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  • MS Access 2003: Can data disappear from records and how do I test for this and prevent it?

    - by user328960
    Problem and about the database: Data from a record in Access 2003 database has disappeared. This database has 1 backend and 3 frontends, multiple users and is hosted on Citrix. Within this database, we have records of all clients served, ranging in the 1000s. Background info: The form for client data entry is set up with various subforms, including both a "programs enrolled" subform and a "services" subform. A client can be enrolled in multiple programs. Once enrolled in a program, services can be entered for that program area using the services subform. There are multiple fields in the services subform, one of which is a drop-down field allowing you to choose from the programs a client has been enrolled in (the list is updated for that client whenever he is enrolled in a new program). The problem details: For one specific record and one specific program area, the program has disappeared from the "programs enrolled" subform and all of the related services have disappeared from the "services" subform for a period of 3 months of data entry. However, other programs and services for this record did not disappear. Questions: Is the disappearance of data a common Access 2003 problem? Are there tests in place that can be run to see if data is disappearing and catch that data? If so, what are they? If there is specific code involved, what is it? What can be done to prevent the disappearing of data (other than using a different database)?

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  • MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

    - by Daniel Straight
    Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

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  • MS Access: Why is ADODB.Recordset.BatchUpdate so much slower than Application.ImportXML?

    - by apenwarr
    I'm trying to run the code below to insert a whole lot of records (from a file with a weird file format) into my Access 2003 database from VBA. After many, many experiments, this code is the fastest I've been able to come up with: it does 10000 records in about 15 seconds on my machine. At least 14.5 of those seconds (ie. almost all the time) is in the single call to UpdateBatch. I've read elsewhere that the JET engine doesn't support UpdateBatch. So maybe there's a better way to do it. Now, I would just think the JET engine is plain slow, but that can't be it. After generating the 'testy' table with the code below, I right clicked it, picked Export, and saved it as XML. Then I right clicked, picked Import, and reloaded the XML. Total time to import the XML file? Less than one second, ie. at least 15x faster. Surely there's an efficient way to insert data into Access that doesn't require writing a temp file? Sub TestBatchUpdate() CurrentDb.Execute "create table testy (x int, y int)" Dim rs As New ADODB.Recordset rs.CursorLocation = adUseServer rs.Open "testy", CurrentProject.AccessConnection, _ adOpenStatic, adLockBatchOptimistic, adCmdTableDirect Dim n, v n = Array(0, 1) v = Array(50, 55) Debug.Print "starting loop", Time For i = 1 To 10000 rs.AddNew n, v Next i Debug.Print "done loop", Time rs.UpdateBatch Debug.Print "done update", Time CurrentDb.Execute "drop table testy" End Sub I would be willing to resort to C/C++ if there's some API that would let me do fast inserts that way. But I can't seem to find it. It can't be that Application.ImportXML is using undocumented APIs, can it?

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  • How should I lock the table in this VB6 / Access application?

    - by Brian Hooper
    I'm working on a VB6 application using an Access database. The application writes messages to a log table from time to time. Several instances of the application may be running simultaneously and to distinguish them they each have their own run number. The run number is deduced from the log table thus... Set record_set = New ADODB.Recordset query_string = "SELECT MAX(RUN_NUMBER) + 1 AS NEW_RUN_NUMBER FROM ERROR_LOG" record_set.CursorLocation = adUseClient record_set.Open query_string, database_connection, adOpenStatic, , adCmdText record_set.MoveLast If IsNull(record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER")) Then run_number = 0 Else run_number = record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER") End If command_string = "INSERT INTO ERROR_LOG (RUN_NUMBER, SEVERITY, MESSAGE) " & _ " VALUES (" & Str$(run_number) & ", " & _ " " & Str$(SEVERITY_INFORMATION) & ", " & _ " 'Run Started'); " database_connection.Execute command_string Obviously there is a small gap between the calculation of the run number and the appearance of the new row in the database, and to prevent another instance getting access between the two operations I'd like to lock the table; something along the lines of SET TRANSACTION READ WRITE RESERVING ERROR_LOG FOR PROTECTED WRITE; How should I go about doing this? Would locking the recordset do any good (the row in the record set doesn't match any particular row in the database)?

