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• MySQL FULLTEXT not working

  - by Ross

  I'm attempting to add searching support for my PHP web app using MySQL's FULLTEXT indexes. I created a test table (using the MyISAM type, with a single text field a) and entered some sample data. Now if I'm right the following query should return both those rows: SELECT * FROM test WHERE MATCH(a) AGAINST('databases') However it returns none. I've done a bit of research and I'm doing everything right as far as I can tell - the table is a MyISAM table, the FULLTEXT indexes are set. I've tried running the query from the prompt and from phpMyAdmin, with no luck. Am I missing something crucial? UPDATE: Ok, while Cody's solution worked in my test case it doesn't seem to work on my actual table: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `uploads` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` text NOT NULL, `size` int(11) NOT NULL, `type` text NOT NULL, `alias` text NOT NULL, `md5sum` text NOT NULL, `uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=6 ; And the data I'm using: INSERT INTO `uploads` (`id`, `name`, `size`, `type`, `alias`, `md5sum`, `uploaded`) VALUES (1, '04 Sickman.mp3', 5261182, 'audio/mp3', '1', 'df2eb6a360fbfa8e0c9893aadc2289de', '2009-07-14 16:08:02'), (2, '07 Dirt.mp3', 5056435, 'audio/mp3', '2', 'edcb873a75c94b5d0368681e4bd9ca41', '2009-07-14 16:08:08'), (3, 'header_bg2.png', 16765, 'image/png', '3', '5bc5cb5c45c7fa329dc881a8476a2af6', '2009-07-14 16:08:30'), (4, 'page_top_right2.png', 5299, 'image/png', '4', '53ea39f826b7c7aeba11060c0d8f4e81', '2009-07-14 16:08:37'), (5, 'todo.txt', 392, 'text/plain', '5', '7ee46db77d1b98b145c9a95444d8dc67', '2009-07-14 16:08:46'); The query I'm now running is: SELECT * FROM `uploads` WHERE MATCH(name) AGAINST ('header' IN BOOLEAN MODE) Which should return row 3, header_bg2.png. Instead I get another empty result set. My options for boolean searching are below: mysql> show variables like 'ft_%'; +--------------------------+----------------+ | Variable_name | Value | +--------------------------+----------------+ | ft_boolean_syntax | + -><()~*:""&| | | ft_max_word_len | 84 | | ft_min_word_len | 4 | | ft_query_expansion_limit | 20 | | ft_stopword_file | (built-in) | +--------------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.02 sec) "header" is within the word length restrictions and I doubt it's a stop word (I'm not sure how to get the list). Any ideas?

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• PHP manipulating multidimensional array values

  - by Joker

  I have a result set as an array from a database that looks like: array ( 0 => array ( "a" => "something" "b" => "something" "c" => "something" ) 1 => array ( "a" => "something" "b" => "something" "c" => "something" ) 2 => array ( "a" => "something" "b" => "something" "c" => "something" ) ) How would I apply a function to replace the values of an array only on the array key with b? Normally I would just rebuild a new array with a foreach loop and apply the function if the array key is b, but I'm not sure if it's the best way. I've tried taking a look at many array functions and it seemed like array_walk_recursive is something I might use, but I didn't have luck in getting it to do what I want. If I'm not describing it well enough, basically I want to be able to do as the code below does: $arr = array(); foreach ($result as $key => $value) { foreach ($value as $key2 => $value2) { $arr[$key][$key2] = ($key2 == 'b' ? $this->_my_method($value2) : $value2); } } Should I stick with that, or is there a better way?

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• Sending an email with browser capabilities and screen size etc.

