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• Problem understanding Inheritance

  - by dhruvbird

  I've been racking my brains over inheritance for a while now, but am still not completely able to get around it. For example, the other day I was thinking about relating an Infallible Human and a Fallible Human. Let's first define the two: Infallible Human: A human that can never make a mistake. It's do_task() method will never throw an exception Fallible Human: A human that will occasionally make a mistakes. It's do_task() method may occasionally throw a ErrorProcessingRequest Exception The question was: IS an infallible human A fallible human OR IS a fallible human AN infallible human? The very nice answer I received was in the form of a question (I love these since it gives me rules to answer future questions I may have). "Can you pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected OR can you pass a fallible human where an infallible human is expected?" It seems apparent that you can pass an infallible human where a fallible human is expected, but not the other way around. I guess that answered my question. However, it still feels funny saying "An infallible human is a fallible human". Does anyone else feel queasy when they say it? It almost feels as if speaking out inheritance trees is like reading out statements from propositional calculus in plain English (the if/then implication connectives don't mean the same as that in spoken English). Does anyone else feel the same?

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• Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

  - by WestDiscGolf

  I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

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• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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• Create table class as a singleton

  - by Mark

  I got a class that I use as a table. This class got an array of 16 row classes. These row classes all have 6 double variables. The values of these rows are set once and never change. Would it be a good practice to make this table a singleton? The advantage is that it cost less memory, but the table will be called from multiple threads so I have to synchronize my code which way cause a bit slower application. However lookups in this table are probably a very small portion of the total code that is executed. EDIT: This is my code, are there better ways to do this or is this a good practice? Removed synchronized keyword according to recommendations in this question. final class HalfTimeTable { private HalfTimeRow[] table = new HalfTimeRow[16]; private static final HalfTimeTable instance = new HalfTimeTable(); private HalfTimeTable() { if (instance != null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Already instantiated"); } table[0] = new HalfTimeRow(4.0, 1.2599, 0.5050, 1.5, 1.7435, 0.1911); table[1] = new HalfTimeRow(8.0, 1.0000, 0.6514, 3.0, 1.3838, 0.4295); //etc } @Override @Deprecated public Object clone() throws CloneNotSupportedException { throw new CloneNotSupportedException(); } public static HalfTimeTable getInstance() { return instance; } public HalfTimeRow getRow(int rownumber) { return table[rownumber]; } }

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• I asked a question about arrays before, but this one won't compile

  - by unit

  I asked about this array a little while ago, and I can't see what the problem is. Too tired. What have I done wrong? Basically, I am taking a string array and trying to check to see if it contains numbers or an x (ISBN number validation). I want to take the number from a given input (bookNum), check the input, and feed any valid input into a new array (book). At the line 'bookNum.charAt[j]==book[i]' I get the 'not a statement error'. What gives? String[] book = new String [ISBN_NUM]; bookNum.replaceAll("-",""); if (bookNum.length()!=ISBN_NUM) throw new ISBNException ("ISBN "+ bookNum + " must be 10 characters"); for (int i=0;i<bookNum.length();i++) { if (Character.isDigit(bookNum.charAt(i))) bookNum.CharAt[j]==book[i]; j++; if (book[9].isNotDigit()|| book[9]!="x" || book[9]!="X") throw new ISBNException ("ISBN " + bookNum + " must contain all digits" + "or 'X' in the last position");

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• Substitute User Controls on Failure

  - by Brian

  Recently, I had a user control I was developing throw an exception. I know what caused the exception, but this issue got me thinking. If I have a user control throw an exception for whatever reason and I wish to replace that usercontrol with something else (e.g. an error saying, "Sorry, this part of the page broke.") and perhaps log the error, what would be a good way to do it that could be done independently of what the user control is or does (i.e. I'm not saying what the user control does/is, because I want an answer where that is irrelevant). Code sample: <asp:TableRow VerticalAlign="Top" HorizontalAlign="Left"> <asp:TableCell> <UR:MyUserControl ID="MyUserControl3" runat="server" FormatString="<%$ AppSettings:RVUC %>" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:WPDBC %>" Title="CO" /> </asp:TableCell> <asp:TableCell> <UR:MyUserControl ID="MyUserControl4" runat="server" FormatString="<%$ AppSettings:RVUA %>" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:WPDBA %>" Title="IEAO" /> </asp:TableCell> </asp:TableRow>

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• How to use CellRenderer for GregorianCalendar?

