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  • WriteableBitmap failing badly, pixel array very inaccurate

    - by dawmail333
    I have tried, literally for hours, and I have not been able to budge this problem. I have a UserControl, that is 800x369, and it contains, simply, a path that forms a worldmap. I put this on a landscape page, then I render it into a WriteableBitmap. I then run a conversion to turn the 1d Pixels array into a 2d array of integers. Then, to check the conversion, I wire up the custom control's click command to use the Point.X and Point.Y relative to the custom control in the newly created array. My logic is thus: wb = new WriteableBitmap(worldMap, new TranslateTransform()); wb.Invalidate(); intTest = wb.Pixels.To2DArray(wb.PixelWidth); My conversion logic is as such: public static int[,] To2DArray(this int[] arr,int rowLength) { int[,] output = new int[rowLength, arr.Length / rowLength]; if (arr.Length % rowLength != 0) throw new IndexOutOfRangeException(); for (int i = 0; i < arr.Length; i++) { output[i % rowLength, i / rowLength] = arr[i]; } return output; } Now, when I do the checking, I get completely and utterly strange results: apparently all pixels are either at values of -1 or 0, and these values are completely independent of the original colours. Just for posterity: here's my checking code: private void Check(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point click = e.GetPosition(worldMap); ChangeNotification(intTest[(int)click.X,(int)click.Y].ToString()); } The result show absolutely no correlation to the path that the WriteableBitmap has rendered into it. The path has a fill of solid white. What the heck is going on? I've tried for hours with no luck. Please, this is the major problem stopping me from submitting my first WP7 app. Any guidance?

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  • SQL Server Express performance issue

    - by Developer IT
    Hi folks ! I know my questions will sound silly and probably nobody will have perfect answer but since I am in a complete dead-end with the situation it will make me feel better to post it here. So... I have a SQL Server Express database that's 500 Mb. It contains 5 tables and maybe 30 stored procedure. This database is use to store articles and is use for the Developer It web site. Normally the web pages load quickly, let's say 2 ou 3 sec. BUT, sqlserver process uses 100% of the processor for those 2 or 3 sec. I try to find which stored procedure was the problem and I could not find one. It seems like every read into the table dans contains the articles (there are about 155,000 of them and 20 or so gets added every 15 minutes). I added few index but without luck... It is because the table is full text indexed ? Should I have order with the primary key instead of date ? I never had any problems with ordering by dates.... Should I use dynamic SQL ? Should I add the primary key into the url of the articles ? Should I use mutiple indexes for seperate columns or one big index ? I you want more details or code bits, just ask for it. Basicly, every little hint is much apreciated. Thanks.

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  • CakePHP: Missing database table

    - by Justin
    I have a CakePHP application that is running fine locally. I uploaded it to a production server and the first page that uses a database connection gives the "Missing Database Table" error. When I look at the controller dump, it's complaining about the first table. I've tried a variety of things to fix this problem, with no luck: I've confirmed that at the command line I can login with the given MySQL credentials in database.php I've confirmed this table exists I've tried using the MySQL root credentials (temporarily) to see if the problem lies with permissions of the user. The same error appeared. My debug level is currently set to 3 I've deleted the entire contents of /app/tmp/cache I've set 777 permissions on /app/tmp* I've confirmed that I can run DESCRIBE commands at the commant line MySQL when logged in with the MySQL credentials used by by the application I've verified that the CakePHP log file only contains the error I'm setting in the browser window. I've tried all the suggestions I could find in similar postings on SO I've Googled around and didn't find any other ideas I think I've eliminating the obvious problems and my research isn't turning anything up. I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas?

