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  • Why LINQ to Entities won't let me initialize just some properties of an Entity?

    - by emzero
    So I've started to add Entity Framework 4 into a legacy web application (ASP.NET WebForms). As a start I have auto-generated some entities from the database. Also I want to apply Repository Pattern. There is an entity called Visitor and its repository VisitorRepository In VisitorRepository I have the following method: public IEnumerable<Visitor> GetActiveVisitors() { var visitors = from v in _context.Visitors where v.IsActive select new Visitor { VisitorID = v.VisitorID, EmailAddress = v.EmailAddress, RegisterDate = v.RegisterDate, Company = v.Company, Position = v.Position, FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName }; return visitors.ToList(); } That List is then bound to a repeater and when trying to do <%# Eval('EmailAddress') #%> it throws the following exception. The entity or complex type 'Model.Visitor' cannot be constructed in a LINQ to Entities query. A) Why is this happening? How I can workaround this? Do I need to select an anonymous type and then use that to initialize my entities??? B) Why every example I've seen makes use of 'select new' (anonymous object) instead of initializing a known type? Anonymous types are useless unless you are retrieving the data and showing it in the same layer. As far as I know anonymous types cannot be returned from methods? So what's the real point of them??? Thank you all

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  • Pass data to Child Window in Silverlight 4 using MVVM

    - by Archie
    Hello, I have a datagrid with master detail implementation as follows: <data:DataGrid x:Name="dgData" Width="600" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ItemCollection}" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Hidden" CanUserSortColumns="False" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgData_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Item" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Item,Mode=TwoWay}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Company" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Company,Mode=TwoWay}"/> </data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <data:DataGrid x:Name="dgrdRowDetail" Width="400" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Hidden" Grid.Row="1"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Date" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Date,Mode=TwoWay}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Price" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Price, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button Content="Show More Details" Click="buttonShowDetail_Click"></Button> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </data:DataGrid> I want to open a Child window in clicking the button which shows more details about the product. I'm using MVVM pattern. My Model contains a method which takes the Item name as input and retursn the Details data. My problem is how should I pass the Item to ViewModel which will get the Details data from Model? and where shoukd I open the new Child Window? In View or ViewModel? Please help.Thanks.

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  • Datapager in silverlight 4 -Nested datagrid visibility issue

    - by Archie
    I have a datagrid in silverlight with child datagrid nested in it. Also I have a DataPager on the outer datagrid. The code looks like this: <data:DataGrid x:Name="dgData" Width="600" ItemsSource="{Binding}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" IsReadOnly="True" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Hidden" CanUserSortColumns="False" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgData_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" Margin="20,0" Grid.RowSpan="2"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Item" Width="*" Binding="{Binding ItemName,Mode=TwoWay}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Company" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Company,Mode=TwoWay}"/> </data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <data:DataGrid x:Name="dgRowDetail" Width="400" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Hidden" AutoGenerateColumns="False" Visibility="Collapsed"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Date" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Date,Mode=TwoWay}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Price" Width="*" Binding="{Binding Price,Mode=TwoWay}"/> </data:DataGrid.Columns> </data:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </data:DataGrid> <data:DataPager x:Name="dpData" HorizontalAlignment="Center" DisplayMode="FirstLastPreviousNextNumeric" Source="{Binding}"/> I have one PagedCollectionView pgv which is bound to outer datagrid as: DataContext = pgv; When the row is clicked I set the child datagrid's ItemsSource property to another PagedCollectionView. My problem is it works fine except for the first row for the first time. When I click on it, it doesn't fire the dgData_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged event. Also, when I click on second row, firstly first row fires the event and then the second row fires it and shows the nested grid. Please help.