  - by talkingnews

  A lot of my visitors are blind (with it being a site for the blind), and often when trying to diagnose problems, I'd like to know what version of browser etc they're using, whether flash is installed. Because more often than not, someone will swear they are using X, when in fact Y is installed. Currently, I'm using http://jsbrwsniff.sourceforge.net/usage.html piped into an email, but I've got 2 problems here: First of all, jsbrwsniff is quite "heavy" and hasn't been updated since early 2007, so there's a lot of -1's in the result. Secondly, if I call it as follows, the page reloads: <a href="#" onclick="sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> And if I call it like this, the page goes blank and looks like it's trying to infinitely load a blank page: <a href="javascript:sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> See the nightmare for yourself here: http://kingston.talking-newspapers.co.uk/ Now, I know there are 1001 articles and comments here and elsewhere saying "don't use browser sniffers, they can be spoofed (etc)", but honestly, you'll have to trust me that this is a significantly useful tool when you're talking someone in their more "senior years" and using a screenreader through "help about", when they've clicked the wrong window to start with! I'm using jquery anyway in the site, and I'm aware of $jQuery.browser and $jQuery.support, but these don't tell me the elements I need (like whether Flash is installed, and what version etc). I've looked everywhere for a jquery plugin for my needs, with no luck. Finally, if I have to stick to the current method of jsbrwsniff then it's not the end of the world, but if anyone knows a way of launching the user's email client populated with the information I need but WITHOUT refreshing or blanking the page, I'd love to know. BTW - there's a good reason for not using a webform, which is simply because it's easier for the screen-reader user to use an email client they are used to. Thanks!

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• Android WebView viewport

  - by alex2k8

  With html below I expected that the green rectangle would occupy only half of the screen, but on practice it occupies the whole screen width. I tried other values for viewport width, no luck. Any ideas why it does not work? Html <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="width=640" /> </head> <body> <div style="width: 300px; height: 50px; background: green;">300px</div> <div style="width: 600px; height: 50px; background: yellow;">600px</div> </body> </html> Xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" > <WebView android:id="@+id/web_view" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> </LinearLayout>

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• ClassLoader exceptions being memoized

  - by Jim

  Hello, I am writing a classloader for a long-running server instance. If a user has not yet uploaded a class definition, I through a ClassNotFoundException; seems reasonable. The problem is this: There are three classes (C1, C2, and C3). C1 depends on C2, C2 depends on C3. C1 and C2 are resolvable, C3 isn't (yet). C1 is loaded. C1 subsequently performs an action that requires C2, so C2 is loaded. C2 subsequently performs an action that requires C3, so the classloader attempts to load C3, but can't resolve it, and an exception is thrown. Now C3 is added to the classpath, and the process is restarted (starting from the originally-loaded C1). The issue is, C2 seems to remember that C3 couldn't be loaded, and doesn't bother asking the classloader to find the class... it just re-throws the memoized exception. Clearly I can't reload C1 or C2 because other classes may have linked to them (as C1 has already linked to C2). I tried throwing different types of errors, hoping the class might not memoize them. Unfortunately, no such luck. Is there a way to prevent the loaded class from binding to the exception? That is, I want the classloader to be allowed to keep trying if it didn't succeed the first time. Thanks!

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• How to get rid of gap when I add my custom UIViewController to window?

  - by wgpubs

  I'm getting this gap at the bottom of my window after I add the view of a custom UIViewController. The gap goes away as the view is shifted down after I move to another view and then back. Here is the code in the app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after application launch CustomViewController *gvc = [[CustomViewController alloc] init]; self.customViewController = gvc; [gvc release]; [window addSubview:customViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } "CustomViewController" is used as a root view controller to simply coordinate which other UIViewControllers to display. As such I simply set its view = to that of the first ViewController's view needed like so: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; self.view = v; [v release]; // Add the HomeViewController to the top of the stack MainViewController *mvc = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; mvc.delegate = self; self.mainViewController = mvc; [mvc release]; [self.view addSubview:self.mainViewController.view]; } I've tried a bunch of things including what you see here with no luck. Any ideas? thanks

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• 500 Worker Threads, what kind of thread pool?

  - by Submerged

  I am wondering if this is the best way to do this. I have about 500 threads that run indefinitely, but Thread.sleep for a minute when done one cycle of processing. ExecutorService es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(list.size()+1); for (int i = 0; i < list.size(); i++) { es.execute(coreAppVector.elementAt(i)); //coreAppVector is a vector of extends thread objects } The code that is executing is really simple and basically just this class aThread extends Thread { public void run(){ while(true){ Thread.sleep(ONE_MINUTE); //Lots of computation every minute } } } I do need a separate threads for each running task, so changing the architecture isn't an option. I tried making my threadPool size equal to Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors() which attempted to run all 500 threads, but only let 8 (4xhyperthreading) of them execute. The other threads wouldn't surrender and let other threads have their turn. I tried putting in a wait() and notify(), but still no luck. If anyone has a simple example or some tips, I would be grateful! Well, the design is arguably flawed. The threads implement Genetic-Programming or GP, a type of learning algorithm. Each thread analyzes advanced trends makes predictions. If the thread ever completes, the learning is lost. That said, I was hoping that sleep() would allow me to share some of the resources while one thread isn't "learning"