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  • Unable to access published programs on TS web access - win server 2008 OS

    - by varun
    I am using the TS Web Access feature provided by windows server 2008 to publish programs so that they can be accessed over internet using RDC client. I am able to access the programs from the intranet domain . However, when i try from outside the college network, i am only able to see the published programs but not connect to them as i get an error saying "Remote computer cannot be connected. The certificate subject name and the gateway address requested do not match." . pls note that i have created a self -signed certificate and installed on server myself. Also, i am using the direct IPAddress of the server as the gateway address. Since i am able to access programs from with domain , i suspect it to be a simple setting with gateway or certificate. Please let me know if any further info is required on this..any help is appreciated..

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  • Installation of Access Database Engine 32-bit Fails

    - by Rayzor78
    I am trying to install Access Database Engine 2007 32-bit. The splash screen comes up, you click "Next", then it fails with the error: Installation ended prematurely because of an error You click "OK" and another error window says: The installation of the package failed. The exact same situation happens when I try this with Access Database Engine 2010 32-bit. This production server is running Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 64-bit. Before I tried installing Access Database Engine 32-bit, I first needed to install Microsoft Office 2010 Pro (Excel and Office Tools only). I tried the 32-bit version on the production server since that is how I set it up in our Dev environment. No luck. The 32-bit version would not install. I did NOT get the error "You have 64-bit components of Office installed". I simply received the exact same two errors listed above. So, I knew that 32-bit/64-bit did not really matter for the Office install for my project, so I installed 64-bit of Office Pro 2010 (Excel and Office Tools only) with no problems. I have a requirement that I need to have the 32-bit version of the Access Database Engine installed. 2007 or 2010, doesn't matter. I cannot use the 64-bit version of Access Database Engine 2010 because my SSIS package will not work with it. I require the 32-bit version. I've tried several steps to try to get it installed. I seriously think that the production server has some aversion to installing 32-bit applications. Here's what I've tried: Tried installing via command line with the "/passive" switch....no luck. Tried numerous iterations to copy the install file to the server (downloaded a fresh copy directly to the server, downloaded a fresh copy to my local machine then copied it over, copied it over zipped up) (http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/sqldataaccess/thread/efd3c1f0-07cd-45ca-a626-2dd0c7ac3e9f). Tried Method 1 from this link. Could not try Method 2 because it requires a server reboot and in my environment that requires a long change management process. I've verified that I am a local administrator on the server. (Evidence, I am able to install other applications (office 64-bit per above)). Verified that there are no other office products that should be blocking the installation. The fore-mentioned install of Excel 2010 64-bit was the first Office product installed on the server. VERY ODD: To test my theory that the production server does not like 32-bit applications, I installed something lightweight. I installed 7-Zip 32-bit on the production server with no problems whatsoever. Here are some things that I have not tried (i will follow-up once I do): Method 2 (as mentioned above). Requires a server reboot. Have not verified that the Dev and Production environments are 100% identical. I've done a cursory check and on the surface they appear to be the same (same OS and SP version). I need to do a deeper dive to be 100% certain. I had no problems in my Dev environment. In Dev, I installed Office 2010 Pro 64-bit (Excel & Office Tools only) then via command line w/ the "/passive" switch, installed Access Database Engine 2010 32-bit. I don't know what else to try. Any suggestions or comments?

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  • Virtual Network Interface and NAT disables localhost access for MySQL and Apache