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  • git pull gives error: 401 Authorization Required while accessing https://git.foo.com/bar.git

    - by spuder
    My macbook pro is able to clone/push/pull from the company git server. My cent 6.3 vm gets a 401 error git clone https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup "error: The requested URL returned error: 401 Authorization Required while accessing https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup/info/refs As a work around, I've tried creating a folder, with an empty repository, then setting the remote to the company server. I get the same error when trying a git pull The remotes are identical between the machines MacBook Pro (working) git --version git version 1.7.10.2 (Apple Git-33) git remote -v origin https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup (fetch) origin https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup (push) Cent 6.3 (not working) yum install -y git git --version git version 1.7.1 git remote -v origin https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup (fetch) origin https://git.acme.com/git/torque-setup (push) The git server only allows https. Not git or ssh connections. Why is the macbook pro able to do a git pull, while the cent os machine can't? Solution Update 2013-5-15 As jku mentioned, the culprit is the old version of git installed on the cent box. Unfortunately, 1.7.1 is what you get when you run yum install git The work around is to manually install a newer version of git, or simply add the username to the repo git clone https://[email protected]/git/torque-setup

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  • StyleCop XML Documentation Header - Using 3 /// instead of 2 //

    - by Adam Jenkin
    I am using XML documentation headers on my c# files to pass the StyleCop rule SA1633. Currently, I have to use the 2 slash commenting rule to allow StyleCop to recognize the header. for example: // <copyright file="abc.ascx.cs" company="MyCompany.com"> // MyCompany.com. All rights reserved. // </copyright> // <author>Me</author> This works fine for StyleCop, however I would like to use the 3 slash commenting rule to enable visual studio to understand the comments as XML and provide the XML functionality (highlighting, auto indenting etc) /// <copyright file="abc.ascx.cs" company="MyCompany.com"> /// MyCompany.com. All rights reserved. /// </copyright> /// <author>Me</author> The problem is that when using 3 slashes, StyleCop no longer see's the header and throws the SA1633 warning. Is there anyway to configure stylecop to understand the header is contained in XML using 3 slashes? Thanks, Adam

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  • Kanban vs. Scrum

    - by Andrew Siemer
    Can someone with Kanban experience tell me how Kanban and Scrum differ? What are the pro's and con's of each of the different project management methodologies? Kanban seems to be getting a lot of press these days. I don't want to miss the hottest new way of tracking my teams failures (...and successes). Responses @S. Lott - What part of this article wasn't clear enough? infoq.com/articles/hiranabe-lean-agile-kanban/…. Do you have a more specific question? That is a great article but technically no it is not clear enough. That article gives a great amount of detail about kanban (and thank you for it...good read) but it does not specifically contrast Kanban vs. Scrum. That article will help someone like me make a decision but it most certainly won't help someone like my boss or in general someone less experienced! I was hoping for a quick overview of kanban pros and cons contrasted to scrum pros and cons. Thanks though! @S. Lott - Why do you say kanban vs. scrum? What leads you to conclude they are conflicting approaches? Can you make your question more specific? I don't think that they are necessarily conflicting. But they are different enough for a user to adhere to one over the other. Perhaps one fits a project or company better than the other? How would I sell one over the other when presenting a project management approach. Say I went to a company that was currently stuck in the rutt that is "water fall" - why would I sell one approach over the other?

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  • Set focus on textbox in WPF from view model (C#) & wPF

    - by priyanka.sarkar
    I have a TextBox and a Button in my view. Now I am checking a condition upon button click and if the condition turns out to be false, displaying the message to the user, and then I have to set the cursor to the text box control. if (companyref == null) { Lipper.Nelson.AdminClient.Main.Views.ContactPanels.CompanyAssociation cs = new Lipper.Nelson.AdminClient.Main.Views.ContactPanels.CompanyAssociation(); MessageBox.Show("Company does not exist.", "Error", MessageBoxButton.OK, MessageBoxImage.Exclamation); cs.txtCompanyID.Focusable = true; System.Windows.Input.Keyboard.Focus(cs.txtCompanyID); } The above code is in the view model. The CompanyAssociation is the view name. But the cursor is not getting set in the TextBox. The xaml is as under <igEditors:XamTextEditor KeyDown="xamTextEditorAllowOnlyNumeric_KeyDown" Name="txtCompanyID" ValueChanged="txtCompanyID_ValueChanged" Text="{Binding Company.CompanyId, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Width="{Binding ActualWidth, ElementName=border}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="0,5,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEditable}" /> <Button Template="{StaticResource buttonTemp1}" Command="{Binding ContactCommand}" CommandParameter="searchCompany" Content="Search" Width="80" Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Margin="0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEditable}" /> Please help

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  • Difference between DataTable.Load() and DataTable = dataSet.Tables[];

