$10001,MATCH(A4,'Sheet 1'!$A$1:$A$10001,0))),(VLOOKUP(A4,'Sheet 1'!$A$1:$B$10001,2,FALSE))) However, the problem is with formatting: every cell on Sheet2 is formatted blue and underlined, even although some of them do not contain a hyperlink! Is someone able to help with a VBA solution/formula to fix this last piece of the puzzle? Many thanks, in anticipation.

    Read the article

  • Serializing object with no namespaces using DataContractSerializer

    - by Yurik
    How do I remove XML namespaces from an object's XML representation serialized using DataContractSerializer? That object needs to be serialized to a very simple output XML. Latest & greatest - using .Net 4 beta 2 The object will never need to be deserialized. XML should not have any xmlns:... namespace refs Any subtypes of Exception and ISubObject need to be supported. It will be very difficult to change the original object. Object: [Serializable] class MyObj { string str; Exception ex; ISubObject subobj; } Need to serialize into: <xml> <str>...</str> <ex i:nil="true" /> <subobj i:type="Abc"> <AbcProp1>...</AbcProp1> <AbcProp2>...</AbcProp2> </subobj> </xml> I used this code: private static string ObjectToXmlString(object obj) { if (obj == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("obj"); var serializer = new DataContractSerializer( obj.GetType(), null, Int32.MaxValue, false, false, null, new AllowAllContractResolver()); var sb = new StringBuilder(); using (var xw = XmlWriter.Create(sb, new XmlWriterSettings { OmitXmlDeclaration = true, NamespaceHandling = NamespaceHandling.OmitDuplicates, Indent = true })) { serializer.WriteObject(xw, obj); xw.Flush(); return sb.ToString(); } } From this article I adopted a DataContractResolver so that no subtypes have to be declared: public class AllowAllContractResolver : DataContractResolver { public override bool TryResolveType(Type dataContractType, Type declaredType, DataContractResolver knownTypeResolver, out XmlDictionaryString typeName, out XmlDictionaryString typeNamespace) { if (!knownTypeResolver.TryResolveType(dataContractType, declaredType, null, out typeName, out typeNamespace)) { var dictionary = new XmlDictionary(); typeName = dictionary.Add(dataContractType.FullName); typeNamespace = dictionary.Add(dataContractType.Assembly.FullName); } return true; } public override Type ResolveName(string typeName, string typeNamespace, Type declaredType, DataContractResolver knownTypeResolver) { return knownTypeResolver.ResolveName(typeName, typeNamespace, declaredType, null) ?? Type.GetType(typeName + ", " + typeNamespace); } }

    Read the article

  • How to serialize List<object>

    - by afin
    I am writing common functions to serialize the given object and List<object> as follows public string SerializeObject(Object pObject)// for given object { try { String XmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(pObject)); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, pObject); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; XmlizedString = UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return XmlizedString; } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine(e); return null; } } public string SerializeObject(List<Object> pObject)// for given List<object> { try { String XmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(pObject)); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, pObject); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; XmlizedString = UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return XmlizedString; } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine(e); return null; } } first one is working fine. If I pass any type, it is successfully returning xml string. But second one is throwing error. what could be wrong?

    Read the article

  • VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

    - by clawson
    Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

  • Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

    - by toobsco42
    So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net Cache, modify an object from cache and it changes the cached value

    - by Glen
    Hi, I'm having an issue when using the Asp.Net Cache functionality. I add an object to the Cache then at another time I get that object from the Cache, modify one of it's properties then save the changes to the database. But, the next time I get the object from Cache it contains the changed values. So, when I modify the object it modifies the version which is contained in cache even though I haven't updated it in the Cache specifically. Does anyone know how I can get an object from the Cache which doesn't reference the cached version? i.e. Step 1: Item item = new Item(); item.Title = "Test"; Cache.Insert("Test", item, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(1), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); Step 2: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); item.Title = "Test 1"; Step 3: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); if(item.Title == "Test 1"){ Response.Write("Object has been changed in the Cache."); } I realise that with the above example it would make sense that any changes to the item get reflected in cache but my situation is a bit more complicated and I definitely don't want this to happen.

