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  • warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast

    - by FILIaS
    Im new in programming c with arrays and files. Im just trying to run the following code but i get warnings like that: warning: assignment makes pointer from integer without a cast Any help? It might be silly... but I cant find what's wrong. FILE *fp; FILE *cw; char filename_game[40],filename_words[40]; int main() { while(1) { /* Input filenames. */ printf("\n Enter the name of the file with the cryptwords array: \n"); gets(filename_game); printf("\n Give the name of the file with crypted words:\n"); gets(filename_words); /* Try to open the file with the game */ if (fp=fopen("crypt.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_game); fclose(fp); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_game); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } /* Try to open the file with the names. */ if (cw=fopen("words.txt","r")!=NULL) { printf("\n Successful opening %s \n",filename_words); fclose(cw); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue \n "); if ( (getc(stdin))=='x') break; else continue; } else { fprintf(stderr,"ERROR!%s \n",filename_words); puts("\n Enter x to exit,any other to continue! \n"); if (getc(stdin)=='x') break; else continue; } } return 0; }

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  • How to get a fully transparent backbuffer in directx 9 without vista Desktop Window Manager

    - by flawlesslyfaulted
    I currently have an activex control that initiates a media (video/audio) framework another development group in my company developed and I am providing a window handle to that code. That handle is being used by their rendering plugin in the pipeline that uses Direct3d for rendering the video using that handle. I have seperate LPDIRECT3D9EX and LPDIRECT3DDEVICE9EX pointers that I initialize in my activex control. I am trying to clear a backbuffer to transparent and then use directx drawing primatives to draw on that backbuffer producing a transparent window with my drawing primatives over the streaming video on the directx surface below. It appears that clearing a device backbuffer with full alpha transparency is ignored by directx. d3ddev->Clear(0, NULL, D3DCLEAR_TARGET, D3DCOLOR_RGBA(0, 0, 1, 0 /*full alpha*/), 1.0f, 0); I can see the object I draw but they are drawn on top of a backbuffer that has the RGB color specified without the alpha value. The project linked (http://www.codeproject.com/KB/directx/umvistad3d.aspx) to in the stackoverflow question below does what I want but requires vista's Desktop Window Manager and won't work for XP. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/148275/how-do-i-draw-transparent-directx-content-in-a-transparent-window I have tried with D3DRS_ALPHABLENDENABLE true with configured blend with no avail. I have also tried to have pixels with full alpha values not rendered using D3DRS_ALPHATESTENABLE, D3DRS_ALPHAREF, and D3DRS_ALPHAFUNC setup but this doesn't work either. I have tried using ColorFill with alpha after retrieving the backbuffer with GetBackBuffer but this doesn't work either. (again only RGB is used) Finally I have tried creating a texture, selecting a surface, colorfilling that surface with a fully transparent alpha value, then loading that surface onto the backbuffer but only the RGB values appear to be used. I have checked the capabilities using the DXCapsViewer.exe and the D3DFMT_A8R8G8B8 backbuffer format that I am using for the backbuffer is valid so it can't be that. Has anyone gotten a transparent backbuffer in directx to work in XP?

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  • Flash Without a SWF File?

    - by PeterAllenWebb
    Is there any way to embed Flash completely in HTML, without reference to an external SWF file? I ask because I would like to send an HTML file as an email attachment that the recipient will open in a browser and fill out as a form. The last step is that they will copy the result to their clipboard, paste it into a new message, and email it back. I cannot reliably copy to the clipboard with JavaScript because of the security issues, but there are simple Flash apps to add that capability. I know I could just display the response text (which will be Base64 encoded) to the recipient and have them copy/paste, but it would be nice to provide this small convenience to them. Also, so you are aware, the text is often too large to include in an email using mailto. Yes. This needs to be done via email. The users have slow, occasional satellite email access and no other data connection to the interwebs. To make things worse, I cannot make them install anything. It is a difficult situation.