  - by HansDampf

  So I have been trying to use the example from Tutorial and change it so it fits my program. The getColumnValue method returns the object that holds the information that is supposed to be displayed. Is this the way to go or should it rather return the actual String to be displayed. I guess not because that way I would mix the presentation with the data, which I was trying to avoid. public class IssueTableFormat implements TableFormat<Appointment> { public int getColumnCount() { return 6; } public String getColumnName(int column) { if(column == 0) return "Datum"; else if(column == 1) return "Uhrzeit"; else if(column == 2) return "Nummer"; else if(column == 3) return "Name"; else if(column == 4) return "letzte Aktion"; else if(column == 5) return "Kommentar"; throw new IllegalStateException(); } public Object getColumnValue(Appointment issue, int column) { if(column == 0) return issue.getDate(); else if(column == 1) return issue.getDate(); else if(column == 2) return issue.getSample(); else if(column == 3) return issue.getSample(); else if(column == 4) return issue.getHistory(); else if(column == 5) return issue.getComment(); throw new IllegalStateException(); } } The column 0 and 1 contain a GregorianCalendar object, but I want column 0 to show the date and 1 to show the time. So I know using cellRenderers can help here. This is what I tried. public class DateRenderer extends DefaultTableCellRenderer { public DateRenderer() { super(); } public void setValue(Object value) { GregorianCalendar g =(GregorianCalendar) value; value=g.get(GregorianCalendar.HOUR); } } But the cell doesnt show anything, what is wrong here?

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• C# Possible to have a generic return type?

  - by JL

  Here is a typical function that returns either true/false; private static bool hasValue() { return true; } Now on an error, I would like to return my own custom error object with definition: public class Failure { public string failureDateTime { get; set; } public string failureReason { get; set; } } I would have expected to be able to throw this custom object for example... private static bool hasValue() { throw new Failure(); } This is not possible, and I don't want to derive Failure from System.IO.Exception because of the inability to serialize an exception in C#. What is the best practice / or ideal solution to this problem. Should I just work with private static object? Or is there a cleaner way to return a custom object or bypass the typical return type on an error (not using System.IO.Exception)? Not entirely wild about object either, because then I need to cast the result and validate it by more boolean logic.

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• When using a repository is it possible for a type to return a Func that the repository uses to test for existing entities?

  - by Scott Rickman

  For example given a Factory with a method public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t => t.Name == item.Name)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } how do I create a property of Base (say MustNotAlreadyExist) so that I can change the method above to public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t.MustNotAlreadyExist)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } public class Base { ... public virtual Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name); /* <- this clearly doesn't work */ } } and then how can I override MustNotAlreadyExist in Account : Base public class Account : Base { ... public override Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name && b.AccountCode == accountCode); /* <- this doesn't work */ } ... }

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• Socket send recv functions