    Read the article

  • function (blurClass) NOT WORKING IN IE

    - by Erik
    I can't get this plugin to function properly in IE.... Check out my homepage and look at the huge search field toward the top... www.naturalskin.com Whenever I refresh the screen the "blur" looses its function and I'm stuck with text..... Here is the script that I place in an external js page: http://www.naturalskin.com/src/js/javascript/batches.js jQuery.fn.hint = function (blurClass) { if (!blurClass) { blurClass = 'blur'; } return this.each(function () { // get jQuery version of 'this' var $input = jQuery(this), // capture the rest of the variable to allow for reuse title = $input.attr('title'), $form = jQuery(this.form), $win = jQuery(window); function remove() { if ($input.val() === title && $input.hasClass(blurClass)) { $input.val('').removeClass(blurClass); } } // only apply logic if the element has the attribute if (title) { // on blur, set value to title attr if text is blank $input.blur(function () { if (this.value === '') { $input.val(title).addClass(blurClass); } }).focus(remove).blur(); // now change all inputs to title // clear the pre-defined text when form is submitted $form.submit(remove); $win.unload(remove); // handles Firefox's autocomplete } }); }; Erik

    Read the article

  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • HP QTP 10: Web-app testing - SomeObj.FireEvent("OnCLick") works, SomeObj.Object.FireEvent("OnCLick") doesn't

    - by Vitaliy
    Hi all! I have rich web app btuil with ExtJS. It has multi-select list control (created with JS+CSS). I want to click on some item in that list using HP QuickTest Pro 10 with Internet Explorer 6. I added that item into Object repository and found that following code works - selects some item: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Click next code also works: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseDown") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseUp") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onClick") But I want to select several items using shift+click method. I don't know to do that :( So I have a few questions: How can perform click with mouse on several web elements with Shift key pressed? I tried to do that using CreateEventObject + shiftKey set to true, but the method (perform fireEvent on DOM object, not object from Object repository) doesn't work: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Object.FireEvent("onClick") What the difference between WebElement("Element").FireEvent("OnClick") and WebElement("Element").Object.FireEvent("OnClick") ? Plsease, help someone, because I fought with that problem a lot, but had no result. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Malloc inside another function (ANSI C)

    - by Casper
    Hi I'll go straight to it. I'm working on an assignment, where I suddenly ran into trouble. I have to allocate a struct from within another function, obviously using pointers. I've been staring at this problem for hours and tried in a million different ways to solve it. This is some sample code (very simplified): ... some_struct s; printf("Before: %d\n", &s"); allocate(&s); printf("After: %d\n", &s"); ... /* The allocation function */ int allocate(some_struct *arg) { arg = malloc(sizeof(some_struct)); printf("In function: %d\n", &arg"); return 0; } This does give me the same address before and after the allocate-call: Before: -1079752900 In function: -1079752928 After: -1079752900 I know it's probably because it makes a copy in the function, but I don't know how to actually work on the pointer I gave as argument. I tried defining some_struct *s instead of some_struct s, but no luck. I tried with: int allocate(some_struct **arg) which works just fine (the allocate-function needs to be changed as well), BUT according to the assignment I may NOT change the declaration, and it HAS to be *arg.. And it would be most correct if I just have to declare some_struct s.. Not some_struct *s. I hope I make sense and some of you out there can help me :P Thanks in advice

    Read the article

  • Help porting javascript function to jQuery - learning tool

    - by chibineku
    I am just learning jQuery and I wanted to see what I could do with the function below. This function adds or removes css classes to create a pull down menu (it is in fact Stu Nicholl's well known pull down menu). But I'm not getting very far (I've been learning jQuery for approximately an hoour now, so my DOM traversal isn't quite up there yet). I am curious to see how neat and elegant it can become using jQuery, and thought I'd see what you guys could come up with. Here is the existing function: var getEls = document.getElementById("menu").getElementsByTagName("LI"); var getAgn = getEls; for (var i=0; i<getEls.length; i++) { getEls[i].onclick=function() { for (var x=0; x<getAgn.length; x++) { getAgn[x].className=getAgn[x].className.replace("unclick", ""); getAgn[x].className=getAgn[x].className.replace("click", "unclick"); } if ((this.className.indexOf('unclick'))!=-1) { this.className=this.className.replace("unclick", "");; } else { this.className+=" click"; } } } } My first failure started like this: $(document).ready(function() { $('#menu > li').click(function() { $('#menu >li > ul').toggleClass('unclick'); }); }); That works as far as it goes, but the next bit proved tricky. So, if anyone feels like having a go, please be my guest :)

    Read the article

  • javascript variable evaluation in function

    - by lamerzpua
    I trying to use simile widget for own need but I'm stuck on such problem. I have loop for (i=0;i<15;i++){ Timeline.loadXML(function_that_return_url(), function(xml, url) { eventSource[i].loadXML(xml, url); }); } This code is for Timeline.loadXML: Timeline.loadXML = function(url, f) { var fError = function(statusText, status, xmlhttp) { alert("Failed to load data xml from " + url + "\n" + statusText); }; var fDone = function(xmlhttp) { var xml = xmlhttp.responseXML; if (!xml.documentElement && xmlhttp.responseStream) { xml.load(xmlhttp.responseStream); } f(xml, url); }; SimileAjax.XmlHttp.get(url, fError, fDone);}; When I open the page - my function function(xml, url) { eventSource[i].loadXML(xml, url); }); is passed to loadXML method which use it inside as f(xml, url); Problem is that i variable is not parsed as number and I receive message that eventSource[...] is not declared. How I can evaluate i values before it will be posted as argument for the method LoadXML ?