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  • NoClassDefFoundError without any class name

    - by Safder
    Hello, I am trying to run a java task from ant. I am trying to run the "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher" class. I keep on getting the "NoClassDefFoundError" without any class name being specified. I am also getting a "ClassNotFoundException" along with that displaying a message "Could not find the main class: . Program will exit". Here's a snippet of the error [java] Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [java] Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) [java] at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) [java] at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) [java] at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) [java] at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) [java] Could not find the main class: . Program will exit. [java] Java Result: 1 Now I am trying to run an ant class from an ant jar and i specifiy the classpath where this class file resides using the "classpathref" attribute, however I still get this message. I checked the ant jar to check the Manifest and the "main" class is specified properly (it's "org.apache.tools.ant.launch.Launcher") . I have exhausted all my resources. Please help ! ! ! ps: My environment is Eclipse on Ubuntu 9.04

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  • JSF Templating without RAD

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    I have a set of jsp's based off a jtpl template. The template (jtpl file) looks like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <%-- tpl:metadata --%> <%-- jsf:codeBehind language="java" location="/JavaSource/pagecode/my.java" --%> <%-- /jsf:codeBehind --%> <%-- /tpl:metadata --%> <%@taglib uri="http://www.ibm.com/jsf/html_extended" prefix="hx"%> <%@taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" prefix="h"%> <HTML> <%@taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" prefix="f"%> <%@page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <f:view> <HEAD> ... Without using RAD, how can I change the jtpl (template) and regenerate jsp? I'm looking for a command line solution. Related question: is the jsp intended to be rendered from the template design-time in the IDE, or runtime on the server?

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  • new Statefull session bean instance without calling lookup

    - by kislo_metal
    Hi! Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , it`s method createSession() generating @Statefull UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Statefull session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

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  • Conditional "Get Script File" in Javascript without using a library function

    - by Adam
    I work at a company that has many clients that have their own website that "plugs in" to our system. In other words they have their own website and they have a link that, when the user clicks it, transitions them over to our site. There is a feature that I want to track by giving the client a small block of code to put on their homepage. Whenever the homepage is loaded with a certain query string variable I want the block of code to request a file on my server. Then on the server I'll record the tracking info based on the query string. All this would be really easy if I can guarantee that the client would be using jQuery or some similar library, but there are a lot of clients and I can't really rely on them all using jQuery. At the same time I'd like to limit the size of the block of javascript code that they paste in. I think the best solution would be to have something like: if(querystring.substring("Tracking=") > 0) { include("blah.aspx?TrackingQS=" + querystring); } but I can't find a include function in built-in javascript without calling some library like jQuery. Any thoughts?? I could do straight up AJAX but I want to limit the number of lines of code for several reasons that I won't bore you with here.

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  • How to get node without children in xQuery?

    - by mbrevoort
    So I have two nodes of elements that I'm essentially trying to join. I want the top level node to stay the same but the child nodes to be replaced by those cross referenced. Given: <stuff> <item foo="foo" boo="1"/> <item foo="bar" boo="2" /> <item foo="baz" boo="3"/> <item foo="blah boo="4""/> </stuff> <list a="1" b="2"> <foo>bar</foo> <foo>baz</foo> </list> I want to loop through "list" and cross reference elements in "stuff" for this result: <list a="1" b="2"> <item foo="bar" boo="2" /> <item foo="baz" boo="3"/> </list> I want to do this without having to know about what attributes might be on "list". In other words I don't want to have to explicitly call them out like attribute a { $list/@a }, attribute b { $list/@b }

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  • Creating an HTTP-Redirected Virtual Directopry in IIS 6.0 without specifying physical path & WMI/ADS

    - by Steve Johnson
    My question is : Is it possible to create a working IIS 6.0 Virtual Directory with providing Physical Path of the Virtual Directory.? I know that manually, it is not possible via IIS but programmatically such a virtual directory can be created. If an HTTPRedirect is set on that virtual directory but the site physical path is not specified, then will it work? Simply stated, how to create an HTTp-redirected Virtual Directory , directly without specifying any physical path to a folder or network share. Here is my code. Try If Directory.Exists(HomeDirectory) = False And Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then Directory.CreateDirectory(HomeDirectory) End If Dim website As DirectoryEntry website = New DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & IISServer & "/W3SVC/" & WebsiteId & "/Root") Dim NewVDir As DirectoryEntry = website.Children.Add(VDirName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") If Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then NewVDir.Properties("Path")(0) = Path NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect").Clear() Else NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect")(0) = Path End If If ((Perm And Permission.Read) = Permission.Read) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessRead")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.Write) = Permission.Write) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessWrite")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.DirBrowse) = Permission.DirBrowse) Then NewVDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.CreatetApplication) = Permission.CreatetApplication) Then NewVDir.Invoke("AppCreate", True) End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptOnly) = Permission.ScriptOnly) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessScript")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptNExecute) = Permission.ScriptNExecute) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessExecute")(0) = True End If NewVDir.Properties("AuthAnonymous")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AuthNTLM")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserName")(0) = AnonUserName NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserPass")(0) = AnonPassword NewVDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName")(0) = AppFriendlyName NewVDir.CommitChanges() website.CommitChanges() NewVDir.Close() website.Close() Success = True Catch Err As Exception Throw New Exception("My Custom Exception Here: " & Err.Message) End Try