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  • Indentation control while developing a small python like language

    - by sap
    Hello, I'm developing a small python like language using flex, byacc (for lexical and parsing) and C++, but i have a few questions regarding scope control. just as python it uses white spaces (or tabs) for indentation, not only that but i want to implement index breaking like for instance if you type "break 2" inside a while loop that's inside another while loop it would not only break from the last one but from the first loop as well (hence the number 2 after break) and so on. example: while 1 while 1 break 2 'hello world'!! #will never reach this. "!!" outputs with a newline end 'hello world again'!! #also will never reach this. again "!!" used for cout end #after break 2 it would jump right here but since I don't have an "anti" tab character to check when a scope ends (like C for example i would just use the '}' char) i was wondering if this method would the the best: I would define a global variable, like "int tabIndex" on my yacc file that i would access in my lex file using extern. then every time i find a tab character on my lex file i would increment that variable by 1. when parsing on my yacc file if i find a "break" keyword i would decrement by the amount typed after it from the tabIndex variable, and when i reach and EOF after compiling and i get a tabIndex != 0 i would output compilation error. now the problem is, whats the best way to see if the indentation got reduced, should i read \b (backspace) chars from lex and then reduce the tabIndex variable (when the user doesn't use break)? another method to achieve this? also just another small question, i want every executable to have its starting point on the function called start() should i hardcode this onto my yacc file? sorry for the long question any help is greatly appreciated. also if someone can provide an yacc file for python would be nice as a guideline (tried looking on Google and had no luck). thanks in advance.

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  • Are functional programming languages good for practical tasks?

    - by Clueless
    It seems to me from my experimenting with Haskell, Erlang and Scheme that functional programming languages are a fantastic way to answer scientific questions. For example, taking a small set of data and performing some extensive analysis on it to return a significant answer. It's great for working through some tough Project Euler questions or trying out the Google Code Jam in an original way. At the same time it seems that by their very nature, they are more suited to finding analytical solutions than actually performing practical tasks. I noticed this most strongly in Haskell, where everything is evaluated lazily and your whole program boils down to one giant analytical solution for some given data that you either hard-code into the program or tack on messily through Haskell's limited IO capabilities. Basically, the tasks I would call 'practical' such as Aceept a request, find and process requested data, and return it formatted as needed seem to translate much more directly into procedural languages. The most luck I have had finding a functional language that works like this is Factor, which I would liken to a reverse-polish-notation version of Python. So I am just curious whether I have missed something in these languages or I am just way off the ball in how I ask this question. Does anyone have examples of functional languages that are great at performing practical tasks or practical tasks that are best performed by functional languages?

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  • Close TCP connection when owner process is already killed

    - by Otiel
    I have a Windows service that - when it starts - opens some WCF services to listen on the 8000 port. It happens that this service crashes sometimes. When it does, the TCP connection is not released, thus causing my service to throw an exception if I try to start it again: AddressAlreadyInUseException: There is already a listener on IP endpoint 0.0.0.0:8000 Some observations: When running CurrPorts or netstat -ano, I can see that the 8000 port is still in use (in LISTENING state) and is owned by the Process ID XXX that corresponded to my service process ID. But my service has already crashed, and does not appear in the Task Manager anymore. Thus I can't kill the process to free the port! Of course, running taskkill /PID XXX returns: ERROR: The process "XXX" not found. When running CurrPorts or netstat -b, I can see that the process name involved in creating the listening port is System, and not as MyService.exe (whereas it is MyService.exe when my service is running). I tried to use CurrPorts to close the connection, but I always get the following error message: Failed to close one or more TCP connections. Be aware that you must run this tool as admin in order to close TCP connections. (Useless to say, I do run CurrPorts as Administrator...) TCPView is not much help either: the process name associated to the 8000 port is <non-existent>, and doing "End process" or "Close connection" has no effect. I tried to see if there was not a child process associated with the PID XXX using Process Explorer, but no luck here. If I close my service properly (before it crashes), the TCP connection is correctly released. This is normal, as I close the WCF service hosts in the OnStop() event of my service. The only way I found to release the connection is to restart the server (which is not convenient in a production environment as you can guess). Waiting does not help, the TCP connection is never released. How can I close the connection without restarting the Windows server? PS: found some questions extremely similar to mine.