    Read the article

  • Return and Save XML Object From Sharepoint List Web Service

    - by HurnsMobile
    I am trying to populate a variable with an XML response from an ajax call on page load so that on keyup I can filter through that list without making repeated get requests (think very rudimentary autocomplete). The trouble that I am having seems to be potentially related to variable scoping but I am fairly new to js/jQuery so I am not quite certain. The following code doesn't do anything on key up and adding alerts to it tells me that it is executing leadResults() on keyup and that the variable is returning an XML response object but it appears to be empty. The strange bit is that if I move the leadResults() call into the getResults() function the UL is populated with the results correctly. Im beating my head against the wall on this one, please help! var resultsXml; $(document).ready( function() { var leadLookupCaml = "<Query> \ <Where> \ <Eq> \ <FieldRef Name=\"Lead_x0020_Status\"/> \ <Value Type=\"Text\">Active</Value> \ </Eq> \ </Where> \ </Query>" $().SPServices({ operation: "GetListItems", webURL: "http://sharepoint/departments/sales", listName: "Leads", CAMLQuery: leadLookupCaml, CAMLRowLimit: 0, completefunc: getResults }); }) $("#lead_search").keyup( function(e) { leadResults(); }) function getResults(xData, status) { resultsXml = xData; } function leadResults() { xData = resultsXml; $("#lead_results li").remove(); $(xData.responseXML).find("z\\:row").each(function() { var selectHtml = "<li>" + "<a href=\"http://sharepoint/departments/sales/Lists/Lead%20Groups/DispForm.aspx?ID=" + $(this).attr("ows_ID") + ">" + $(this).attr("ows_Title")+" : " + $(this).attr("ows_Phone") + "</a>\ </li>"; $("#lead_results").append(selectHtml); }); }

    Read the article

  • Calling jquery function from ascx not working

    - by Metju
    Hi Guys, I'm having a problem with the following situation. I have an ascx which contains a submit button for a search criteria and I am trying to call a validation function in a js file I've used throughout the site (this is the first time I'm using it in an ascx). Now I've just tried this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jsAdmin_Generic_SystemValidation.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".submitBtn").click(function (e) { alert("test"); alert($.Validate()); alert("test 2"); }); }); </script> The file is being referenced correctly as I am already seeing posts in Firebug that are done by it. This is the function: jQuery.extend({ Validate: function () { does validation... }); Now at first I was getting "Validate() is not a function" in firebug. Since I did that alert testing, I am getting the first alert, then nothing with no errors. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to use DLL reference with an ActiveX <object> via JavaScript

    - by John Factorial
    My question: how can I set an ActiveX object's property via JavaScript to an enum value found in a non-ActiveX DLL? Problem description: I am instantiating an ActiveX object with the following object tag: <object classid="clsid:F338193D-2491-4D7B-80CE-03487041A278" id="VideoCapture1" width="500" height="500"></object> (This is the guid for the 3rd party ActiveX I'm using, "VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.VFVideoCapture4X") I have example C# code for using this ActiveX, which I am porting to JavaScript. Code like this works just fine: VideoCapture1.Debug_Mode = true; var devcount = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetCount(); var devs = []; for (var i =0; i < devcount; ++i) { devs[devs.length] = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetItem(i); } ... etc ... However, VideoCapture1 has some settings which refer to a DLL enum, like so (C# code): VideoCapture1.Mode = VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview; I can see in Visual Web Developer that TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview is value 1 in the enum. However, the following JS does not appear to set the Mode properly: VideoCapture1.Mode = 1; Does anyone know how I can set VideoCapture1.Mode to the enum value found in the TxVFMode? PS: In Visual Web Developer, when I "Go to definition" on TxVFMode, I get the Guid for the enum. I thought I could create an with this Guid or instantiate a VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode in JS, but neither gives me a usable object.