    - by subbu
    Hi All , I have a doubt i use the following piece of code get data from a SQLlite data base and Load it into a data table "SQLiteConnection cnn = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + path); cnn.Open(); SQLiteCommand mycommand = new SQLiteCommand(cnn); string sql = "select Company,Phone,Email,Address,City,State,Zip,Country,Fax,Web from RecordsTable"; mycommand.CommandText = sql; SQLiteDataReader reader = mycommand.ExecuteReader(); dt.Load(reader); reader.Close(); cnn.Close();" In some cases when I try to load it Gives me "Failed to enable constraints exception" But when I tried this below given piece of code for same table and same set of records it worked "SQLiteConnection ObjConnection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + path); SQLiteCommand ObjCommand = new SQLiteCommand("select Company,Phone,Email,Address,City,State,Zip,Country,Fax,Web from RecordsTable", ObjConnection); ObjCommand.CommandType = CommandType.Text; SQLiteDataAdapter ObjDataAdapter = new SQLiteDataAdapter(ObjCommand); DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); ObjDataAdapter.Fill(dataSet, "RecordsTable"); dt = dataSet.Tables["RecordsTable"]; " Can any one tell me what is the difference between two

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  • HTTPWebResponse returning no content

    - by Richard Yale
    Our company works with another company called iMatrix and they have an API for creating our own forms. They have confirmed that our request is hitting their servers but a response is supposed to come back in 1 of a few ways determined by a parameter. I'm getting a 200 OK response back but no content and a content-length of 0 in the response header. here is the url: https://secure4.office2office.com/designcenter/api/imx_api_call.asp I'm using this class: namespace WebSumit { public enum MethodType { POST = 0, GET = 1 } public class WebSumitter { public WebSumitter() { } public string Submit(string URL, Dictionary<string, string> Parameters, MethodType Method) { StringBuilder _Content = new StringBuilder(); string _ParametersString = ""; // Prepare Parameters String foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> _Parameter in Parameters) { _ParametersString = _ParametersString + (_ParametersString != "" ? "&" : "") + string.Format("{0}={1}", _Parameter.Key, _Parameter.Value); } // Initialize Web Request HttpWebRequest _Request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(URL); // Request Method _Request.Method = Method == MethodType.POST ? "POST" : (Method == MethodType.GET ? "GET" : ""); _Request.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; // Send Request using (StreamWriter _Writer = new StreamWriter(_Request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Writer.Write(_ParametersString); } // Initialize Web Response HttpWebResponse _Response = (HttpWebResponse)_Request.GetResponse(); // Get Response using (StreamReader _Reader = new StreamReader(_Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Content.Append(_Reader.ReadToEnd()); } return _Content.ToString(); } } } I cannot post the actual parameters because they are to the live system, but can you look at this code and see if there is anything that is missing? Thanks!

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  • Web-based clients vs thick/rich clients?

    - by rudolfv
    My company is a software solutions provider to a major telecommunications company. The environment is currently IBM WebSphere-based with front-end IBM Portal servers talking to a cluster of back-end WebSphere Application Servers providing EJB services. Some of the portlets use our own home-grown MVC-pattern and some are written in JSF. Recently we did a proof-of-concept rich/thick-client application that communicates directly with the EJB's on the back-end servers. It was written in NetBeans Platform and uses the WebSphere application client library to establish communication with the EJB's. The really painful bit was getting the client to use secure JAAS/SSL communications. But, after that was resolved, we've found that the rich client has a number of advantages over the web-based portal client applications we've become accustomed to: Enormous performance advantage (CORBA vs. HTTP, cut out the Portal Server middle man) Development is simplified and faster due to use of NetBeans' visual designer and Swing's generally robust architecture The debug cycle is shortened by not having to deploy your client application to a test server No mishmash of technologies as with web-based development (Struts, JSF, JQuery, HTML, JSTL etc., etc.) After enduring the pain of web-based development (even JSF) for a while now, I've come to the following conclusion: Rich clients aren't right for every situation, but when you're developing an in-house intranet-based solution, then you'd be crazy not to consider NetBeans Platform or Eclipse RCP. Any comments/experiences with rich clients vs. web clients?

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  • How to prove writing specifications beats code cowboys?