  - by viswanathan

  I have created a socket using the following lines of code. Now i change the value of the socket i get like this m_Socket++; Even now the send recv socket functions succeeds without throwing SOCKET_ERROR. I expect that it must throw error. Am i doing something wrong. struct sockaddr_in ServerSock; // Socket address structure to bind the Port Number to listen to char *localIP ; SOCKET SocServer; //To Set up the sockaddr structure ServerSock.sin_family = AF_INET; ServerSock.sin_addr.s_addr = INADDR_ANY; ServerSock.sin_port = htons(pLantronics->m_wRIPortNo); // To Create a socket for listening on wPortNumber if(( SocServer = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0 )) == INVALID_SOCKET ) { return FALSE; } //To bind the socket with wPortNumber if(bind(SocServer,(sockaddr*)&ServerSock,sizeof(ServerSock))!=0) { return FALSE; } // To Listen for the connection on wPortNumber if(listen(SocServer,SOMAXCONN)!=0) { return FALSE; } // Structure to get the IP Address of the connecting Entity sockaddr_in insock; int insocklen=sizeof(insock); //To accept the Incoming connection on the wPortNumber pLantronics->m_Socket=accept(SocServer,(struct sockaddr*)&insock,&insocklen); if(pLantronics->m_Socket == INVALID_SOCKET) { shutdown(SocServer, 2 ); closesocket(SocServer ); return FALSE; } // To make socket non-blocking DWORD dwNonBlocking = 1; if(ioctlsocket( pLantronics->m_Socket, FIONBIO, &dwNonBlocking )) { shutdown(pLantronics->m_Socket, 2); closesocket(pLantronics->m_Socket); return FALSE; } pLantronics->m_sModemName = inet_ntoa(insock.sin_addr); Now i do m_Socket++;//change to some other number ideally expecting send recv to fail. Even now the send recv socket functions succeeds without throwing SOCKET_ERROR. I expect that it must throw error. Am i doing something wrong.

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• self-destructing objects in php5?

  - by user151841

  I am working on a class in php that is basically an interface to a database row. I wanted to create a delete() method that would 1. delete the database row and 2. destroy the instance of itself so that further attempts to manipulate the row via the object would throw warnings. Doing some googling, it seems that, in php5, it's not possible for an object to unset itself. http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=36971 In fact they discuss the very situation I was wanting to do :( So how should I proceed? I could make boolean flag as a class property, for whether the row still exists, and have each operation check that flag and throw an error if the row has been deleted. This maintains the oo structure of code, so I would have $objDbRow->delete(); But then I have to put checks at the beginning of each method. Or, I could implement a __destruct method that deletes the row. But that would seem counter-intuitive to me; if I saw in code unset($objDbRow); All I would suspect that's happening is that the object is being discarded, not that a row is being deleted. So that to me would seem like bad practice.

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• Checking if a function has C-linkage at compile-time [unsolvable]

  - by scjohnno

  Is there any way to check if a given function is declared with C-linkage (that is, with extern "C") at compile-time? I am developing a plugin system. Each plugin can supply factory functions to the plugin-loading code. However, this has to be done via name (and subsequent use of GetProcAddress or dlsym). This requires that the functions be declared with C-linkage so as to prevent name-mangling. It would be nice to be able to throw a compiler error if the referred-to function is declared with C++-linkage (as opposed to finding out at runtime when a function with that name does not exist). Here's a simplified example of what I mean: extern "C" void my_func() { } void my_other_func() { } // Replace this struct with one that actually works template<typename T> struct is_c_linkage { static const bool value = true; }; template<typename T> void assertCLinkage(T *func) { static_assert(is_c_linkage<T>::value, "Supplied function does not have C-linkage"); } int main() { assertCLinkage(my_func); // Should compile assertCLinkage(my_other_func); // Should NOT compile } Is there a possible implementation of is_c_linkage that would throw a compiler error for the second function, but not the first? I'm not sure that it's possible (though it may exist as a compiler extension, which I'd still like to know of). Thanks.

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• imapsync - Authentication failed