    - by Interarticle
    I'm running an Ubuntu Server 12.04, and recently I configured it to do NAT for my laptop. Since the server has only one NIC, I followed instructions online to create a virtual network device (eth0:0) that has a LAN IP address, then further configured iptables and UFW to allow internet sharing. However, just a few days ago, I discovered that one of the PHP pages hosted on the server failed for no apparent reason. A little digging revealed that the MySQL server started refusing connections from localhost. The same happened with a page (PhpMyAdmin) that was configured to be accessible only from localhost (in Apache2). The error, as shown by $mysql --protocol=tcp -u root -p looks like ERROR 1130 (HY000): Host '<host name of eth0>' is not allowed to connect to this MySQL server However, the funny thing is, I configured the mysql server to allow root access from localhost (only). Moreover, the mysql server listens only on 127.0.0.1:3306, as shown by: sudo netstat -npa | head Active Internet connections (servers and established) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 1029/mysqld which means that the connection could have only come from 127.0.0.1 (Note that MySQL is working because I can still connect to it via unix domain sockets) In effect, it seems that all tcp connections originating from 127.0.0.1 to 127.0.0.1 appear to any local daemon to come from the eth0 IP address. Indeed, apache2 allowed me to access PhpMyAdmin after I added allow <eth0 IP address>. The following are my network configurations (redacted): /etc/hosts: 127.0.0.1 localhost 211.x.x.x <host name of eth0> <server name> #IPv6 Defaults follows .... /etc/network/interfaces: auto lo iface lo inet loopback auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 211.x.x.x netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 211.x.x.x dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 # dns-* options are implemented by the resolvconf package, if installed dns-search xxxxxxx.com hwaddress ether xx:xx:xx:xx:xx:xx auto eth0:0 iface eth0:0 inet static address 192.168.57.254 netmask 255.255.254.0 broadcast 192.168.57.255 network 192.168.57.0 /etc/ufw/sysctl.conf: #Uncommented the following lines net/ipv4/ip_forward=1 net/ipv6/conf/default/forwarding=1 /etc/default/ufw: DEFAULT_FORWARD_POLICY="ACCEPT" #Changed DROP to ACCEPT /etc/init/internet-sharing.conf (upstart script I wrote), section pre-start script: iptables -A FORWARD -o eth0 -i eth0:0 -s 192.168.57.22 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW -j ACCEPT iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE Note again that my problem here is that programs cannot access localhost tcp services, from the server itself, and that access is blocked because the services have access control allowing only 127.0.0.1. I have no problem connecting (as in TCP connections) to services via tcp, even if the services listen only on 127.0.0.1. I do NOT want to connect to the services from another computer.

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  • Migrating Split Access Database from one domain to another (not working, details in Q)

    - by Expo_Rob
    Some background: I'm a programmer, not a network administrator, who has been asked to migrate some accounting software (Integrated Office Accounting version 3.2) from an existing domain (OLD_NETWORK) to a new domain (NEW_NETWORK). No-body at the office knows how it works under the hood. It is a split Access 2000 database with the back-end shared and on a file server (which is also the DC) using mapped drives. The DC is NT Server 4 SP 6. The new server is server 2003. The two networks are running independently (ie: two computers on each desk). I have been able to get new computers set up on NEW_NETWORK and working with the IOA software just perfectly but for one problem: The company here uses other entirely separate databases which access the tables IOA maintains (specifically the 'customers' table) via links. To switch between these systems, you press F11 then File-Open the appropriate database and away you go (this is necessary to maintain the permissions that the IOA system uses to protect the customers table). The entire database is Access 2000, the links go to other Access databases, SQL-Server is not involved in any way, nor is a migration to SQL server likely. If I can't migrate anything over, everything will stay as it is, and the NEW_NETWORK computers will not be used. The problem: When I try and update these seperate databases (I shall call one "BANK_ACCOUNT", but the name does not matter), it says "this recordset cannot be updated". It also will sometimes not pull information out of the 'customers' table (ie: date_entered) when looking at a report of everyone who opened a bank account on a certain day (ie: today). I have tried: Giving 'everyone' full control via. shared directory permissions Giving 'everyone' full control on a file system level Checking the permissions within Access (everyone has full read/write on all tables) Copying the entire server contents from one file server to another (ie: xcopy everything) Copying the entire local client files from one computer to another, putting them in the exact same position in the file system, with the same permissons (or full control to 'everyone'). Running as an Administrator Taking one of the NEW_NETWORK computers, having it join OLD_NETWORK and run the software (direct copy from a working system with identical drive mappings), this did not work Weeping openly My Question: Is there anything else I can try? (sorry for this being so long)

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  • Apache ProxyPass with SSL