    - by Andrew Grant
    So I have a problem. Or rather my friend has a problem, since I would never write about my company on an internet forum. At my friend's company specification writing is, shall we say, a little underused. There's a deeply ingrained culture of writing code first and asking questions later, whether it's for a library routine or a new tool to inflict on their long suffering designers. This of course leads to situations where functionality is partially correct, incorrect, or just completely missing ("oh, just save before trying anything you may want to undo"). This usually results in a loss of productivity for those poor designers, or beta periods where bug-fixing is largely spent implementing things correctly. My friend's found his suggestions of writing (and testing against) specifications to be generally well received. Most of his colleagues have embraced the wonderful feeling of discovering false-assumptions on paper, instead of at 11pm on a Sunday in the middle of beta. Viva La Revolution! However there are a few who poo-poo anything that stands between their task and a keyboard. They laugh at the thought of actually designing anything, and write code with merry abandon. Mostly these are senior, long employed developers, reluctant to "waste time". The problem is that this second group of heretics invariably produce things (or at least something) quicker than the first. Subsequently this becomes justification along the lines of "It's pointless to write specifications for something as simple as an image resizer! Oh and those bugs where width!=height or the image uses RLE just need a few tweaks". And now the question :) Other than saying "told you so" at the end of a project, what are some good short-term ways to demonstrate how the practice of writing functional or technical specifications leads to better software in the long run? Cheers!

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  • entity framework POCO template in a n-tiers design question

    - by bryan
    HI all I was trying to follow the POCO Template walkthrough . And now I am having problems using it in n-tiers design. By following the article, I put my edmx model, and the template generated context.tt in my DAL project, and moved the generated model.tt entity classes to my Business Logic layer (BLL) project. By doing this, I could use those entities inside my BLL without referencing the DAL, I guess that is the idea of PI; without knowing anything about the data source. Now, I want to extend the entities (inside the model.tt) to perform some CUD action in the BLL project,so I added a new partial class same name as the one generated from template, public partial class Company { public static IEnumerable AllCompanies() { using(var context = new Entities()){ var q = from p in context.Companies select p; return q.ToList(); } } } however visual studio won't let me do that, and I think it was because the context.tt is in the DAL project, and the BLL project could not add a reference to the DAL project as DAL has already reference to the BLL. So I tried to added this class to the DAL and it compiled, but intelisense won't show up the BLL.Company.AllCompanies() in my web service method from my webservice project which has reference to my BLL project. What should I do now? I want to add CUD methods to the template generated entities in my BLL project, and call them in my web services from another project. I have been looking for this answer a few days already, and I really need some guides from here please. Bryan

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  • Returning UTF-8 from a web service

    - by Marco Shaw
    Previous: Returning info from a Web Service I thought the previous answer made 100% sense, and I though I was out of the woods, but it still fails. An app I'm working with still seems to think what is being returned from the web service is ASCII encoded. Debugging it shows: <Envelope><Body><ReturnOneResponse><ReturnOneResult>&lt;xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"&gt;&lt;Entry&gt;&lt;Symbol&gt;PACR&lt;/Symbol&gt;&lt;Company&gt;Pacer International, Inc.&lt;/Company&gt;&lt;MarketCap&gt;$229.0M&lt;/MarketCap&gt;&lt;PE&gt;18.7&lt;/PE&gt;&lt;Price&gt;6.56&lt;/Price&gt;&lt;Change&gt;0.42&lt;/Change&gt;&lt;PctChange&gt;6.84%&lt;/PctChange&gt;&lt;YTDChange&gt;107.59%&lt;/YTDChange&gt;&lt;/Entry&gt;</ReturnOneResult></ReturnOneResponse></Body></Envelope> So everything being returned from the web service seems to be changed into ASCII, and seems to refuse to read as UTF-8. Since my previous code in the above link, I also changed my string invocation: string value = @""; Still, that didn't help. Any other ideas?

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  • Why is my code signing (MS authenticode) verification failing?