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• Adding XOR function to bigint library

  - by Jason Gooner

  Hi, I'm using this Big Integer library for Javascript: http://www.leemon.com/crypto/BigInt.js and I need to be able to XOR two bigInts together and sadly the library doesn't include such a function. The library is relatively simple so I don't think it's a huge task, just confusing. I've been trying to hack one together but not having much luck, would be very grateful if someone could lend me a hand. This is what I've attempted (might be wrong). But im guessing the structure is going to be quite similar to some of the other functions in there. function xor(x, y) { var c, k, i; var result = new Array(0); // big int for result k=x.length>y.length ? x.length : y.length; // array length of the larger num // Make sure result is the correct array size? maybe: result = expand(result, k); // ? for (c=0, i=0; i < k; i++) { // Do some xor here } // return the bigint xor result return result; } What confuses me is I don't really understand how it stores numbers in the array blocks for the bigInt. I don't think it's a case of simply bigintC[i] = bigintA[i] ^ bigintB[i], then most other functions have some masking operation at the end that I don't understand. I would really appreciate any help getting this working. Thanks

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• Hibernate HQL and Grails- How do I compare collections?

  - by BurtP

  Hi everyone (my first post!), I have an HQL question (in Groovy/Grails) I was hoping someone could help me with. I have a simple Asset object with a one-to-many Tags collection. class Asset { Set tags static hasMany = [tags:Tag] } class Tag { String name } What I'm trying to do in HQL: A user passes in some tags in params.tags (ex: groovy grails rocks) and wants to return Asset(s) that have those tags, and only those exact tags. Here's my HQL that returns Assets if one or more of the tags are present in an Assets tags: SELECT DISTINCT a FROM Asset a LEFT JOIN a.tags t WHERE t IN (:tags) assetList = Asset.executeQuery( hql, [tags:tokenizedTagListFromParams] The above code works perfect, but its really like an OR. If any of the tag(s) are found, it will return that Asset. I only want to return Assets that have those exact same tags (in number as well). Every time a new tag is created, I new Tag(name:xxx).save() so I can get the Tag instances and unique ID's for each tag that was asked for. I also tried converting the passed in tags to a list of Tag instances with Tag.findByName(t1) for each tag, and also a list of (unique) Tag Id's into the HQL above with no luck. I would appreciate any help/advice. Thank you for your time, Burt

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• TFS: Choose which Team Project to add a solution too.

  - by Patricker

  I have a solution which I developed in VS2008 and which I am trying to add to Source Control (TFS 2010, though the issue happened in TFS 2008 as well). I have several TFS workspaces on my computer and I have access to several Team Projects. When I right click the solution in my Solution Explorer and choose the "Add Solution to Source Control" option I am never given an option of choosing which Workspace or which Team Project to add the existing solution too. VS2008 then proceeds to add it to the same team project every time. I have tried selecting an alternate workspace/team project in every window where I can see an option for it but it always adds it back to the same one. I even tried changing the name of my new workspace so that alphabetically it was the first thinking that it might be somehow related to that... no luck. I then tried goign to the Change Source Control window where you can add/remove bindings on a solution/project but that window also defaults to the same Team Project as trying to add the solution directly does... Any help would be greatly appreciated with this, maybe I'm just missing something?

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• How does CDI injection work in MDBs and @Scheduled beans?