    - by BBonifield
    I have a QA setup that consists of multiple internal development servers and one world-accessible provisioning machine that is setup to proxy pass the web traffic. Everything works fine for non-SSL requests, but I'm having a hard time getting the SSL logic working as well. Here's a few example vhost blocks. <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:443> ProxyPreserveHost On SSLProxyEngine On ProxyPass / https://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev1.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyPass / http://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev1.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:443> ProxyPreserveHost On SSLProxyEngine On ProxyPass / https://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev2.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyPass / http://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev2.site.com </VirtualHost> I end up seeing the following error in the provisioner's error log. [Fri Jan 28 12:50:59 2011] [warn] [client 1.2.3.4] proxy: no HTTP 0.9 request (with no host line) on incoming request and preserve host set forcing hostname to be dev1.site.com for uri / As well as the following entry in the destination QA machine's access log. 192.168.168.101 - - [22/Feb/2011:08:34:56 -0600] "\x16\x03\x01 / HTTP/1.1" 301 326 "-" "-"

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  • Mod_Proxy_AJP set up issues

    - by TripWired
    I'm trying to set up Tomcat behind Apache using mod_proxy_ajp. After tons of messing around with the configs I am stuck at a 403 page when trying to access tomcat. I had a 404 before but apparently something I changed along the way fixed that. I'm not sure which setting to change at this point. Could anyone look over the configs I have and see if anything is missing. httpd.conf <IfModule mod_proxy.c> ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from localhost </Proxy> proxy_ajp.conf LoadModule proxy_ajp_module modules/mod_proxy_ajp.so # # When loaded, the mod_proxy_ajp module adds support for # proxying to an AJP/1.3 backend server (such as Tomcat). # To proxy to an AJP backend, use the "ajp://" URI scheme; # Tomcat is configured to listen on port 8009 for AJP requests # by default. # # # Uncomment the following lines to serve the ROOT webapp # under the /tomcat/ location, and the jsp-examples webapp # under the /examples/ location. # ProxyPass /tomcat ajp://127.0.0.1:8009/ ProxyPassReverse /tomcat ajp://127.0.0.1:8009/ ProxyPass /examples/ ajp://localhost:8009/jsp-examples/

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  • Apache mod_rewrite and mod_vhost_alias Virtual Hosts and %1

    - by Matt Wall
    I have put the main bits of my httpd.conf down below. I am using %1 to get the host field so I can dynamically add vhosts by just creating dns/folders. One problem is I need to reference this: HttpStreamingLiveEventPath "D:/FMSApps/%1" HttpStreamingContentPath "D:/FMSApps/%1" In Apache when I try say to do this: http://test.domain.com/hds-vod/myfile.mp4.f4m it sees the %1 in the logs, and fails. Apache gives me this: [error] mod_jithttp [403]: No access to D:/Content/%1/DefaultContent/eve.mp4 What I'm looking for is the D:/Content/%1/DefaultContent/eve.mp4 to become D:/Content/test/DefaultContent/eve.mp4 Anyone have any useful resources / hints etc. to help me? Meanwhile my Google searching continues...! Listen 80 ServerName main1.rtmphost.com AccessFileName .htaccess ServerSignature On UseCanonicalName Off HostnameLookups Off Timeout 120 KeepAlive On MaxKeepAliveRequests 100 KeepAliveTimeout 15 RewriteLogLevel 0 RewriteLog logs/rewrite.log DocumentRoot D:/Content LoadModule vhost_alias_module modules/mod_vhost_alias.so VirtualDocumentRoot "D:/Content/%1" RewriteEngine On <Directory /> Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all Satisfy all </Directory> <IfModule f4fhttp_module> <Location /vod> HttpStreamingEnabled true HttpStreamingContentPath "D:/FMSApps/%1" Options FollowSymLinks </Location> Redirect 301 /live/events/livepkgr/events /hds-live/livepkgr <Location /hds-live> HttpStreamingEnabled true HttpStreamingLiveEventPath "D:/FMSApps/%1" HttpStreamingContentPath "D:/FMSApps/%1" HttpStreamingF4MMaxAge 2 HttpStreamingBootstrapMaxAge 2 HttpStreamingFragMaxAge -1 Options FollowSymLinks </Location> </IfModule>

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  • AuthBasicProvider: failover not working when the first LDAP is down?