    - by Tim
    I posted this question and have a freshly minted code signing cert from Thawte. I followed the instructions (or so I thought) and the code signing claims to be done right, however when I try to verify the tool shows an error. I have no idea what it means and no idea how to fix this. Any comments would be appreciated. Command line to sign exe: signtool sign /f mdt.pfx /p password /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timstamp.dll test.exe Results: The following certificate was selected: Issued to: [my company] Issued by: Thawte Code Signing CA Expires: 4/23/2011 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 7D1A42364765F8969E83BC00AB77F901118F3601 Done Adding Additional Store Attempting to sign: test.exe Successfully signed and timestamped: test.exe Number of files successfully Signed: 1 Number of warnings: 0 Number of errors: 0 Note that there are no errors or warnings. Now, when I try to verify imagine my surprise: signtool verify /v test.exe results in: Verifying: test.exe SHA1 hash of file: 490BA0656517D3A322D19F432F1C6D40695CAD22 Signing Certificate Chain: Issued to: Thawte Premium Server CA Issued by: Thawte Premium Server CA Expires: 12/31/2020 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 627F8D7827656399D27D7F9044C9FEB3F33EFA9A Issued to: Thawte Code Signing CA Issued by: Thawte Premium Server CA Expires: 8/5/2013 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: A706BA1ECAB6A2AB18699FC0D7DD8C7DE36F290F Issued to: [my company] Issued by: Thawte Code Signing CA Expires: 4/23/2011 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 7D1A42364765F8969E83BC00AB77F901118F3601 The signature is timestamped: 4/27/2010 10:19:19 AM Timestamp Verified by: Issued to: Thawte Timestamping CA Issued by: Thawte Timestamping CA Expires: 12/31/2020 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: BE36A4562FB2EE05DBB3D32323ADF445084ED656 Issued to: VeriSign Time Stamping Services CA Issued by: Thawte Timestamping CA Expires: 12/3/2013 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: F46AC0C6EFBB8C6A14F55F09E2D37DF4C0DE012D Issued to: VeriSign Time Stamping Services Signer - G2 Issued by: VeriSign Time Stamping Services CA Expires: 6/14/2012 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: ADA8AAA643FF7DC38DD40FA4C97AD559FF4846DE Number of files successfully Verified: 0 Number of warnings: 0 Number of errors: 1

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  • Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

    - by Bob Ralian
    I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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  • DATE lookup table (1990/01/01:2041/12/31)

    - by Frank Developer
    I use a DATE's master table for looking up dates and other values in order to control several events, intervals and calculations within my app. It has rows for every single day begining from 01/01/1990 to 12/31/2041. One example of how I use this lookup table is: A customer pawned an item on: JAN-31-2010 Customer returns on MAY-03-2010 to make an interest pymt to avoid forfeiting the item. If he pays 1 months interest, the employee enters a "1" and the app looks-up the pawn date (JAN-31-2010) in date master table and puts FEB-28-2010 in the applicable interest pymt date. FEB-28 is returned because FEB-31's dont exist! If 2010 were a leap-year, it would've returned FEB-29. If customer pays 2 months, MAR-31-2010 is returned. 3 months, APR-30... If customer pays more than 3 months or another period not covered by the date lookup table, employee manually enters the applicable date. Here's what the date lookup table looks like: { Copyright 1990:2010, Frank Computer, Inc. } { DBDATE=YMD4- (correctly sorted for faster lookup) } CREATE TABLE datemast ( dm_lookup DATE, {lookup col used for obtaining values below} dm_workday CHAR(2), {NULL=Normal Working Date,} {NW=National Holiday(Working Date),} {NN=National Holiday(Non-Working Date),} {NH=National Holiday(Half-Day Working Date),} {CN=Company Proclamated(Non-Working Date),} {CH=Company Proclamated(Half-Day Working Date)} {several other columns omitted} dm_description CHAR(30), {NULL, holiday description or any comments} dm_day_num SMALLINT, {number of elapsed days since begining of year} dm_days_left SMALLINT, (number of remaining days until end of year} dm_plus1_mth DATE, {plus 1 month from lookup date} dm_plus2_mth DATE, {plus 2 months from lookup date} dm_plus3_mth DATE, {plus 3 months from lookup date} dm_fy_begins DATE, {fiscal year begins on for lookup date} dm_fy_ends DATE, {fiscal year ends on for lookup date} dm_qtr_begins DATE, {quarter begins on for lookup date} dm_qtr_ends DATE, {quarter ends on for lookup date} dm_mth_begins DATE, {month begins on for lookup date} dm_mth_ends DATE, {month ends on for lookup date} dm_wk_begins DATE, {week begins on for lookup date} dm_wk_ends DATE, {week ends on for lookup date} {several other columns omitted} ) IN "S:\PAWNSHOP.DBS\DATEMAST"; Is there a better way of doing this or is it a cool method?