  - by Nils-Petter Nilsen

  I'm working on a large Java EE 6 application that is deployed on JBoss 6 Final. My current tasks involve using @Inject consistently instead of @EJB, but I'm running into some problems on some types of beans, specifically @MessageDriven beans and beans with @Scheduled methods. What happens is that if I'm unlucky with the timing (for @Schedule) or if there are messages in the MDBs' queues at startup, instantiation of the beans will fail because the injected resources (which are EJBs themselves) are not bound yet. Because I use @Inject, I'm guessing that the EJB container considers my beans to be ready, since the container itself does not care about @Inject; it probably simply assumes that since there are no @EJB injections, the beans are ready for use. The injected CDI proxies will then fail because the resources to inject aren't actually bound yet. Tiny example: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MySupportingBean { public void doSomething() { ... } } @Singleton public class MyScheduledBean { @Inject private MySupportingBean supportingBean; @Schedule(second = "*/1", hour = "*", minute = "*", persistent = false) public void onTimeout() { supportingBean.doSomething(); } } The above example will probably not fail often because there are only two beans, but the project I'm working on binds lots of EJBs, which will amplify the problem. But it might fail because there is no guarantee that MySupportingBean is bound first, and if onTimeout is invoked before MySupportingBean is bound, then instantiation of MyScheduledBean will fail. If I used @EJB instead, MyScheduledBean wouldn't be bound until the dependency to MySupportingBean was satisfied. Note that the example will not fail in onTimeout itself, but when CDI attempts to inject MySupportingBean. I've read a lot of posts on different forums where many people argue that @Inject is always better. Generally, I agree, but how do they handle @Schedule or @MessageDriven combined with @Inject? In my experience, it comes down to dumb luck whether the beans will work or not in those cases, and the beans will fail arbitrarily, depending on which order the EJBs are deployed in, and when @Schedule or onMessage are invoked.

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• Import CSV to mysql

  - by 404error

  I have created a database and table. I have also created all the fields i will be needing. I have created 46 fields including 1 that is my ID for the row. The CSV doesn't contain the id field, nor does it contain the headers for the columns. I am new to all of this but have been trying to figure this out. I'm not on here being lazy asking for the answer, but looking for direction. I'm trying to figure out how to import the CSV but have it start importing data starting at the 2nd field, since I'm hoping the auto_increment will fill in the ID field, which is the first field i created. I tried these instructions with now luck. Can anyone offer some insight? your cvs file's column name must match your table column name browse your required .csv file select CSV using LOAD DATA options Check box 'ON' for Replace table data with file in Fields terminated by box type , in Fields enclosed by box " in Fields escaped by box \ in Lines terminated by box auto in Column names box type column name seperated by , like column1,column2,column3 10 check box ON for Use LOCAL keyword.

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• Adding items to a combo box's internal list programatically.

  - by Andrew

  So, despite Matt's generous explanation in my last question, I still didn't understand and decided to start a new project and use an internal list. - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(NSNotification *)aNotification { codesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../codelist.txt"]; namesList = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile: @".../.../namelist.txt"]; codesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[codesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; namesListArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc]initWithArray:[namesList componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]]; addTheDash = [[NSString alloc]initWithString:@" - "]; flossNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; [flossNames removeAllObjects]; for (int n=0; n<=[codesListArray count]; n++){ NSMutableString *nameBuilder = [[NSMutableString alloc]initWithFormat:@"%@", [codesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [nameBuilder appendString:addTheDash]; [nameBuilder appendString:[namesListArray objectAtIndex:n]]; [comboBoz addItemWithObjectValue:[NSMutableString stringWithString:nameBuilder]]; [nameBuilder release]; } } So this is my latest attempt at this and the list still isn't showing in my combo box. I've tried using the addItemsWithObjectValues outside the for loop along with the suggestions at this question: Is this the right way to add items to NSCombobox in Cocoa ? But still no luck. If you can't tell, I'm trying to combine two strings from the files with a hyphen in between them and then put that new string into the combo box. There are over 400 codes and matching names in the two files, so manually putting them in would be a huge chore, not to mention, I don't see what would be causing this problem. The compiler shows no warnings or errors, and in the IB, I have it set to use the internal list, but when I run it, the list is not populated unless I do it manually. Some things I thought might be causing it: Being in the applicationDidFinishLaunching: method Having the string and array variables declared as instance variables in the header (along with @property and @synth done to them) Messing around with using appendString multiple times with NSMutableArrays Nothing seems to be causing this to me, but maybe someone else will know something I don't. Thanks for the help.