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  • jQuery-driven app. won't work without alert()

    - by webjawns.com
    I have seen a lot of articles on this, but none dealing with jQuery, so here I go... I am implementing a version of a script from http://javascript-array.com/scripts/jquery_simple_drop_down_menu/ into an existing application; however, I cannot get it to work without adding alert('msg...') as the first method within the $(document).ready() call. This has nothing to do with load time... no matter how long I wait, the menu does not work. Add alert(), however, and it works like a charm. var timeout = 500; var closetimer = 0; var ddmenuitem = 0; function jsddm_open() { jsddm_canceltimer(); jsddm_close(); ddmenuitem = $(this).find('ul').css('visibility', 'visible');} function jsddm_close() { if(ddmenuitem) ddmenuitem.css('visibility', 'hidden');} function jsddm_timer() { closetimer = window.setTimeout(jsddm_close, timeout);} function jsddm_canceltimer() { if(closetimer) { window.clearTimeout(closetimer); closetimer = null;}} $(document).ready(function() { $('#jsddm > li').bind('mouseover', jsddm_open) $('#jsddm > li').bind('mouseout', jsddm_timer)}); document.onclick = jsddm_close;

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  • Set scaleX property on a Sprite without altering the child inside

    - by grammar
    Is this possible? My site is set up with next and prev buttons on the right and left sides respectively, and as you roll over either of the hit areas around the buttons a Sprite fades in which contains a TextField that describes the next page. Said Sprite calls the StartDrag() method, so it follows the mouse within the bounds, which is all fine and dandy on the left side of the page. Adobe, however, seems to have forgotten to put a way to dynamically alter the registration point of a Sprite, MC, whatever else, so when you roll over the right side of the page, the sprite is displayed from the top left and is mostly off the stage. Trying to hack this problem I have tried numerous things ( classes written by others, other hacks) and the best that I have found is to use the scaleX method on the Sprite, changing the scale to -1. This, of course, makes the Sprite seem like it's reflected from its normal point, which means all its children show up backwards. Is there anyway I can use this hack without it altering the text? OR Does anyone know a different way to go about displaying a Sprite from another corner? Any way to make a Sprite fade in and follow the mouse on the LEFT HAND side of the mouse pointer? Thank you very much in advance. Here is a snippet to give an idea of what's happening: naxtPage.labelBG.scaleX = -1; nextPage.labelBG.startDrag( true, nextHitRect ); nextPage.labelBG.x = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseX; nextPage.labelBG.y = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseY; Cheers

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  • Reducing the opacity on a div without reducing the opacity of the contents

    - by user352744
    Want to reduce the opacity of page contents container background without reducing the opacity of the contents. <div id="container"> <div id="page contents"> page contents goes here, like amazing articles and all that. </div> </div> Needs to be able to expand with the content, thus can't have a fixed height. Absolute positioning it underneath the content will mean there will be no relationship between the two divs and it wont expand with the contents, so I think this is a dead end, feel free to say otherwise. Can't use Jquery as could be too laggy and not instant. Other options preferred please. May have to use 'png' background images but were hoping not to as it is a template and needs to be able to change colour based on colour schemes. Could generate images on demand but not ideal. Oh and to top it off cant use CSS3 as wont work in IE! of course! Any suggestions?