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  • N-Tier Architecture - Structure with multiple projects in VB.NET

    - by focus.nz
    I would like some advice on the best approach to use in the following situation... I will have a Windows Application and a Web Application (presentation layers), these will both access a common business layer. The business layer will look at a configuration file to find the name of the dll (data layer) which it will create a reference to at runtime (is this the best approach?). The reason for creating the reference at runtime to the data access layer is because the application will interface with a different 3rd party accounting system depending on what the client is using. So I would have a separate data access layer to support each accounting system. These could be separate setup projects, each client would use one or the other, they wouldn't need to switch between the two. Projects: MyCompany.Common.dll - Contains interfaces, all other projects have a reference to this one. MyCompany.Windows.dll - Windows Forms Project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Web.dll - Website project, references MyCompany.Business.dll MyCompany.Busniess.dll - Business Layer, references MyCompany.Data.* (at runtime) MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll - Data layer for accounting system 1 MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll - Data layer for accounting system 2 The project MyCompany.Common.dll would contain all the interfaces, each other project would have a reference to this one. Public Interface ICompany ReadOnly Property Id() as Integer Property Name() as String Sub Save() End Interface Public Interface ICompanyFactory Function CreateCompany() as ICompany End Interface The project MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys1.dll and MyCompany.Data.AccountingSys2.dll would contain the classes like the following: Public Class Company Implements ICompany Protected _id As Integer Protected _name As String Public ReadOnly Property Id As Integer Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Id Get Return _id End Get End Property Public Property Name As String Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Name Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value as String) _name = value End Set End Property Public Sub Save() Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompany.Save Throw New NotImplementedException() End Sub End Class Public Class CompanyFactory Implements ICompanyFactory Public Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Implements MyCompany.Common.ICompanyFactory.CreateCompany Return New Company() End Function End Class The project MyCompany.Business.dll would provide the business rules and retrieve data form the data layer: Public Class Companies Public Shared Function CreateCompany() As ICompany Dim factory as New MyCompany.Data.CompanyFactory Return factory.CreateCompany() End Function End Class Any opinions/suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • ASP XML as Datasource error

    - by nekko
    Hello I am trying to use an XML as a datasource in ASP and then display it as a datagrid. The XML has the following format: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <people type="array"> <person> <id type="integer"></id> <first_name></first_name> <last_name></last_name> <title></title> <company></company> <tags> </tags> <locations> <location primary="false" label="work"> <email></email> <website></website> <phone></phone> <cell></cell> <fax></fax> <street_1/> <street_2/> <city/> <state/> <postal_code/> <country/> </location> </locations> <notes></notes> <created_at></created_at> <updated_at></updated_at> </person> </people> When I try to run the simple page I receive the following error Server Error in '/' Application. The data source for GridView with id 'GridView1' did not have any properties or attributes from which to generate columns. Ensure that your data source has content. Please help. Thanks in advance.

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  • xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

    - by NealWalters
    I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

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  • active_admin/formtastic ignoring polymorphic associations

    - by James Maskell
    I'm currently having trouble with the form for a polymorphic association in active_admin in Ruby on Rails. I have three models set up: offices, companies and users. Both companies and users can own an office. My models are set up as follows: class Office < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :offices, :as => :ownable end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :offices, :as => :ownable end active_admin doesn't allow me to edit the owner on its forms, but does show it correctly on the index and show pages (including links to the company or user). I've tried playing with formtastic to manually create the form but have not had any luck - the "ownable" fields just get ignored and everything else renders properly. To be clear: I want to be able to edit the owner of the Office model on the new and edit fields in active_admin. Can anyone offer any help? :)