  - by Touff

  I've deployed many Google Apps accounts and have used imapsync a number of times to migrate accounts to Google Apps. This time however, no matter what I try imapsync refuses to work claiming my credentials are incorrect - I've checked them time and time again and they are 100% correct. On Ubuntu 12, built from source, my command is: imapsync --host1 myserver.com --user1 [email protected] --password1 mypassword1 -ssl1 --host2 imap.gmail.com --user2 [email protected] --password2 mypassword2 -ssl2 -authmech2 PLAIN Full output from the command: get options: [1] PID is 21316 $RCSfile: imapsync,v $ $Revision: 1.592 $ $Date: With perl 5.14.2 Mail::IMAPClient 3.35 Command line used: /usr/bin/imapsync --debug --host1 myserver.com --user1 [email protected] --password1 mypassword1 -ssl1 --host2 imap.gmail.com --user2 [email protected] --password2 mypassword2 -ssl2 -authmech2 PLAIN Temp directory is /tmp PID file is /tmp/imapsync.pid Modules version list: Mail::IMAPClient 3.35 IO::Socket 1.32 IO::Socket::IP ? IO::Socket::INET 1.31 IO::Socket::SSL 1.53 Net::SSLeay 1.42 Digest::MD5 2.51 Digest::HMAC_MD5 1.01 Digest::HMAC_SHA1 1.03 Term::ReadKey 2.30 Authen::NTLM 1.09 File::Spec 3.33 Time::HiRes 1.972101 URI::Escape 3.31 Data::Uniqid 0.12 IMAPClient 3.35 Info: turned ON syncinternaldates, will set the internal dates (arrival dates) on host2 same as host1. Info: will try to use LOGIN authentication on host1 Info: will try to use PLAIN authentication on host2 Info: imap connexions timeout is 120 seconds Host1: IMAP server [SERVER1] port [993] user [USER1] Host2: IMAP server [imap.gmail.com] port [993] user [USER2] Host1: * OK [CAPABILITY IMAP4rev1 LITERAL+ SASL-IR LOGIN-REFERRALS ID ENABLE AUTH=PLAIN AUTH=LOGIN] Dovecot ready. Host1: SERVER1 says it has CAPABILITY for AUTHENTICATE LOGIN Host1: success login on [SERVER1] with user [USER1] auth [LOGIN] Host2: * OK Gimap ready for requests from MY-VPS Host2: imap.gmail.com says it has CAPABILITY for AUTHENTICATE PLAIN Failure: error login on [imap.gmail.com] with user [USER2] auth [PLAIN]: 2 NO [AUTHENTICATIONFAILED] Invalid credentials (Failure) I have tried -authmech2 LOGIN as well which returns: Host2: imap.gmail.com says it has NO CAPABILITY for AUTHENTICATE LOGIN Failure: error login on [imap.gmail.com] with user [[email protected]] auth [LOGIN]: 2 NO [AUTHENTICATIONFAILED] Invalid credentials (Failure) If anyone can shed some light on this I would greatly appreciate it.

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• ADODB DB2 DSN using IBMDADB2 provider

  - by Eli Sand

  I have a very bizarre issue with trying to establish a working connection to an IBM DB2 server from Classic ASP using ADODB. On my development server I am running IIS and have a local instance of DB2 running. When I create a system DSN on this server and try to connect to it with ADODB, I have to specify Provider=IBMDADB2; in my connection along with the DSN name - failure to include the provider and my connection won't work. On my production server(s), I have one running IIS and a second system running an instance of DB2. When I create a system DSN on the production IIS server and try to connect to it with ADODB, I cannot specify the provider, otherwise it throws an uncatchable error in an external module (I assume it's referring to the DB2 module) if I try to do anything past get a connection (oddly, opening the connection itself doesn't throw an error - but if I run a query it does). If I remove the Provider=IBMDADB2; from the connection string (thus I just have DSN=some_name), it works fine. On both systems I can verify through the ODBC connection manager that the DSN's work and can connect to the databases, and on both systems I have made sure to set the correct (only) instance of DB2 as the default. Can anyone tell me why I have to have different connection strings for the development and production servers? I would like to be able to use the same connection string for both environments if at all possible. If that means either specifying a provider for both, or for neither I don't care which - I would just like to know what's going on and how to fix it.