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  • Android - Read PNG image without alpha and decode as ARGB_8888

    - by loki666
    I try to read an image from sdcard (in emulator) and then create a Bitmap image with the BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray method. I set the options: options.inPrefferedConfig = Bitmap.Config.ARGB_8888 options.inDither = false Then I extract the pixels into a ByteBuffer. ByteBuffer buffer = ByteBuffer.allocateDirect(width*height*4) bitmap.copyPixelsToBuffer(buffer) I use this ByteBuffer then in the JNI to convert it into RGB format and want to calculate on it. But always I get false data - I test without modifying the ByteBuffer. Only thing I do is to put it into the native method into JNI. Then cast it into a unsigned char* and convert it back into a ByteBuffer before returning it back to Java. unsigned char* buffer = (unsinged char*)(env->GetDirectBufferAddress(byteBuffer)) jobject returnByteBuffer = env->NewDirectByteBuffer(buffer, length) Before displaying the image I get data back with bitmap.copyPixelsFromBuffer( buffer ) But then it has wrong data in it. My Question is if this is because the image is internally converted into RGB 565 or what is wrong here? ..... Have an answer for it: - yes, it is converted internally to RGB565. Does anybody know how to create such an bitmap image from PNG with ARGB8888 pixel format? If anybody has an idea, it would be great!

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  • Ruby - calling constructor without arguments & removal of new line characters

    - by Raj
    I am a newbie at Ruby, I have written down a sample program. I dont understand the following: Why constructor without any arguments are not called in Ruby? How do we access the class variable outside the class' definition? Why does it always append newline characters at the end of the string? How do we strip it? Code: class Employee attr_reader :empid attr_writer :empid attr_writer :name def name return @name.upcase end attr_accessor :salary @@employeeCount = 0 def initiaze() @@employeeCount += 1 puts ("Initialize called!") end def getCount return @@employeeCount end end anEmp = Employee.new print ("Enter new employee name: ") anEmp.name = gets() print ("Enter #{anEmp.name}'s employee ID: ") anEmp.empid = gets() print ("Enter salary for #{anEmp.name}: ") anEmp.salary = gets() theEmpName = anEmp.name.split.join("\n") theEmpID = anEmp.empid.split.join("\n") theEmpSalary = anEmp.salary.split.join("\n") anEmp = Employee.new() anEmp = Employee.new() theCount = anEmp.getCount puts ("New employee #{theEmpName} with employee ID #{theEmpID} has been enrolled, welcome to hell! You have been paid as low as $ #{theEmpSalary}") puts ("Total number of employees created = #{theCount}") Output: Enter new employee name: Lionel Messi Enter LIONEL MESSI 's employee ID: 10 Enter salary for LIONEL MESSI : 10000000 New employee LIONEL MESSI with employee ID 10 has been enrolled, welcome to hell! You have been paid as low as $ 10000000 Total number of employees created = 0 Thanks

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  • Using JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA: Create Basic WebApp without using Generated CRUD Classes, Forms, etc

    - by user2774489
    I am trying to build a basic CRUD application with NetBeans 7.4, JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA using MySQL. I have successfully done this by using the NetBeans wizards. I want to do this from scratch, no wizards. There seems to be a lack of support for the combo of JSF, PrimeFaces and JPA. When I say "lack", I mean a full example (I might be asking too much), without using the CRUD auto-gen templates/classes AND shows actual queries coded and passed to the datatables(primefaces). YouTube is full of non-English speaking examples using Hibernate (not JPA) and other examples that show flashy GUI's with no code. So far I understand you need an @Entity class (provides the physical build of the tables), a Controller (serializable) and the .xhtml web page to show the datatable.. what else? Also, I'm not seeing any posts or examples where queries are using with JPA/JSF and how they are tied together (in one place). I need to connect the dots here so that I can leverage JSF/JPA to create simple queries to populate my PF DataTables. I've read the blogs and I've googled the intranets until I'm blue in the face. Sending me a list of URL's to read to learn about each product is something I've already done. I get what they do independently, but am looking for the "How do they all connect" answer with maybe some basic code examples!! :)

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  • Execute function without sending 'self' to it

    - by Sergey
    Is that possible to define a function without referencing to self this way? def myfunc(var_a,var_b) But so that it could also get sender data, like if I defined it like this: def myfunc(self, var_a,var_b) That self is always the same so it looks a little redundant here always to run a function this way: myfunc(self,'data_a','data_b'). Then I would like to get its data in the function like this sender.fields. UPDATE: Here is some code to understand better what I mean. The class below is used to show a page based on Jinja2 templates engine for users to sign up. class SignupHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self, *args, **kwargs): utils.render_template(self, 'signup.html') And this code below is a render_template that I created as wrapper to Jinja2 functions to use it more conveniently in my project: def render_template(response, template_name, vars=dict(), is_string=False): template_dirs = [os.path.join(root(), 'templates')] logging.info(template_dirs[0]) env = Environment(loader=FileSystemLoader(template_dirs)) try: template = env.get_template(template_name) except TemplateNotFound: raise TemplateNotFound(template_name) content = template.render(vars) if is_string: return content else: response.response.out.write(content) As I use this function render_template very often in my project and usually the same way, just with different template files, I wondered if there was a way to get rid of having to call it like I do it now, with self as the first argument but still having access to that object.