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  • General Drools Question

    - by El Guapo
    For the last few months my company has been using a product from a company called Informatica (previously AgentLogic) called RulePoint. This product has proven itself very easy to use with a well-developed and easy-to-use SDK for customization. The way we use the product for CEP is fairly trivial, we have 2 sources which we monitor for our rule data, the first being a JMS Queue, the second being a Jabber IM account. The product runs on any java-based application server (WebLogic, Tomcat, etc) and runs just about flawlessly. Last week my boss says, "Hey, I've heard that we may be able to do the same thing we are doing with RulePoint with an open-source product called Drools. Check it out and let me know what you think." I've heard of people using Drools for flow-based operations (validation, etc), however, I've never heard of anyone using their CEP product (Fusion) in practice. So, being the diligent worker, I have undertaken this task. I've downloaded all the files (version 5.0) and accompanying documentation and have started to read. I've read through just about all the docs and run most of the examples, but I still don't really see HOW drools works for CEP. While there are examples for using Data (or Facts, I guess) from JMS, I don't see how this thing stays "running", continuously monitoring a queue until the application is actually stopped. RulePoint pretty must just sits and listens, however, Drools seems to not. I could probably write a full-blown command-line application for our needs, however, I was hoping to leverage some of the benefits of using a application server provides. I guess I'm looking for some good tutorials or an example of how someone is using Drools and CEP in production. Thanks in advanced for any information, advice you may be able to provide.

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  • Using graphical ActiveX (COM) controls in WinForms project

    - by alex
    I have a collection (set) of ActiveX controls. I recieved them from our vendor company. I created a wrappers for them using tlbimp.exe and aximp.exe. All non-graphical controls work good. All graphical controls don't react on some methods. When I call their methods I get: TargetInvocativeException (InnerException is null). or Attempt to read/write protected memory. Our vendor company assure that their graphical activex controls work good. But they don't provide support service, so I have to find solution of my problem alone. And some more, All graphical activex controls don't react on mouseclick or any other mouse manipulations. But documentation says: it must change the color on mouse click. Maybe, someone have same symptoms and can help me ! I googled over that problem many pages but they don't help me. Maybe it's some Visual Studio settings or compiler options ? I use VS 2005.

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  • Can't change pivot table's Access data source - bug in Excel 2000 SP3?

    - by Ron West
    I have a set of Excel 2000 SP3 worksheets that have Pivot Tables that get data from an Access 2000 SP3 database created by a contractor who left our company. Unfortunately, he did all his work on his private area on the company (Novell) network and now that he has left us, the drive spec has been deleted and is invalid. We were able to get the database files restored to our network area by our IT Service Desk people, but we now have to re-link everything to point to our group area instead of the now-nonexistent private area. If I follow the advice given elsewhere on this site (open wizard, click 'Back' to get to 'Step 2 of 3', click 'Get Data...' I get a message that the old filespec is an invalid path and I need to check that the path name is invalid and that I am connected to the server on which the file resides. I then click on OK and get a Login dialog with a 'Database...' button on the right. I click this and get a 'Select Database' dialog which allows me to choose the appropriate database in its correct new location. I then click OK, which takes me back to the 'Login' screen. I can confirm that it has accepted my new location by clicking on 'Database...' as before and the NEW location is still shown. So far so good - but if I then click on OK I get two unhelpful messages - first I get one saying that Excel 'Could not use '|'; file already in use.' - although no other files are in use. Clicking on OK takes me back to the 'Login' dialog. Clicking OK again gives me the same message as before telling me that the OLD filespec is invalid (as if I hadn't changed anything) - but clicking on the 'Database...' button shows that the correct (NEW) database location is still selected. Can anyone tell me a way of using VBA to change the link information without having to spend hours fighting the PivotTable Wizard - preferably similar to this way you update an Access Tabledef:- db.TableDefs(strLinkName).Connect = strNewLink db.TableDefs(strLinkName).RefreshLink Thanks!

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  • One object in jTemplate?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm using jTemplate for the first time. I been reading and it's not that hard to use it BUT what I can not figure out and find any thing on is how to work with one object, all the examples I find are a list of objects. My situation is I need to work with one object only. How can I do that? I mean How to work with the data in the jTemplate like this example but one only. <script type="text/html" id="TemplateResultsTable"> {#template MAIN} <table cellpadding="10" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <th>Artist</th> <th>Company</th> <th>Title</th> <th>Price</th> </tr> {#foreach $T.d as CD} {#include ROW root=$T.CD} {#/for} </table> {#/template MAIN} {#template ROW} <tr class="{#cycle values=['','evenRow']}"> <td>{$T.Artist}</td> <td>{$T.Company}</td> <td>{$T.Title}</td> <td>{$T.Price}</td> </tr> {#/template ROW} </script>

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  • EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

    - by justastefan
    Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

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