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  • ExpertPDF and Caching of URLs

    - by Josh
    We are using ExpertPDF to take URLs and turn them into PDFs. Everything we do is through memory, so we build up the request and then read the stream into ExpertPDF and then write the bits to file. All the files we have been requesting so far are just plain HTML documents. Our designers update CSS files or change the HTML and rerequest the documents as PDFs, but often times, things are getting cached. Take, for example, if I rename the only CSS file and view the HTML page through a web browser, the page looks broke because the CSS doesn't exist. But if I request that page through the PDF Generator, it still looks ok, which means somewhere the CSS is cached. Here's the relevant PDF creation code: // Create a request HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(url); request.UserAgent = "IE 8.0"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.Method = "GET"; // Send the request HttpWebResponse resp = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); if (resp.IsFromCache) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Trace.Write("FROM THE CACHE!!!"); } else { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Trace.Write("not from cache"); } // Read the response pdf.SavePdfFromHtmlStream(resp.GetResponseStream(), System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, "Output.pdf"); When I check the trace file, nothing is being loaded from cache. I checked the IIS log file and found a 200 response coming from the request, even after a file had been updated (I would expect a 302). We've tried putting the No-Cache attribute on all HTML pages, but still no luck. I even turned off all caching at the IIS level. Is there anything in ExpertPDF that might be caching somewhere or something I can do to the request object to do a hard refresh of all resources? UPDATE I put ?foo at the end of my style href links and this updates the CSS everytime. Is there a setting someplace that can prevent stylesheets from being cached so I don't have to do this inelegant solution?

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  • How to use VC++ intrinsic functions w/o run-time library

    - by Adrian McCarthy
    I'm involved in one of those challenges where you try to produce the smallest possible binary, so I'm building my program without the C or C++ run-time libraries (RTL). I don't link to the DLL version or the static version. I don't even #include the header files. I have this working fine. For some code constructs, the compiler generates calls to memset(). For example: struct MyStruct { int foo; int bar; }; MyStruct blah = {}; // calls memset() Since I don't include the RTL, this results in a missing symbol at link time. I've been getting around this by avoiding those constructs. For the given example, I'll explicitly initialize the struct. MyStruct blah; blah.foo = 0; blah.bar = 0; But memset() can be useful, so I tried adding my own implementation. It works fine in Debug builds, even for those places where the compiler generates an implicit call to memset(). But in Release builds, I get an error saying that I cannot define an intrinsic function. You see, in Release builds, intrinsic functions are enabled, and memset() is an intrinsic. I would love to use the intrinsic for memset() in my release builds, since it's probably inlined and smaller and faster than my implementation. But I seem to be a in catch-22. If I don't define memset(), the linker complains that it's undefined. If I do define it, the compiler complains that I cannot define an intrinsic function. I've tried adding #pragma intrinsic(memset) with and without declarations of memset, but no luck. Does anyone know the right combination of definition, declaration, #pragma, and compiler and linker flags to get an intrinsic function without pulling in RTL overhead? Visual Studio 2008, x86, Windows XP+.

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  • FQL query using stream table doesn't accept app access token

    - by tougher
    I've searched stackoverflow all day long to find an answer without luck, so here we go. I'm trying to fetch data from the stream table like this: FQL: SELECT post_id, message, created_time FROM stream WHERE source_id = 131559313586863 URL: http:// graph.facebook.com/fql?q=SELECT+post_id%2C+message%2C+created_time+FROM+stream+WHERE+source_id+%3D+131559313586863&access_token=10669xxxxx74470|PF-7GSdBx0Nxxxxxkdi1KwSQG-w But I get a 400 Bad Request as response with the error message: "An access token is required to request this resource.". I'm fetching an application access token with this url: https:// graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=FACEBOOK_APP_ID&client_secret=FACEBOOK_APP_SECRET&grant_type=client_credentials Facebook state in this blog post that "You will need to pass a valid app or user access token to access this functionality.". Functionality refers to /feed and /posts (the stream table). Futhermore this wiki tells the same story about using the stream table, "From June 3 2011 a token is required to query this table. You can use any application or user token to make the query.". Does anyone see my hopefully obvious flaw? Please note: The profile in the FQL query is public. I need this to run userless though a cronjob. No user interaction is possible. The request works if I replace the app access token with my own user token from https:// developers.facebook.com/tools/explorer Sorry for breaking the URL's. I need more reputation to post more than 2 links :-/