    - by quanta
    I've been trying to setup redundant LDAP servers with Apache 2.2.3. /etc/httpd/conf.d/authn_alias.conf <AuthnProviderAlias ldap master> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.148:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> <AuthnProviderAlias ldap slave> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.199:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> /etc/httpd/conf.d/authz_ldap.conf # # mod_authz_ldap can be used to implement access control and # authenticate users against an LDAP database. # LoadModule authz_ldap_module modules/mod_authz_ldap.so <IfModule mod_authz_ldap.c> <Location /> AuthBasicProvider master slave AuthzLDAPAuthoritative Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Authorization required" AuthzLDAPMemberKey member AuthUserFile /home/setup/svn/auth-conf AuthzLDAPSetGroupAuth user require valid-user AuthzLDAPLogLevel error </Location> </IfModule> If I understand correctly, mod_authz_ldap will try to search users in the second LDAP if the first server is down or OpenLDAP on it is not running. But in practice, it does not happen. Tested by stopping LDAP on the master, I get the "500 Internal Server Error" when accessing to the Subversion repository. The error_log shows: [11061] auth_ldap authenticate: user quanta authentication failed; URI / [LDAP: ldap_simple_bind_s() failed][Can't contact LDAP server] Did I misunderstand?

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  • Apache ProxyPass with SSL

    - by BBonifield
    I have a QA setup that consists of multiple internal development servers and one world-accessible provisioning machine that is setup to proxy pass the web traffic. Everything works fine for non-SSL requests, but I'm having a hard time getting the SSL logic working as well. Here's a few example vhost blocks. <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:443> ProxyPreserveHost On SSLProxyEngine On ProxyPass / https://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev1.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyPass / http://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev1.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:443> ProxyPreserveHost On SSLProxyEngine On ProxyPass / https://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev2.site.com </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 192.168.168.101:80> ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyPass / http://192.168.168.111/ ServerName dev2.site.com </VirtualHost> I end up seeing the following error in the provisioner's error log. [Fri Jan 28 12:50:59 2011] [warn] [client 1.2.3.4] proxy: no HTTP 0.9 request (with no host line) on incoming request and preserve host set forcing hostname to be dev1.site.com for uri / As well as the following entry in the destination QA machine's access log. 192.168.168.101 - - [22/Feb/2011:08:34:56 -0600] "\x16\x03\x01 / HTTP/1.1" 301 326 "-" "-"

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  • Multiple LDAP servers with mod_authn_alias: failover not working when the first LDAP is down?

    - by quanta
    I've been trying to setup redundant LDAP servers with Apache 2.2.3. /etc/httpd/conf.d/authn_alias.conf <AuthnProviderAlias ldap master> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.148:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> <AuthnProviderAlias ldap slave> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.199:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> /etc/httpd/conf.d/authz_ldap.conf # # mod_authz_ldap can be used to implement access control and # authenticate users against an LDAP database. # LoadModule authz_ldap_module modules/mod_authz_ldap.so <IfModule mod_authz_ldap.c> <Location /> AuthBasicProvider master slave AuthzLDAPAuthoritative Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Authorization required" AuthzLDAPMemberKey member AuthUserFile /home/setup/svn/auth-conf AuthzLDAPSetGroupAuth user require valid-user AuthzLDAPLogLevel error </Location> </IfModule> If I understand correctly, mod_authz_ldap will try to search users in the second LDAP if the first server is down or OpenLDAP on it is not running. But in practice, it does not happen. Tested by stopping LDAP on the master, I get the "500 Internal Server Error" when accessing to the Subversion repository. The error_log shows: [11061] auth_ldap authenticate: user quanta authentication failed; URI / [LDAP: ldap_simple_bind_s() failed][Can't contact LDAP server] Did I misunderstand? AuthBasicProvider ldap1 ldap2 only means that if mod_authz_ldap can't find the user in ldap1, it will continue with ldap2. It doesn't include the failover feature (ldap1 must be running and working fine)?