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• Find the Algorithm that generates the checksum

  - by knivmannen

  I have a sensing device that transmits a 6-byte message along with an 1-byte counter and supposely a checksum. The data looks something like this: ------DATA----------- -Counter- --Checksum?-- 55 FF 00 00 EC FF ---- 60---------- 1F The last four bits in the counter are always set 0, i.e those bits are probably not used. The last byte is assumed to be the checksum since it has a quite peculiar nature. It tends to randomly change as data changes. Now what i need is to find the algorithm to compute this checksum based on --DATA--. what i have tried is all possible CRC-8 polynomials, for each polynomial i have tried to reflect data, toggle it, initiate it with non-zeroes etc etc. Ive come to the conclusion that i am not dealing with a normal crc-algorithm. I have also tried some flether and adler methods without succes, xor stuff back and forth but still i have no clue how to generate the checksum. My biggest concern is, how is the counter used??? Same data but with different countervalue generates different checksums. I have tried to include the counter in my computations but without any luck. Here are some other datasamples: 55 FF 00 00 F0 FF A0 38 66 0B EA FF BF FF C0 CA 5E 18 EA FF B7 FF 60 BD F6 30 16 00 FC FE 10 81 One more thing that might be worth mentioning is that the last byte in the data only takes on the values FF or FE Plz if u have any tips or tricks that i may try post them here, I am truly desperate. Thx

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• Calling javascript function from android webview?

  - by Edmond Tamas

  I try to call a javascript function from directly form my application (webview.apk), in order to start a script which would autoplay a html5 video clip, I have tried to add itt right after webview loadURL but wwithout luck. Maybe someone could take a look at the code. What am I missing? Thanks! package tscolari.mobile_sample; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.webkit.WebSettings; import android.webkit.WebView; import android.webkit.WebViewClient; import android.webkit.WebChromeClient; import android.media.MediaPlayer; public class InfoSpotActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); WebView mainWebView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.mainWebView); WebSettings webSettings = mainWebView.getSettings(); webSettings.setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mainWebView.setWebChromeClient(new WebChromeClient()); mainWebView.setWebViewClient(new MyCustomWebViewClient()); mainWebView.setScrollBarStyle(View.SCROLLBARS_INSIDE_OVERLAY); mainWebView.loadUrl("http://server.info-spot.net"); mainWebView.loadUrl("javascript:playVideo()"); } private class MyCustomWebViewClient extends WebViewClient { @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { view.loadUrl(url); return true; } } }

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• Trouble bringing a Blackberry App to Foreground

  - by Luis Armando

  I have an app that is listening in background and when the user clicks "send" it displays a dialogue. However I need to bring my app to foreground so the user answers some questions before letting the message go. but I haven't been able to do this, this is the code in my SendListener: SendListener sl = new SendListener(){ public boolean sendMessage(Message msg){ Dialog myDialog = new Dialog(Dialog.D_OK, "message from within SendListener", Dialog.OK,Bitmap.getPredefinedBitmap(Bitmap.EXCLAMATION), Dialog.GLOBAL_STATUS) { //Override inHolster to prevent the Dialog from being dismissed //when a user holsters their BlackBerry. This can //cause a deadlock situation as the Messages //application tries to save a draft of the message //while the SendListener is waiting for the user to //dismiss the Dialog. public void inHolster() { } }; //Obtain the application triggering the SendListener. Application currentApp = Application.getApplication(); //Detect if the application is a UiApplication (has a GUI). if( currentApp instanceof UiApplication ) { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from //within a UiApplication. //Display the dialog using is show method. myDialog.show(); App.requestForeground(); } else { //The sendMessage method is being triggered from // within an application (background application). Ui.getUiEngine().pushGlobalScreen( myDialog, 1, UiEngine.GLOBAL_MODAL ); } return true; } }; store.addSendListener(sl); App is an object I created above: Application App = Application.getApplication(); I have also tried to invoke the App to foreground using its processID but so far no luck.