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  • Secure web module for paid subscribtion

    - by DarkJaff
    Hello everyone, I'm building a website (a community web site like digg) but we will soon release a new feature that people will need to pay for. Right now, our website is in pure C# in .NET, very simple pages with some AJAX. When the member log in, there is no HTTPS. Everything is check with session and the internal validation that I do. What we need, is that when the people are logged in, they can click on a link a proceed to a payment (Paypal, credit card, etc). After the payment is done, the "billing module" will return a value to my site to validate that the payment is done so the account will be flagged as "paying member". I'm guessing this is the way to do, maybe I'm wrong! So my questions are: -What is the name of this kind of billing module? (I will do some research on that) -Do you know any ready to go module that does this kind of thing? -(I push my luck) Do you know any FREE module that do this kind of things. If something is not clear, don't hesitate to ask question :) Thanks a lot! DarkJaff

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  • iPhone Localization: simple project not working

    - by gonso
    Hello Im doing my first localized project and I've been fighting with it for several hours with no luck. I have to create an app that, based on the user selection, shows texts and images in different languages. I've read most of Apple's documents on the matter but I cant make a simple example work. This are my steps so far: 1) Create a new project. 2) Manually create a "en.lproj" directory in the projects folder. 3) Using TexEdit create file called "Localizable.strings" and store it in Unicode UTF-16. The file looks like this: /* Localizable.strings Multilanguage02 Created by Gonzalo Floria on 5/6/10. Copyright 2010 __MyCompanyName__. All rights reserved. */ "Hello" = "Hi"; "Goodbye" = "Bye"; 4) I drag this file to the Resources Folder on XCode and it appear with the "subdir" "en" underneath it (with the dropdown triangle to the left). If I try to see it on XCode it looks all wrong, whit lots of ? symbols, but Im guessing thats because its a UTF-16 file. Right? 5) Now on my view did load I can access this strings like this: NSString *translated; translated = NSLocalizedString(@"Hello", @"User greetings"); NSLog(@"Translated text is %@",translated); My problem is allowing the user to switch language. I have create an es.lproj with the Localizable.strings file (in Spanish), but I CANT access it. I've tried this line: [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject: [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"es", nil] forKey:@"AppleLanguages"]; But that only works the NEXT time you load the application. Is there no way to allow the user to switch languages while running the application?? Do I have to implement my own Dictionary files and forget all about NSLocalizableString family? Thanks for ANY advice or pointers. Gonso

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  • How do I animate text links in jquery?

    - by Peter
    I am somewhat new to jquery and I have a problem with something I am trying to implement using jquery. I have a vertical navigation menu where each link animates on hover by changing color, increasing letter spacing, and adding a border on the left. Everything is working the way I want it to except for when I click on the link. After I click on the link, the text changes to a different color and remains that same color even when I hover over the link. I am wanting to make it to where the color change on hover remains intact even after I click the link. I'm sure I am missing something simple, but I have tried everything I know to do with no luck. Any suggestions would be helpful! Here is what I have for the animation... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("ul.navlist li a").hover(function(){ $(this).stop() .animate({paddingLeft: '10px',letterSpacing: '2px',borderWidth:'20px'},{queue:false,easing:'easeInQuad'},50) }, function(){ $(this).stop() .animate({paddingLeft: '0px', letterSpacing: '0px',borderWidth:'0px'},{queue:false,easing:'easeOutQuad'},50) }); }); </script> My css for the navigation list is here... .navlist { list-style: none; } .navlist a { border-left-color: #555555; border-left-style: solid; border-left-width: 0px; color: #c4c4c4; } .navlist a:hover { border-left-color: #555555; border-left-style: solid; color: #555555; }

