Search Results

Search found 31989 results on 1280 pages for 'method'.

Page 130/1280 | < Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >

  • Is there a better way to create a generic convert string to enum method or enum extension?

    - by Kelsey
    I have the following methods in an enum helper class (I have simplified it for the purpose of the question): static class EnumHelper { public enum EnumType1 : int { Unknown = 0, Yes = 1, No = 2 } public enum EnumType2 : int { Unknown = 0, Dog = 1, Cat = 2, Bird = 3 } public enum EnumType3 : int { Unknown = 0, iPhone = 1, Andriod = 2, WindowsPhone7 = 3, Palm = 4 } public static EnumType1 ConvertToEnumType1(string value) { return (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) ? EnumType1.Unknown : (EnumType1)(Enum.Parse(typeof(EnumType1), value, true)); } public static EnumType2 ConvertToEnumType2(string value) { return (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) ? EnumType2.Unknown : (EnumType2)(Enum.Parse(typeof(EnumType2), value, true)); } public static EnumType3 ConvertToEnumType3(string value) { return (string.IsNullOrEmpty(value)) ? EnumType3.Unknown : (EnumType3)(Enum.Parse(typeof(EnumType3), value, true)); } } So the question here is, can I trim this down to an Enum extension method or maybe some type of single method that can handle any type. I have found some examples to do so with basic enums but the difference in my example is all the enums have the Unknown item that I need returned if the string is null or empty (if no match is found I want it to fail). Looking for something like the following maybe: EnumType1 value = EnumType1.Convert("Yes"); // or EnumType1 value = EnumHelper.Convert(EnumType1, "Yes"); One function to do it all... how to handle the Unknown element is the part that I am hung up on.

    Read the article

  • Why can I run JUnit tests for my Spring project, but not a main method?

    - by FarmBoy
    I am using JDBC to connect to MySQL for a small application. In order to test without altering the real database, I'm using HSQL in memory for JUnit tests. I'm using Spring for DI and DAOs. Here is how I'm configuring my HSQL DataSource <bean id="mockDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.SingleConnectionDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:hsqldb:mem:mockSeo"/> <property name="username" value="sa"/> </bean> This works fine for my JUnit tests which use the mock DB. But when I try to run a main method, I find the following error: Error creating bean with name 'mockDataSource' defined in class path resource [beans.xml]: Error setting property values; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.PropertyBatchUpdateException; nested PropertyAccessExceptions (1) are: PropertyAccessException 1: org.springframework.beans.MethodInvocationException: Property 'driverClassName' threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Could not load JDBC driver class [org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver] I'm running from Eclipse, and I'm using the Maven plugin. Is there a reason why this would work as a Test, but not as a main()? I know that the main method itself is not the problem, because it works if I remove all references to the HSQL DataSource from my Spring Configuration file.

    Read the article

  • How to get the path of a derived class from an inherited method?

    - by Jacco
    How to get the path of the current class, from an inherited method? I have the following: <?php // file: /parentDir/class.php class Parent { protected function getDir() { return dirname(__FILE__); } } ?> and <?php // file: /childDir/class.php class Child extends Parent { public function __construct() { echo $this->getDir(); } } $tmp = new Child(); // output: '/parentDir' ?> The __FILE__ constant always points to the source-file of the file it is in, regardless of inheritance. I would like to get the name of the path for the derived class. Is there any elegant way of doing this? I could do something along the lines of $this->getDir(__FILE__); but that would mean that I have to repeat myself quite often. I'm looking for a method that puts all the logic in the parent class, if possible. Update: Accepted solution (by Palantir): <?php // file: /parentDir/class.php class Parent { protected function getDir() { $reflector = new ReflectionClass(get_class($this)); return dirname($reflector->getFileName()); } } ?>

    Read the article

  • How do you unit test a method containing a LINQ expression?