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  • Apache serving empty gzip with assets produced by Rails Asset Pipeline

    - by PizzaPill
    I followed the steps described on the blogpost The Asset Pipeline, from development to production and tweaked them to my environment. The two important files are: /etc/apache/site-available/example.com <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName example.com ServerAlias www.example.com DocumentRoot "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public" ErrorLog "/var/log/apache2/example.com-error_log" CustomLog "/var/log/apache2/example.com-access_log" common <Directory "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public"> Options All AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/var/www/sites/example.com/current/public/assets"> AllowOverride All </Directory> <LocationMatch "^/assets/.*$"> Header unset Last-Modified Header unset ETag FileETag none ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault "access plus 1 year" </LocationMatch> RewriteEngine On # Remove the www RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.example.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://example.com/$1 [R=301,L] </VirtualHost> /var/www/sites/example.com/shared/assets/.htaccess RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP:Accept-Encoding} \b(x-)?gzip\b RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}.gz -s RewriteRule ^(.+) $1.gz [L] <FilesMatch \.css\.gz$> ForceType text/css Header set Content-Encoding gzip </FilesMatch> <FilesMatch \.js\.gz$> ForceType text/javascript Header set Content-Encoding gzip </FilesMatch> But apache seems to send empty gzip files because the testsite looses all styles and firebug doesnt find any content for the css files. Altough if I call the assets-path directly I get some gibberish that looks like binary data. If I move the htaccess-file everything is back to normal. How could I find out where/what went wrong or do you have any suggestions what error I made? > apache2 -v System: Server version: Apache/2.2.14 (Ubuntu) Server built: Mar 5 2012 16:42:17 > uname -a Linux node0 2.6.18-028stab094.3 #1 SMP Thu Sep 22 12:47:37 MSD 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux

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  • Host couldn't be reached by domain name, only by IP: Apache's fault?

    - by MaxArt
    I have this Windows Server 2003 R2 32 bit machine running Apache 2.4.2 with OpenSSL 1.0.1c and PHP 5.4.5 via mod_fcgid 2.3.7. This config worked just fine for some hours, but then the site couldn't be reached with its domain name, say www.example.com, but it could be still reached by its IP address. In particular, while https://www.example.com/ yielded a connection error, http://123.1.2.3/ worked just fine. Yes, first https then http. Error and access logs were clean, i.e. they showed no signs of problems. Just the usual messages, that were interrupted while the site couldn't be reached. After some investigation, a simple restart of Apache solved the problem. Unfortunately, I didn't have the chance to test if https://123.1.2.3/ worked as well, or if http://www.example.com/ was still redirected to https as usual. So, has anyone have any idea of what happened? Before I get tired of Apache and ditch it in favor of Nginx? Edit: Some log informations. The last line of sslerror.log is from 90 minutes before the problem occurred, so I guess it's not important. ssl_request.log shows nothing interesting, too: these are the last two lines before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] x.x.x.x TLSv1.1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 1183 [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] y.y.y.y TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 73 The previous lines are all the same and don't seem interesting, except 4 lines like these 30-40 seconds before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] z.z.z.z TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "-" - These are the corrisponding lines from sslaccess.log: z.z.z.z - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] "-" 408 - ... x.x.x.x - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 200 1183 y.y.y.y - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 200 73

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  • Apache forwarding without redirecting (application won't follow redirects)

    - by DrewVS
    Recently we had to move /task to /public/task, and I'd like to configure Apache to redirect accordingly. However, using mod_rewrite, though it works in the browser, seems to break applications making api calls to the above location. What happens is the application returns a page with the message saying the page was moved, but the app doesn't follow the redirect. So, is there a way to simply forward any traffic to /task to /public/task without 'redirecting', i.e, returning a redirect status code? EDIT: Here's a little more information. I've found a simple test to clarify what I'm trying to fix. Here is the URL path that needs forwarding: https://mydomain.com/task Needs to go to: https://mydomain.com/public/task If I use curl against the original domain, it just returns a redirect page notice. If I add the -L flag, which tells curl to follow redirects, it then follows the redirect successfully. I assume something very similar is happening in the application (which I don't have access to) that makes calls to the /task URL path. Since I cannot modify the application to make it follow redirects properly, I'm looking for a solution I can implement in Apache.