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  • Windows Server TCP Client application in c# Stops working after a while

    - by user1692494
    I am developping an application in C# Net framework 2.0. It is basicly a service application with a tcp client class. Class for Tcp Client Part public TelnetConnection(string Hostname, int Port) { host = Hostname; prt = Port; try { tcpSocket = new TcpClient(Hostname, Port); } catch (Exception e) { //Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } The application is connecting to the server and revieves update's and more information. It works for about 20 minutes then stops recieving information from the server. -- Server side Client is still connected and the client side its still connected but stops receiving information from the server. I've been searching Stack Overflow and Google but no luck. try { if (!tcpSocket.Connected) return null; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); do { Parse(sb); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(TimeOutMs); } while (tcpSocket.Available > 0); return sb.ToString(); } Application works perfect when it runs as console application but when running as service. It just stops.

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  • Unable to set up ODBC after installing ODAC (Xcopy)

    - by rwilson513
    We are trying to use ODAC Xcopy to minimize the footprint of installing Oracle 11g Client. Currently, we use the Oracle 11g Admin install (~700mb). I've tried using the ODAC Xcopy, and that works. However, the only issue I now have is that I cannot set up an ODBC on the target system by just installing the ODAC Xcopy. After installing ODAC (Windows XP fyi), I go to Control Panel--Admin Tools--Data Sources (ODBC)--System DSN--Add--Microsoft ODBC for Oracle. I get the following error: "The Oracle(tm) client and networking components were not found. These components are supplied by Oracle and are part of the Oracle Version 7.3 (or greater) client software installation. You will be unable to use this driver until these components have been installed." I've tried editing the registry and creating the same keys that the Oracle Admin install creates, but still no luck. I'm not sure how to get past this. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance.

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  • Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

    - by moonwalker
    Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • Initializing PHP class property declarations with simple expressions yields syntax error

    - by user171929
    According to the PHP docs, one can initialize properties in classes with the following restriction: "This declaration may include an initialization, but this initialization must be a constant value--that is, it must be able to be evaluated at compile time and must not depend on run-time information in order to be evaluated." I'm trying to initialize an array and having some issues. While this works fine: public $var = array( 1 => 4, 2 => 5, ); This creates a syntax error: public $var = array( 1 => 4, 2 => (4+1), ); Even this isn't accepted: public $var = 4+1; which suggests it's not a limitation of the array() language construct. Now, the last time I checked, "4+1" equated to a constant value that not only should be accepted, but should in fact be optimized away. In any case, it's certainly able to be evaluated at compile-time. So what's going on here? Is the limitation really along the lines of "cannot be any calculated expression at all", versus any expression "able to be evaluated at compile time"? The use of "evaluated" in the doc's language suggests that simple calculations are permitted, but alas.... If this is a bug in PHP, does anyone have a bug ID? I tried to find one but didn't have any luck.

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  • How to store child objects on GAE using JDO from Scala