    - by Phil.Wheeler
    I'm struggling to get my head around how to accommodate a mocked method that only accepts a Linq expression as its argument. Specifically, the repository I'm using has a First() method that looks like this: public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> expression) { return All().Where(expression).FirstOrDefault(); } The difficulty I'm encountering is with my MSpec tests, where I'm (probably incorrectly) trying to mock that call: public abstract class with_userprofile_repository { protected static Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>> repository; Establish context = () => { repository = new Mock<IRepository<UserProfile>>(); repository.Setup<UserProfile>(x => x.First(up => up.OpenID == @"http://testuser.myopenid.com")).Returns(GetDummyUser()); }; protected static UserProfile GetDummyUser() { UserProfile p = new UserProfile(); p.OpenID = @"http://testuser.myopenid.com"; p.FirstName = "Joe"; p.LastLogin = DateTime.Now.Date.AddDays(-7); p.LastName = "Bloggs"; p.Email = "[email protected]"; return p; } } I run into trouble because it's not enjoying the Linq expression: System.NotSupportedException: Expression up = (up.OpenID = "http://testuser.myopenid.com") is not supported. So how does one test these sorts of scenarios?

    Read the article

  • In ParallelPython, a method of an object ( object.func() ) fails to manipulate a variable of an object ( object.value )

    - by mehmet.ali.anil
    With parallelpython, I am trying to convert my old serial code to parallel, which heavily relies on objects that have methods that change that object's variables. A stripped example in which I omit the syntax in favor of simplicity: class Network: self.adjacency_matrix = [ ... ] self.state = [ ... ] self.equilibria = [ ... ] ... def populate_equilibria(self): # this function takes every possible value that self.state can be in # runs the boolean dynamical system # and writes an integer within self.equilibria for each self.state # doesn't return anything I call this method as: Code: j1 = jobserver.submit(net2.populate_equilibria,(),(),("numpy as num")) The job is sumbitted, and I know that a long computation takes place, so I speculate that my code is ran. The problem is, i am new to parallelpython , I was expecting that, when the method is called, the variable net2.equilibria would be written accordingly, and I would get a revised object (net2) . That is how my code works, independent objects with methods that act upon the object's variables. Rather, though the computation is apparent, and reasonably timed, the variable net2.equilibria remains unchanged. As if PP only takes the function and the object, computes it elsewhere, but never returns the object, so I am left with the old one. What do I miss? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to call a .NET COM method with an array from delphi using PSafeArray?

    - by Sebastian Godelet
    Hello. I have an .NET (4.0) interface which is implemented with a ServicedComponent COM+ class: interface DotNetIface { void MethodRef(var System.Guid guid); void MethodArray(System.Guid[] guids, params object[] parameters); void MethodCStyle([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray, ArraySubType=UnmanagedType.Struct, SizeConst=5)]System.Guid[] guids); } Now I used the Delphi 2007 import wizard to import the type library, and as expected I get the following signatures: procedure MethodRef(var guid : TGuid); procedure MethodArray(guids : PSafeArray); procedure MethodCStyle(var guids : ClrGuid /* from mscorlib_TLB */); If i now call the "ref" method like this it works fine: procedure CallByRef(guid : TGuid); var test : TGuid; begin test := ... comRef.MethodRef(guid); end; Now I also need the array method procedure CallArray(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayVariant : OleVariant; begin arrayVariant := VarArrayCreate([0,4], varVariant /* dont know here */); arrayVariant[0] := localGuid; /* compile error, cannot cast implicitly */ comRef.MethodArray(PSafeArray(TVarData(arrayVariant.VArray)), /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; Now lastly i tried with a c array procedure CallCStyle(); var localGuid : TGuid; arrayOfGuid : array [0..4] of ClrGuid; begin arrayOfGuid[0] := ClrGuid(localGuid); comRef.MethodCStyle(PSafeArray(/* now i dont know put it*/, /* here this object... PSafeArray works actually*/); end; I seriously dont know how to make this work. I hope someone has more experience with COM marshalling thx Side node: I found VT_CLSID which i think can be passed for SafeArrayCreate, but I am not sure how to sue that

    Read the article

  • Why a "private static" is not seen in a method?

    - by Roman
    I have a class with the following declaration of the fields: public class Game { private static String outputFileName; .... } I set the value of the outputFileName in the main method of the class. I also have a write method in the class which use the outputFileName. I always call write after main sets value for outputFileName. But write still does not see the value of the outputFileName. It say that it's equal to null. Could anybody, pleas, tell me what I am doing wrong? ADDED As it is requested I post more code: In the main: String outputFileName = userName + "_" + year + "_" + month + "_" + day + "_" + hour + "_" + minute + "_" + second + "_" + millis + ".txt"; f=new File(outputFileName); if(!f.exists()){ try { f.createNewFile(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } System.out.println("IN THE MAIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!"); System.out.println("------>" + outputFileName + "<------"); This line outputs me the name of the file. Than in the write I have: public static void write(String output) { // Open a file for appending. System.out.println("==========>" + outputFileName + "<============"); ...... } And it outputs null.