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• PowerShell: New-PSDrive error handling

  - by mazebuhu

  Hello, I have a script where I mount with the command "New-PSDrive" a network drive. Now, since the script is running as a "cronjob" on a server I want to have some error detection. If for any reason the command New-PSDrive fails the script should stop executing and notify that something went wrong. I have the following code: Try { New-PSDrive -Name A -PSProvider FileSystem -Root \\server\share } Catch { ... handle error case ... } ... other code ... For testing reasons I specified a wrong server name and I get the following error "New-PSDrive : Drive root "\wrongserver\share" does not exist or it's not a folder". Which is OK since the server does not exists. But the script does not go into the Catch clause and stop. It happily continues to run and ends up in a mess since no drive is mounted :-) So my question, why? Is there any difference in Exception handling in PowerShell? I should also note that I'm a noob in PowerShell scripting. Bye, Martin

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• Couldn't upload files to Sharepoint site while passing through Squid Proxy

  - by Ecio

  Hi all, we have this issue: one of our employees is collaborating with a supplier and he needs to upload documents on a Sharepoint site hosted on the supplier's main site. In our environment we use Squid Proxy to allow people navigate on the net (we have NTLM authentication and users transparently authenticate while using IE and FF). It seems that this specific Sharepoint site is using Integrated Windows Authentication only, and according to some research on the net it seems that this can have troubles with proxies. More specifically, we have tried two Squid versions: with Squid 3.0 we are unable to login to the site (the browser loads an empty page) with Squid 2.7 (that supports "Connection Pinning") we are able to login into the site, move on the different sections BUT.. when we try to upload a file that is bigger than a couple of KiloBytes (i.e. 10KB) the browser loads an error page (i think it's a 401 unauthorized but i must verify it) we've tried changing a couple of Squid options (in 2.7), what we got is that when you try to upload the file you got an authentication box (just like the initial login) and it refuses to go on even if you enter the same authentication credentials. What's really strange is that when you try to upload a small file (i.e. a text or binary 1KB file) the upload succeeds. I initially thought that maybe there was something misconfigured on their Sharepoint site but I've tried also this site: www.xsolive.com (it's a sharepoint 2007 demo site) and I've experienced the same problem. Has any of you experienced such behaviour? Thanks! Of course we've suggested to the supplier to activate also Basic+SSL and we're waiting for their reply..

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• Gnome-Applets Package Causing Gnome to Segfault

  - by FranticPedantic

  When I boot ubuntu I get a bunch of windows saying "The panel encountered a problem while loading: OAFIID:GNOME_ShowDesktopApplet", with a bunch of others(5) besides ShowDesktopApplet. I am able to launch a terminal, and I do have the taskbar at the top, although the bar at the bottom that holds the windows is blank, so when I minimize a window it disappears. Furthermore, when I try to launch most applications (firefox for example) it segfaults. I have googled the error but it seems to be common but general issue, and a lot of the solutions that worked for others didn't work for me. I tried deleting the gconf, gnome, and gnome2 folders in my home directory. I tried deleting a bunch of the gnome folders (although I might have done this wrong, I was confused as to which ones). I have also tried to use apt-get and dpkg to re-install ubuntu-desktop and gnome-applets. However, when I try apt-get install ubuntu-desktop I get errors regarding /var/cache/apt/archives/gnome-applets_2.28.0-0ubunt2_amd64.deb I tried dpkg --configure -a and interestingly I get Package gnome-applets is not installed. When I try to use apt-get to install it, that same pesky problem pops up error processing /var/cache/apt/archives/gnome-applets_2.28.0-0ubunt2_amd64.deb (--unpack) subprocess new post-removal script returned error exist status 245 sub process /usr/bin/dpkg returned an error code(1) This file has been popping up with regards to a lot of the solutions suggested I see. Any ideas?

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• Desktop SATA drives in SATA <-> FC array

  - by chris

  Let's assume you've got a box like one of these with space for 24 SATA disks. What are the best bits of advice for deploying this? For instance, should you be greedy and go for the 1.5 or 2tb disks or are they just not reliable enough to be used in an array like this and you should stick with 640gb or 750gb disks instead? Also, I know that FC (or generically, "enterprise class") disks have a different error recovery strategy than desktop disks. An enterprise disk will fail a read quickly and report to the controller that it wasn't able to read that block, and the RAID controller will quickly regenerate the info from the parity disk and mark the block as bad. A desktop disk, on the other hand, will try and try and try again to get the data, and in pathological cases this may cause a raid controller to fail the whole disk because the read operation times out. So there are a couple aspects to this question: What's the best sort of disk to get today? (ie specific disks on the market in Feb 2010) Generically, what should someone look for when trying to buy something like this that kinda walks the line between enterprise and consumer? Lastly -- is there anything that can be done with current "consumer" disks to make them more suitable for array use? IE can you use a SMART configuration to change the error recovery strategy used by the disk? Thanks!