    Read the article

  • Passing Object to Service in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate overriding database modifications with detached object state

    - by EugeneP
    I'm gonna go with this design: create an object and keep it alive during all web-app session. And I need to synchronize its state with database state. What I want to achieve is that : IF between my db operations, that is, modifications that I persist to a db someone intentionally spoils table rows, then on next saving to a database all those changes WOULD BE OVERWRITTEN with the object state, that always contains valid data. What Hibernate methods do you recommend me to use to persist the modifications in a database? saveOrUpdate() is a possible solution, but maybe there's anything better? Again, I repeat how it looks. First I create an object without collections. Persist it (save()). Then user provides us with additional data. In a serviceLayer, again, we modify our object in memory (say, populate it with collections) and then, persist it again. So every serviceLayer operation of the next step must simply guarantee that database contains the exact persistent copy of this object that we have in memory. If data in a database differ, it MUST BE OVERRIDDEN with the object (kept in memory) state. What Session operations do you recommend?

    Read the article

  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • binding nested json object value to a form field

    - by Jack
    I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

    Read the article

  • Streamlining my javascript with a function

    - by liz
    i have a series of select lists, that i am using to populate text boxes with ids. so you click a select option and another text box is filled with its id. with just one select/id pair this works fine, but i have multiples, and the only thing that changes is the id of the select and input.. in fact just the ending changes, the inputs all start with featredproductid and the select ids all start with recipesproduct and then both end with the category. i know that listing this over and over for each category is not the way to do it. i think i need to make an array of the categories var cats = ['olive oil', "grains", "pasta"] and then use a forEach function? maybe? here is the clunky code window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('recipesproductoliveoil').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidoliveoil").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductgrains').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidgrains").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpasta').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpasta").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); $('recipesproductpantry').addEvent('change', function(e){ pidselected = this.options[this.selectedIndex].getProperty('value') ; $("featuredproductidpantry").setProperties({ value: pidselected}); ; }); }); keep in mind this is mootools 1.1 (no i cant update it sorry). i am sure this is kind of basic, something i seem to have wrapping my brain around. but i am quite sure doing it as above is not really good...

    Read the article

  • sharing message object between web applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I need to share java mail message objects between two web applications(A and B). WebApplication A obtains the message and write it to the outputStream for(int i=0;i<messagesArr.length;i++){ uid = pop3FolderObj.getUID(messagesArr[i]); //storing messages with uid names inorder to maintain uniqueness File f = new File("F:/PersistedMessagesFolder" + uid); FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(f); messagesArr[i].writeTo(fos); fos.flush(); fos.close(); } Is FileOutputStream the best output stream for persisting message objects? Is it possible to use ObjectOutputStream for message object persistence? WebApplication B reads the message object via InputStream FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("F:/MessagesPersistedFolder"+uid); MimeMessage mm = new MimeMessage(sessionObj,fis); What if the mail message object which is already written via WebApplication A is not a MimeMessage? How can I read non-mime messages using input stream? MimeMessage constructor mandates sessionObj as the first parameter? How can I obtain this sessionObj in WebApplicationB? Do I have to again establish store connection with the same emailid,emailpassword,popserver and port(already used in WebApplication A) with the email server inorder to obtain this session object? Even if obtained, will this session object remains the same as that of the session object which is priorly obtained in WebApplicationA? Since I am using uids to name Message objects (inorder to maintain uniqueness of file names) how can I share these uids between WebApplication A and WebApplication B? WebApplication B needs the uid inorder to access the specific file which is present in "F:/MessagesPersistedFolder" Please help me in resolving the aforeseen issues.

    Read the article

  • simplify a preload image function in jQuery

    - by robertdd
    after i spent 2 day searching a preload function in jQueryi with no succes, i manage to do this: after i upload the image on server, in a list i get this: <li id="upimagesDYGONI"> <div class="percentage">100%</div> <div class="uploadifyProgress"> <div align=" center" class="uploadifyProgressBar" id="upimagesDYGONIProgressBar" style="width: 100%;"> <!--Progress Bar--> </div> </div> </li> with this function, i preload the image: $.getlastimage = function(id) { $.getJSON('operations.php', {'operation':'getli', 'id':id,}, function(lastimg){ $("#upimages" + id + " .percentage").text('processing'); $("#upimages" + id).append('<a href=""><img id="' + id + '" src="" alt="" /></a>') .parent().attr({"href":"uploads/"+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime()}); $("#"+id).hide().attr({"src":"uploads/"+ lastimg +'?'+ (new Date()).getTime(), "alt":lastimg}) .load(function() { $(this).show(); $("#upimages" + id + " .percentage").remove(); $("#upimages" + id + " .uploadifyProgress").remove(); }); }); } })(jQuery) and i get this: <li id="upimagesLRBHYN" style="" class=""> <a href="uploads/0002.jpg?1271901177027"> <img alt="0002.jpg" src="uploads/0002.jpg?1271901177028" id="LRBHYN" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> how i can simplify the function? i want to use the full power of jQuery!! any idea?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122  | Next Page >