    Read the article

  • With PascalMock how do I mock a method with an untyped out parameter and an open array parameter?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all?

    Read the article

  • Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

    - by Alex Worden
    Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to restrict access to a public method to only a specific class in C#?

    - by Anon
    I have a class A with a public method in C#. I want to allow access to this method to only class B. Is this possible? UPDATE: This is what i'd like to do: public class Category { public int NumberOfInactiveProducts {get;} public IList<Product> Products {get;set;} public void ProcessInactiveProduct() { // do things... NumberOfInactiveProducts++; } } public class Product { public bool Inactive {get;} public Category Category {get;set;} public void SetInactive() { this.Inactive= true; Category.ProcessInactiveProduct(); } } I'd like other programmers to do: var prod = Repository.Get<Product>(id); prod.SetInactive(); I'd like to make sure they don't call ProcessInactiveProduct manually: var prod = Repository.Get<Product>(id); prod.SetInactive(); prod.Category.ProcessInactiveProduct(); I want to allow access of Category.ProcessInactiveProduct to only class Product. Other classes shouldn't be able to call Category.ProcessInactiveProduct.

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC 3 - How come @ResponseBody method renders a JSTLView?

    - by Ken Chen
    I have mapped one of my method in one Controller to return JSON object by @ResponseBody. @RequestMapping("/{module}/get/{docId}") public @ResponseBody Map<String, ? extends Object> get(@PathVariable String module, @PathVariable String docId) { Criteria criteria = new Criteria("_id", docId); return genericDAO.getUniqueEntity(module, true, criteria); } However, it redirects me to the JSTLView instead. Say, if the {module} is product and {docId} is 2, then in the console I found: DispatcherServlet with name 'xxx' processing POST request for [/xxx/product/get/2] Rendering view [org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView: name 'product/get/2'; URL [/WEB-INF/views/jsp/product/get/2.jsp]] in DispatcherServlet with name 'xxx' How can that be happened? In the same Controller, I have another method similar to this but it's running fine: @RequestMapping("/{module}/list") public @ResponseBody Map<String, ? extends Object> list(@PathVariable String module, @RequestParam MultiValueMap<String, String> params, @RequestParam(value = "page", required = false) Integer pageNumber, @RequestParam(value = "rows", required = false) Integer recordPerPage) { ... return genericDAO.list(module, criterias, orders, pageNumber, recordPerPage); } Above do returns correctly providing me a list of objects I required. Anyone to help me solve the mystery?

    Read the article

  • How to troubleshoot memcache set method always fail issue?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I have XAMPP 1.7.3 installed on Windows 7. The PHP version is 5.3.1. I have successfully installed memcache for win32 from http://www.splinedancer.com/memcached-win32. I got PHP extension php_memcache.dll from http://downloads.php.net/pierre. Restarting apache and checking phpinfo() shows memcache is OK. When I test it with below PHP page. It always fail in set method. <?php $memcache = new Memcache; $memcache->connect('127.0.0.1', 11211) or die ("Could not connect"); $version = $memcache->getVersion(); echo "Server's version: ".$version." \n"; $tmp_object = new stdClass; $tmp_object->str_attr = 'test'; $tmp_object->int_attr = 123; $memcache->set('key', $tmp_object, false, 10) or die ("Failed to save data at the server"); echo "Store data in the cache (data will expire in 10 seconds)\n"; $get_result = $memcache->get('key'); echo "Data from the cache: \n" ?> The set method always return false so it constantly output Server's version: Failed to save data at the server I'm stuck. I don't know which way to trouble shoot this issue. Anybody has any idea about possible direction? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • non static method cannot be referenced from a static context.