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• Access User Meta Data on User Registration in Wordpress

  - by Shadi Almosri

  Hiya, I am attempting to carry out a few functions when a user registers on a wordpress site. I have created a module for this which carries out the following function: add_action( 'user_register', 'tml_new_user_registered' ); function tml_new_user_registered( $user_id ) { //wp_set_auth_cookie( $user_id, false, is_ssl() ); //wp_redirect( admin_url( 'profile.php' ) ); $user_info = get_userdata($user_id); $subscription_value = get_user_meta( $user_id, "subscribe_to_newsletter", TRUE); if($subscription_value == "Yes") { //include("Subscriber.Add.php"); } echo "<pre>: "; print_r($user_info); print_r($subscription_value); echo "</pre>"; exit; } But it seems that i am not able to access any user meta data as at the end of this stage none of it is stored. Any ideas how i execute a function once Wordpress has completed the whole registration process of adding meta data into the relevant tables too? I attempted to use this: add_filter('user_register ','tml_new_user_registered',99); But with no luck unfortunately. Thanks in advance!

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• Replacing content with jquery.

  - by BillZ

  I am loading a movie into a overlay. My problem is that when I close the div overlay the movie continues to play. I do not control the code on the move side it is imported via a script tag which then opens in a iframe. I am able to remove the content of the of the div and then the movie stops playing. Then of course when the user opens the div again the movie is gone. My current thinking was that I could simply replace the script tag with one just like it but the outcome of that is that there is nothing there. I have been using jquery. Thanks -- script -- $(document).ready(function() { $("#closeModal2").click(function() { $("#movieContainer").html("<script src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/>"); }); }); -- html -- <div id="movieContainer"> <script id="movieTag" language='JavaScript' src='http://www.accelacast.com/programs/launch.js'/> </div> On a side note. I tried replacing the src attribute of the script tag with no luck. I was able to replace the src of a image though. Is it not possible to effect the src attribute of script? Thanks

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• WriteableBitmap failing badly, pixel array very inaccurate

  - by dawmail333

  I have tried, literally for hours, and I have not been able to budge this problem. I have a UserControl, that is 800x369, and it contains, simply, a path that forms a worldmap. I put this on a landscape page, then I render it into a WriteableBitmap. I then run a conversion to turn the 1d Pixels array into a 2d array of integers. Then, to check the conversion, I wire up the custom control's click command to use the Point.X and Point.Y relative to the custom control in the newly created array. My logic is thus: wb = new WriteableBitmap(worldMap, new TranslateTransform()); wb.Invalidate(); intTest = wb.Pixels.To2DArray(wb.PixelWidth); My conversion logic is as such: public static int[,] To2DArray(this int[] arr,int rowLength) { int[,] output = new int[rowLength, arr.Length / rowLength]; if (arr.Length % rowLength != 0) throw new IndexOutOfRangeException(); for (int i = 0; i < arr.Length; i++) { output[i % rowLength, i / rowLength] = arr[i]; } return output; } Now, when I do the checking, I get completely and utterly strange results: apparently all pixels are either at values of -1 or 0, and these values are completely independent of the original colours. Just for posterity: here's my checking code: private void Check(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point click = e.GetPosition(worldMap); ChangeNotification(intTest[(int)click.X,(int)click.Y].ToString()); } The result show absolutely no correlation to the path that the WriteableBitmap has rendered into it. The path has a fill of solid white. What the heck is going on? I've tried for hours with no luck. Please, this is the major problem stopping me from submitting my first WP7 app. Any guidance?

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• Looks like COM object is created, but JScript fails to get a reference

  - by damix911

  I'm using the following code to create a COM component that I have developed and registered. var mycom = new ActiveXObject("Mirabilis.ComponentServices.1"); mycom.SetFirstNumber(5); mycom.SetSecondNumber(3); The first line runs fine, while if I alter the ProgID (that is, the string passed to ActiveXObject) I get the message Automation server can't create object. This suggests that at least the basics of the registration mechanism are working properly. I integrated some logging calls into the DLL. When I run the script I get the proof into the log file that both this call to QueryInterface: STDAPI DllGetClassObject( const CLSID &clsid, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddFactory *pAddFact = new CAddFactory; ... HRESULT hr = pAddFact->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Class QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } and this one: HRESULT __stdcall CAddFactory::CreateInstance( IUnknown *pUnknownOuter, const IID &iid, void **ppv) { ... CAddObj *pObject = new CAddObj; ... HRESULT hr = pObject->QueryInterface(iid, ppv); if (hr == S_OK) writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface returned S_OK"); else writeToLogFile("Object QueryInterface failed"); return hr; ... } return S_OK. However, when JScript gets to line 3 of the script, I get the following error message: 'mycom' is null or not an object Why is this happening? It looks like JScript should be able to obtain a reference. Some attempts I made I tried to return S_FALSE from DllCanUnloadNow to be sure that the DLL will not be unloaded, just in case, but with no luck.