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• Arch Linux drops me on my school network.

  - by Kravlin

  I'm running a Lenovo X61 which i carry around my college for getting on the internet at various points in the day. The network has always been finicky but recently it's gotten worse. I'll connect using iwconfig, get an ip from dhcpcd and log in using vpnc to their system. Sometimes I'll stay connected for hours but most of the time within 30 seconds my network traffic will drop to zero and i'll be unable to do anything. My computer still belives it's connected, however to try again i need to put my wireless interface down, put it back up and try again. It's gotten so bad that i've got a window on my computer pinging yahoo or google constantly in order to know if i'm still able to get online. I know other people who have used Arch Linux that don't have the same problems as well as people who use Ubuntu who haven't had any problems either. It seems like my computer is a special case. Does anyone have any suggestions on how to fix it? dmesg doesn't show anything out of the ordinary going on and i don't know where else to look for errors or other things to try.

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• Oracle® Database Express Edition roblem running on Win Server 2003 with MS SQl Server 2008 [closed]

  - by totoz

  Hi I have on Win Server 2003 MS SQL Server 2008 and also IIS is running. I try learn Oracle, so first I installed Oracle® Database Express Edition. I tried connect viac web browser on Oracle Server on url http://127.0.0.1:8080/apex I got this expcetion in browser The page cannot be found The page you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please try the following: Make sure that the Web site address displayed in the address bar of your browser is spelled and formatted correctly. If you reached this page by clicking a link, contact the Web site administrator to alert them that the link is incorrectly formatted. Click the Back button to try another link. HTTP Error 404 - File or directory not found. Internet Information Services (IIS) Technical Information (for support personnel) Go to Microsoft Product Support Services and perform a title search for the words HTTP and 404. Open IIS Help, which is accessible in IIS Manager (inetmgr), and search for topics titled Web Site Setup, Common Administrative Tasks, and About Custom Error Messages. Why I can not log on Oracle Home Page?

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• Vagrant ssh fails with VirtualBox

  - by lukewm

  vagrant up fails when it gets to the ssh part: myterminal$ vagrant up [default] VM already created. Booting if its not already running... [default] Running any VM customizations... [default] Clearing any previously set forwarded ports... [default] Forwarding ports... [default] -- ssh: 22 => 2222 (adapter 1) [default] -- db2: 30003 => 30003 (adapter 1) [default] Cleaning previously set shared folders... [default] Creating shared folders metadata... [default] Booting VM... [default] Waiting for VM to boot. This can take a few minutes. [default] Failed to connect to VM! Failed to connect to VM via SSH. Please verify the VM successfully booted by looking at the VirtualBox GUI. Then when I subsequently try and connect using vagrant ssh or vagrant reload or similar, I get this: myterminal$ vagrant reload [default] Attempting graceful shutdown of linux... SSH connection was refused! This usually happens if the VM failed to boot properly. Some steps to try to fix this: First, try reloading your VM with `vagrant reload`, since a simple restart sometimes fixes things. If that doesn't work, destroy your VM and recreate it with a `vagrant destroy` followed by a `vagrant up`. If that doesn't work, contact a Vagrant maintainer (support channels listed on the website) for more assistance. Please help! I'm really stumped. Kind regards, Luke

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• Modem doesn't seem to pass internet connection to router