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  • Managing inverse relationships without CoreData

    - by Nathaniel Martin
    This is a question for Objective-J/Cappuccino, but I added the cocoa tag since the frameworks are so similar. One of the downsides of Cappuccino is that CoreData hasn't been ported over yet, so you have to make all your model objects manually. In CoreData, your inverse relationships get managed automatically for you... if you add an object to a to-many relationship in another object, you can traverse the graph in both directions. Without CoreData, is there any clean way to setup those inverse relationships automatically? For a more concrete example, let's take the typical Department and Employees example. To use rails terminology, a Department object has-many Employees, and an Employee belongs-to a Department. So our Department model has an NSMutableSet (or CPMutableSet ) "employees" that contains a set of Employees, and our Employee model has a variable "department" that points back to the Department model that owns it. Is there an easy way to make it so that, when I add a new Employee model into the set, the inverse relationship (employee.department) automatically gets set? Or the reverse: If I set the department model of an employee, then it automatically gets added to that department's employee set? Right know I'm making an object, "ValidatedModel" that all my models subclass, which adds a few methods that setup the inverse relationships, using KVO. But I'm afraid that I'm doing a lot of pointless work, and that there's already an easier way to do this. Can someone put my concerns to rest?

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  • import the data in xls file and open them without Microsoft Excel

    - by user3669577
    I need to perform an application that cath values from SQL database after the esecution of a query. I must import the data in xls file and open them without Microsoft Excel. I'm a beginner and have too many problem. Can anyone help me. This is my code, at the moment: Option Infer On Imports System.Linq Imports System.Data.SqlClient Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Drawing Imports System.Drawing.Printing Imports System.Windows.Forms Imports ExcelLibrary.SpreadSheet Public Class frmLottiCaricati Dim CnSql As SqlConnection Private Sub frmLottiCaricati_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Me.MdiParent = Inizio 'TB_MinusValenza.Text = VariazionePrezzi.MinusValenza 'TB_Periodo.Text = VariazionePrezzi.Periodo 'DG_Prodotti.AutoGenerateColumns = False Try Dim StringaSql = "Integrated Security=SSPI;Persist Security Info=False;Initial Catalog=" + Inizio.DatabaseSql + ";Data Source=" + Inizio.ServerSql + ";User ID=" + Inizio.UtenteSql + ";Password=" + Inizio.PwdSql CnSql = New SqlConnection(StringaSql) CnSql.Open() Dim command As SqlCommand Dim dadapter As New SqlDataAdapter Dim DS_Prodotti As New Data.DataSet Dim qry_Prodotti = "SELECT sistemaf.prodscadenze.Ministeriale, sistemaf.prodscadenze.Lotto, sistemaf.prodscadenze.Scadenza " & _ "FROM sistemaf.Prodscadenze " 'INNER JOIN sistemaf.Prodscadenze ON sistemaf.prodbase.Cod39 = sistemaf.prodscadenze.Ministeriale ;" command = New SqlCommand(qry_Prodotti, CnSql) dadapter.SelectCommand = command dadapter.Fill(DS_Prodotti) DG_Prodotti.DataSource = DS_Prodotti.Tables(0) 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Descrizione").Width = 220 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Ministeriale").Width = 60 DG_Prodotti.Columns("Lotto").Width = 60 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Descrizione").AutoSizeMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.AllCells 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Totale").DefaultCellStyle.Alignment = DataGridViewContentAlignment.MiddleRight Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) End Try End Sub End Class I can open the data only with Microsoft Excel now. Have any suggestions?