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• HTML entity encoding (convert '<' to '&lt;') on iPhone in objective-c

  - by Markus

  I'm developing an application for the iPhone that has inApp-mail sending capabilities. So far so good, but now I want to avoid html-injections as some parts of the mail are user-generated texts. Basically I search for something like this: // inits NSString *sourceString = [NSString stringWithString:@"Hello world! Grüße dich Welt <-- This is in German."]; // ----- THAT'S WHAT I'M LOOKING FOR // pseudo-code | // V NSString *htmlEncodedString = [sourceString htmlEncode]; // log NSLog(@"source string: %@", sourceString); NSLog(@"encoded string: %@", htmlEncodedString); Expected output source string: Hello world! Grüße dich Welt <-- This is in German. encoded string: Hello world! Gr&#252;&#223;e dich Welt &lt;-- This is in German. I already googled and looked through several of SO's questions and answers, but all of them seem to be related to URL-encoding and that's not what I really need (I tried stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding with no luck - it creates %C3%BC out of an 'ü' that should be an ü). A code sample would be really great (correcting mine?)... -- Thanks in advance, Markus

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• How to use VC++ intrinsic functions w/o run-time library

  - by Adrian McCarthy

  I'm involved in one of those challenges where you try to produce the smallest possible binary, so I'm building my program without the C or C++ run-time libraries (RTL). I don't link to the DLL version or the static version. I don't even #include the header files. I have this working fine. For some code constructs, the compiler generates calls to memset(). For example: struct MyStruct { int foo; int bar; }; MyStruct blah = {}; // calls memset() Since I don't include the RTL, this results in a missing symbol at link time. I've been getting around this by avoiding those constructs. For the given example, I'll explicitly initialize the struct. MyStruct blah; blah.foo = 0; blah.bar = 0; But memset() can be useful, so I tried adding my own implementation. It works fine in Debug builds, even for those places where the compiler generates an implicit call to memset(). But in Release builds, I get an error saying that I cannot define an intrinsic function. You see, in Release builds, intrinsic functions are enabled, and memset() is an intrinsic. I would love to use the intrinsic for memset() in my release builds, since it's probably inlined and smaller and faster than my implementation. But I seem to be a in catch-22. If I don't define memset(), the linker complains that it's undefined. If I do define it, the compiler complains that I cannot define an intrinsic function. I've tried adding #pragma intrinsic(memset) with and without declarations of memset, but no luck. Does anyone know the right combination of definition, declaration, #pragma, and compiler and linker flags to get an intrinsic function without pulling in RTL overhead? Visual Studio 2008, x86, Windows XP+.

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• Ditching Django's models for Ajax/Web Services

  - by Igor Ganapolsky

  Recently I came across a problem at work that made me rethink Django's models. The app I am developing resides on a Linux server. Its a simple model/view/controller app that involves user interaction and updating data in the database. The problem is that this data resides in a MS SQL database on a Windows machine. So in order to use Django's models, I would have to leverage an ODBC driver on linux, and the use a python add-on like pyodbc. Well, let me tell you, setting up a reliable and functional ODBC connection on linux is no easy feat! So much so, that I spent several hours maneuvering this on my CentOS with no luck, and was left with frustration and lots of dumb system errors. In the meantime I have a deadline to meet, and suddenly the very agile and rapid Django application is a roadblock rather than a pleasure to work with. Someone on my team suggested writing this app in .NET. But there are a few problems with that: it won't be deployable on a linux machine, and I won't be able to work on it since I don't know ASP.net. Then a much better suggestion was made: keep the app in django, but instead of using models, do straight up ajax/web services calls in the template. And then it dawned on me - what a great idea. Django's models seem like a nuissance and hindrance in this case, and I can just have someone else write .Net services on their side, that I can call from my template. As a result my app will be leaner and more compact. So, I was wondering if you guys ever came across a similar dillema and what you decided to do about it.

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• Korn shell wraparound

  - by allenratcliff

  Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

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• multiple ajax requests with jquery

  - by Emil

  I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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