    - by Gero
    Hi, I'm have a parent-child relation between 2 classes, but the child objects are never stored. I do get an warning: "org.datanucleus.store.appengine.MetaDataValidator checkForIllegalChildField: Unable to validate relation net.vermaas.kivanotify.model.UserCriteria.internalCriteria" but it is unclear to me why this occurs. Already tried several alternatives without luck. The parent class is "UserCriteria" which has a List of "Criteria" as children. The classes are defined as follows (Scala): class UserCriteria(tu: String, crit: Map[String, String]) extends LogHelper { @PrimaryKey @Persistent{val valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY} var id = KeyFactory.createKey("UserCriteria", System.nanoTime) @Persistent var twitterUser = tu @Persistent var internalCriteria: java.util.List[Criteria] = flatten(crit) def flatten(crits: Map[String, String]) : java.util.List[Criteria] = { val list = new java.util.ArrayList[Criteria] for (key <- crits.keySet) { list.add(new Criteria(this, key, crits(key))) } list } def criteria: Map[String, String] = { val crits = mutable.Map.empty[String, String] for (i <- 0 to internalCriteria.size-1) { crits(internalCriteria.get(i).name) = internalCriteria.get(i).value } Map.empty ++ crits } // Stripped the equals, canEquals, hashCode, toString code to keep the code snippet short... } @PersistenceCapable @EmbeddedOnly class Criteria(uc: UserCriteria, nm: String, vl: String) { @Persistent var userCriteria = uc @Persistent var name = nm @Persistent var value = vl override def toString = { "Criteria name: " + name + " value: " + value } } Any ideas why the childs are not stored? Or why I get the error message? Thanks, Gero

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  • How to retrieve captcha and save session with PHP cURL?

    - by user302974
    Hi all, i'm create some script to submit content via php curl. first fetch session and captcha, and user must submit captcha to final submit. the problem is i can't get captcha, i've try with this code and preg_match to get image tag and return it $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1.2) Gecko/20070219 Firefox/2.0.0.2'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "1"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "1"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); But no luck, page i'm trying to submit is http://abadijayaiklan.co.cc/pasang-iklan/. I hope someone can help me out :) Thanks and regards

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  • get value from css using document.getElementById().style.height javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, Please offer insight into this mystery. I am trying to get the height value from a div box by var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); I can get this value just fine if the attribute is contained within the div tag, but it returns a blank value if the attribute is defined in the css section. This is fine, it shows 100px as a value. The value can be accessed. <div id="hintdiv" style="height:100px; display: none;"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); This is not fine, it shows an empty alert screen. The value is practically 0. #hintdiv { height:100px display: none; } <div id="hintdiv"> . . var high = document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height; alert(high); But I have no problem accessing/changing the "display:none" attribute whether it is in the tag or in the css section. The div box displays correctly by both attribute definition methods (inside the tag or in the css section). I also tried to access the value by other variations, but no luck document.getElementById("hintdiv").style.height.value ----> undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height ---->undefined document.getElementById("hintdiv").height.value ----> error, no execution Any solution? TIA.

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  • WordPress: Related Posts by Tags, but in the Same Categories

    - by Norbert
    I'm using the script below to get related posts by tags, but noticed that if I have a picture of a bird tagged white and a table also tagged white, the table will show up in the related posts section of the bird. Is there a way to only get posts that match at least one of the categories, so bird and table won't be related, unless they share one category? I tried setting an category__in array inside $args, but no luck! <?php $tags = wp_get_post_tags($post->ID); if ($tags) { $tag_ids = array(); foreach($tags as $individual_tag) $tag_ids[] = $individual_tag->term_id; $args=array( 'tag__in' => $tag_ids, 'post__not_in' => array($post->ID), 'showposts'=>6, // Number of related posts that will be shown. 'caller_get_posts'=>1 ); $my_query = new wp_query($args); if( $my_query->have_posts() ) { while ($my_query->have_posts()) { $my_query->the_post(); ?> <?php if ( get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Image', true) ) { ?> <a style="text-decoration: none;" href="<?php the_permalink(); ?>"> <img style="max-height: 125px; margin: 15px 10px; vertical-align: middle;" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/scripts/timthumb.php?src=<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, "Image", $single = true); ?>&w=125&zc=1" alt="" /> </a> <?php } ?> <?php } } } ?>

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • Need cause for: double dialer icon in Recents when ACTION_CALL is intercepted and re-sent