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  • Portable, battery-powered, wireless access point, ethernet adapter

    - by Jed
    I am in need of an adapter that will convert an ethernet port into a wireless access point. I have found a handful of devices, but I'm unable to find a device that is battery powered. Does a self-powered wireless access point even exist? The particular scenario that I will be using the device for is not your typical computer/PC scenario. For the curious, here's a bit of background on the problem I'm trying to solve: I make devices (controllers) that monitor water systems. Our controllers have a Webserver that serves out web pages so that users can configure the controller's settings. Typically, the user will use a cross-over cable to connect directly to the controller's ethernet port with their laptop to gain access to the controller's web pages. Now that tablets (devices that don't have an ethernet port - iPad, for example) are becoming more common, I need to find a device that will convert the controller's ethernet port into a wireless access point so that the user can connect to the controller's web pages via Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. It's worth noting that this wireless device that I'm looking for will NOT be permanently installed on the controller. It will be a portable device that the user will use on any of his controllers when he needs to make a connection to the controller. If you know of a device that will solve the scenario that I mention above, please share your info.

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  • How to setup a hyper-v domain with internet access

    - by fynnbob
    First off let me say that I'm not a network admin or server guy, I know very little about that stuff. What I'm trying to do is setup a virtualized domain using hyper-V. Here is the configuration: Physical Server: 4Mb RAM Windows Server 2008 R2 running Hyper-V Virtual Environment: One Domain Controller running Windows Server 2008 R2 One Client running Windows Server 2008 R2 I have been successful in setting up a virtual domain controller and adding a virtual client to that domain controller but I'm stuck at trying to give the virtual Environment Internet access. I can give the client VM Internet access if I remove them from the virtual domain but once I add them back to the virtual domain, Internet access is gone. I've read articles describing many different ways this can be done (using RRAS with NAT, using a wireless connection, etc...) but all of those articles only cover a small piece of the setup and also seem to be geared towards people who know there way around networking and servers which I don't. I'd like to know more but my thing is software development and I have my hands full trying to keep up with everything in that realm. I simply want to setup a virtual domain with Internet access for testing. Can anyone point me to any "for Dummy's" type information on how to setup this type of environment or can anyone provide this kind of step-by-step help. Any help would be very much appreciated.

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  • MS Access 2003 - Help understanding the structure of mdb, mde and be.....

    - by Justin
    Hi. I was just wanting some explanation as to what is going on once you have split your tables out into a back end file, and set an mde out for use. When a user accesses the mde, is the mdb still required to get to the tabes (or in order to make it work)? Let say I put these access apps on a shared drive for folks to use. If I split the be end on to the shared drive, and placed the mde on the shared drive, would I the mdb have to exist for that version mde to work (communicate with the tables)? Or does the mde sort of speak to the mdb which speaks to the tables? Hope this question makes sense. Thanks

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  • How can I Export a Table in Access using VBA into a specific sheet in an Excel spreadsheet?

    - by Bryan
    I have a some tables, we will call them Table1,Table2.... and I need them to be Exported into specific spreadsheets in a macro enabled Excel File (.xlsm) that already exists. So I would need to put Table1 into Sheet2, Table2 into Sheet3... and so on. I had been doing this manually by going to the export menu in Access but it is getting monotonous so I would like to automate the process. The Excel file will already have code in each spreadsheet which would need to still be intact.

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  • How do I chain forms in Access? (pass values between them)

    - by jeff porter
    Hello, I'm using Access 2007 and have a data model like this... Passenger - Bookings - Destinations So 1 Passenger can have Many Bookings, each for 1 Destinations. My problem... I can create a form to allow the entry of Passenger details, but I then want to add a NEXT button to take me to a form to enter the details of the Booking (i.e. just a simple drop list of the Destinations). I've added the NEXT button and it has the events of RunCommand SaveRecord OpenForm Destination_form BUT, I cant work out how to pass accross to the new form the primary key of the passenger that was just entered (PassengerID). I'd really like to have just one form, and that allow the entry of the Passenger details and the selection of a Destination, that then creates the entries in the 2 Tables (Passenger & Bookings), but I can't get that to work either. Can anyone help me out please? Thanks Jeff Porter

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