  - by Vian Esterhuizen

  I was supplied a Cisco DPC3825 modem by my ISP and use a Cisco E4200 as my main router. Today the Internet just stopped working, just out of the blue, I can't think of anything that would have triggered it. It's been working pretty good for the past month except for a few random blips here and there. After some trouble shooting I realized that a direct wired connection to the modem would get me Internet access but if I was wired to the router as I was before I would have no connection. Assuming it was router I connected a TP-Link WR841N but it had the exact same problem. Also, connecting to the router via Wi-Fi from multiple devices will connect me to the router but I still can't get access to the Internet. From these test, it seems that the modem just won't send Internet through to the router but is clearly connecting and able to directly connect to my PC. What I've Tried A full reset and factory reset on the E4200 A full reset on the modem (but I believe my ISP has remote access to the modem because the passwords and so on are always set back). My ISP has remotely reconfigured the modem What I Should Try What else can I try? What should I do to try to narrow down the issue? Can you figure out what the problem might be based on this information?

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• TicTac Photo and Windows 7

  - by Ben

  Hello, My wife has been creating a tictac photo album. I had to upgrade to windows 7 as i had enough of Vista so i backed up the tic tac photo file and the photos to an external hard disk and performed a fresh install of win7. Now here is the problem. TicTacPhoto says it can find the photos in the album. The locations were as follows: Vista: C:\Users\Kelly\Pictures Win 7 C:\Users\Kelly\My Pictures When i try to create a Pictures folder under Kelly it popups a message about merging the two folders and simply moves the pictures to the My Pictures folder. Does anyone know a way to make a foler called pictures so i can eliminate the file path problem and then try again with tic tac photo support to get them to fix my file. My wife is going to kill me as its our wedding album and she has spent upwards of 30hrs designing it and me upgrading to win 7 means its all my fault. She does not understand file paths etc. Im going to try and open the album file in a text editor and see if i can see anything but thought i would ask here as well. Any help appreciated.

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• Explorer and open file dialog not responding (Vista)

  - by rohancragg

  Any explorer window opened for the first time on my machine causes the explorer window to display the folders tree and folder path in the address bar immediately but the file/folder list pane is blank and the window displays 'Not Responding' in the title bar, this hangs for up to a minute or more. Any file dialog displays 'Not Responding' in the title bar. The files list is eventually displayed after a few seconds or more. Steps to repro: Close all open instances of explorer Windows Key | Run | [enter a folder path such as 'c:\temp'] Or within any app: use a file open / save dialog Once there is at least one open instance of explorer the performance is still fairly poor but not nearly so bad and file lists are displayed in a timely fashion. What I've tried: Cleaned up registry with CCleaner tool, and uninstalled all other unused software Checked nothing unwanted running at startup with Autoruns Removed any ISO burner/recorder/mount software Still to try Get latest version of everything - especially stuff with shell extension behaviour such as TortoiseSVN Anyone have any other suggestions? Thanks alot. Update I'm wondering if this is related, I'll try the hotfix when I get home and report back: KB972685 - FIX:Explorer.exe hangs when using a shell extension written using MFC Update 2 Before I got a chance to try the hotfix it seems one of the above actions fixed this for me; either the removal of IsoRecorder or TortoiseHg (which I was no longer using anyway). Update 3 A similar issue with Explorer.exe has come back since installing TortoiseHg 1.01 :-(

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• DD-WRT PPTP VPN problem

  - by Tobias Tromm

  I try to configure a DD-WRT as a PPTP client. The VPN Server is Windows Server 2003. This is my scenario: The Windows 2003 Server has set to give to the VPN Client the 10.0.0.81 fixed IP and to add a network route to the remote home. At the remote home I have changed the PPTP Options at DD-WRT to make the connection. The VPN connection is successfully established. ...and Windows successfully add the route to the remote home 192.168.2.X. From the remote home I can successfully access any computer from the VPN server side. The problem is when I try to access the remote home from the Server side. From Server side I only can access\ping DD-WRT ( by VPN Client IP - 10.0.0.81). What's wrong? How I need to do to be a site-to-site VPN? This is what happen when I try to tracert the remote home from local home.

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