    - by Emmanuel
    Note that this happens on Android version 2.1 update1 and 2.2. This seems gone in later versions. Of course I would like to know the workaround. But if there are none, at least if this is a known bug, please provide with a link to the bug. I would also accept the source code fix info or diff where this was fixed. I have an application that intercepts an outgoing call, asks a question to the user, and then depending on the answer it could re-send the call. This works fine. But then when you go to the Recents (hold the Home key) there are two slightly different dialer icons there: one from the dialer application, and a second one for the resending of the call action: This means when you click on the first icon, it opens the dialer. But when you click on the second one, it redials the last number. I tried using android:excludeFromRecents="true" for all my activities. I also tried Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_EXCLUDE_FROM_RECENTS when I start the call action. No luck.

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  • Spree customize/extend user roles and permissions

    - by swapnil
    I am trying to specify some custom roles in Spree for example role 'client' and extend the permissions to access the admin section for this role. This user will be able to access only those Product created by that user. Concept is letting a user with role 'client' manage only products and other certain Models. To start with I added CanCan plugin and defined a RoleAbility Class in role_ability.rb Just following this post : Spree Custom Roles Permissions class RoleAbility include CanCan::Ability def initialize(user) user ||= User.new if user.has_role? 'admin' can :manage, :all elsif user.has_role? 'client_admin' can :read, Product can :admin, Product end end end Added this to an initializer : config/initializers/spree.rb Ability.register_ability(RetailerAbility) Also extended admin_products_controller_decorator.rb :app/controllersadmin_products_controller_decorator.rb Admin::ProductsController.class_eval do def authorize_admin authorize! :admin, Product authorize! params[:action].to_sym, Product end end But I am getting flash message 'Authorisation Failure' Trying to find some luck, I referred following links A github gist for Customizing Spree Roles : https://gist.github.com/1277326 Here's a similar issue what I am facing : http://groups.google.com/group/spree-user/browse_thread/thread/1e819e10410d03c5/23b269e09c7ed47e All efforts in vain... Any pointers of what is going on here highly appreciated ? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I use a custom cookie session serializer in Rack?

    - by Damien Wilson
    Hello SO. I'm currently integrating Warden into a new Rack application I'm building. I'd like to implement a recent patch to Rack that allows me to specify how sessions are serialized; specifically, I'd like to use Rack::Session::Cookie::Identity as the session processor. Unfortunately, the documentation is a little unclear as to what syntax I should use to configure Rack::Session::Cookie in my rackup file, can anyone here tell me what I'm doing wrong? config.ru require 'my_sinatra_app' app = self use Rack::Session::Cookie.new(app, Rack::Session::Cookie::Identity.new), {:key => "auth_token"} use Warden::Manager do |warden| # Must come AFTER Rack::Session warden.default_strategies :password warden.failure_app Jelli::Auth.run! end run MySinatraApp error message from thin !! Unexpected error while processing request: undefined method `new' for #<Rack::Session::Cookie:0x00000110124128> PS: I'm using bundler to manage my gem dependencies and I've likewise included rack's master branch as the desired version. Update: As suggested in the comments below, I have read the documentation; sadly the suggested syntax in the docs is not working. Update: Still no luck on my end; offering up a bounty to whoever can help me figure this out.

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  • How can I increment a counter every N loops in JMeter?

    - by Dave Hunt
    I want to test concurrency, and reliably replicate an issue that JMeter brought to my attention. What I want to do is set a unique identifier (currently the time in milliseconds with a counter appended) and increment the counter between loops but not between threads. The idea being that the number of threads I have set up is the number of identical identifiers before incrementing and using another. If I had 3 threads with a loop count of 2 I want: 1. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 2. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 3. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 4. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 5. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 6. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 I've tried using Throughput Controllers to increment a counter, as well as several other things that seemed they should work but had no luck. This seems like something JMeter should be able to do. Is there any way to get the value of the loop count?

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