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  • Core Data confusion: fetch without tableview.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    I have completed and reproduced Core Data tutorials using a tableview to display contents. However, I want to access an Entity through a fetch on a view without a tableview. I used the following fetch code, but the count returned is always 0. The data exists when the database is opened using SQLite tools. NSManagedObject *entryObj; XYZDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Quote" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"id" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); entryObj = nil; }else { NSLog(@"results %d", [results count]); } [request release]; [sortDescriptors release]; count returned is always 0; it should be 5. Can anyone point me to a reference or tutorial regarding creating a controller not to be used with a tableview.

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  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Connecting to an RMI object without registry

    - by Mark Probst
    I think I need to connect to a remote RMI object without going through the registry, but I don't know how. My situation is this: I'm implementing a simple job distribution service which consists of one distributor and multiple workers. The distributor has a registered RMI object to which clients connect to send jobs, and workers connect to accept jobs. Unfortunately the distributor and worker hosts are behind a firewall. To get to the distributor host I am tunneling two ports (one for the registry, one for the distributor object) via SSH, so I can get to the registry and the distributor from outside the firewall. To make that work I have to set "-Djava.rmi.server.hostname=localhost" on the distributor JVM so that the clients connect to their local, tunneled port, instead of the port on the actual distributor host, which is blocked. This creates a problem for the workers, though, because they need to connect to the distributor directly, but because of the "localhost" redirection they behave like clients and try to connect to a port on their own host, which is not available, because I'm not tunneling on the workers (it is impractical). Now, if I could connect to a remote object directly by giving the hostname and port, I could do away both with the registry on the distributor and the "localhost" hack, and make the workers connect properly. How do I do that? Or is there a different solution to this problem?

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  • jQuery pagination without all the rows of data before hand

    - by Aaron Mc Adam
    Hi guys, I'm trying to find a solution for paginating my search results. I have a built the links and everything works without jQuery. I've also got AJAX working for the links, but I just need a way of tidying up the list of links, as some search results return up to 60 pages and the links spread to two rows in my template. I am searching the Amazon API, and can only return 10 results at a time. Upon clicking the pagination links, the next 10 results are returned. I have access to the total results number from the XML, but not all the data at once, so I can't put all the data into a "hiddenResults" div that the jQuery Pagination plugin needs. Here is the jQuery I have for the pagination: var $pagination = $("#pagination ul"); $pagination.delegate('.pagenumbers', 'click', function() { var $$this = $(this); $$this.closest('li').addClass('cached'); $pagination.find("#currentPage").removeAttr('id').wrapInner($('<a>', {'class':'pagenumbers', 'href':'book_data.php?keywords='+keywords})); $$this.closest('li').attr('id','currentPage').html( $$this.text() ); $.ajax({ type : "GET", cache : false, url : "book_data.php", data : { keywords : keywords, page : $$this.text() }, success : show_results }); return false; }); function show_results(res) { $("#searchResults").replaceWith($(res).find('#searchResults')).find('table.sortable tbody tr:odd').addClass('odd'); detailPage(); selectForm(); if ( ! ( $pagination.find('li').hasClass('cached') ) ) { $.get("book_data.php", { keywords : keywords, page : ( $pagination.find("#currentPage").text() + 1 ) } ); } }

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  • Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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  • Delphi fast large bitmap creation (without clearing)

    - by Ritsaert Hornstra
    When using the TBitmap wrapper for a GDI bitmap from the unit Graphics I noticed it will always clear out the bitmap (using a PatBlt call) when setting up a bitmap with SetSize( w, h ). When I copy in the bits later on (see routine below) it seems ScanLine is the fastest possibility and not SetDIBits. function ToBitmap: TBitmap; var i, N, x: Integer; S, D: PAnsiChar; begin Result := TBitmap.Create(); Result.PixelFormat := pf32bit; Result.SetSize( width, height ); S := Src; D := Result.ScanLine[ 0 ]; x := Integer( Result.ScanLine[ 1 ] ) - Integer( D ); N := width * sizeof( longword ); for i := 0 to height - 1 do begin Move( S^, D^, N ); Inc( S, N ); Inc( D, x ); end; end; The bitmaps I need to work with are quite large (150MB of RGB memory). With these iomages it takes 150ms to simply create an empty bitmap and a further 140ms to overwrite it's contents. Is there a way of initializing a TBitmap with the correct size WITHOUT initializing the pixels itself and leaving the memory of the pixels uninitialized (eg dirty)? Or is there another way to do such a thing. I know we could work on the pixels in place but this still leaves the 150ms of unnessesary initializtion of the pixels.

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