    - by David
    First some code: import java.util.*; ... class TicTacToe { ... public static void main (String[]arg) { Random Random = new Random() ; toerunner () ; // this leads to a path of methods that eventualy gets us to the rest of the code } ... public void CompTurn (int type, boolean debug) { ... boolean done = true ; int a = 0 ; while (!done) { a = Random.nextInt(10) ; if (debug) { int i = 0 ; while (i<20) { System.out.print (a+", ") ; i++; }} if (possibles[a]==1) done = true ; } this.board[a] = 2 ; } ... } //to close the class Here is the error message: TicTacToe.java:85: non-static method nextInt(int) cannot be referenced from a static context a = Random.nextInt(10) ; ^ What exactly went wrong? What does that error message "non static method cannot be referenced from a static context" mean?

    Read the article

  • Iphone SDK quesiton: How to make a Drawing method in a View class work using CGContextRef?

    - by SimpleCode
    I have these 2 methods in the View class. the drawRect method always gets called when the view is initalized. But i can't get the drawLine method to work. It doesn't do anything when it gets called. Am i supposed to deal with cgimagecontext or something like that? please help!! (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code // Drawing code CGContextRef contextRef = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //CGContextSetRGBFillColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 255, 1); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 0, 1); CGContextSetLineWidth(contextRef, 5.0); CGContextBeginPath(contextRef); CGContextMoveToPoint(contextRef, 0, 0); CGContextAddLineToPoint(contextRef, 320, 480); CGContextStrokePath(contextRef); } -(void)drawLine:(CGPoint)from to:(CGPoint) to { // Drawing code CGContextRef contextRef = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //CGContextSetRGBFillColor(contextRef, 0, 0, 255, 1); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(contextRef, 0, 128, 0, 1); CGContextSetLineWidth(contextRef, 5.0); CGContextBeginPath(contextRef); CGContextMoveToPoint(contextRef, 0, 0); CGContextAddLineToPoint(contextRef, 320, 50); CGContextStrokePath(contextRef); }

    Read the article

  • How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

    - by Oliver Giesen
    I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

    Read the article

  • How do I return an array from a method?

    - by dwwilson66
    I'm trying to create a deck of cards for my homework. Code is posted below. I need to create four sets of cards (the four suits) and am create a multidimensional array. When I print the results instead of trying to pass the array, I can see that the data in the array is as expected. However, when I try to pass the array card, I get an error cannot find symbol. I've got this modeled after texbook and Java tutorial examples, and I need some help figuring out what I'm missing. I've over-documented to give an idea of how I'm thinking this SHOULD work...please let me know where I've gone horribly wrong in my understanding. import java.util.*; import java.lang.*; // public class CardGame { public static int[][] main(String[] args) { int[][] startDeck = deckOfCards(); /* cast new deck as int[][], calling method deckOfCards System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(startDeck)); } public static int[][] deckOfCards() /* method to return a multi-dimensional array */ { int rank; int suit; for(rank=1;rank<14;rank++) /* cards 1 - 13 .... */ { for(suit=1;suit<5;suit++) /* suits 1 - 4 .... */ { int[][] card = new int[][] /* define a new card... */ { {rank,suit} /* with rank/suit from for... loops */ }; System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(card)); } } return card; /* Error: cannot find symbol } }

    Read the article

  • Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

    - by Adam Lassek
    I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

    Read the article

  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • C# Virtual method call in constructor - how to refactor?

    - by Cristi Diaconescu
    I have an abstract class for database-agnostic cursor actions. Derived from that, there are classes that implement the abstract methods for handling database-specific stuff. The problem is, the base class ctor needs to call an abstract method - when the ctor is called, it needs to initialize the database-specific cursor. I know why this shouldn't be done, I don't need that explanation! This is my first implementation, that obviously doesn't work - it's the textbook "wrong way" of doing it. The overridden method accesses a field from the derived class, which is not yet instantiated: public abstract class CursorReader { private readonly int m_rowCount; protected CursorReader() { m_rowCount = CreateCursor(sqlCmd); //virtual call ! } protected abstract int CreateCursor(string sqlCmd); } public class SqlCursorReader : CursorReader { private SqlConnection m_sqlConnection; public SqlCursorReader(string sqlCmd, SqlConnection sqlConnection) { m_sqlConnection = sqlConnection; //field initialized here } protected override int CreateCursor(string sqlCmd) { //uses not-yet-initialized member *m_sqlConnection* //so this throws a NullReferenceException var cursor = new CustomCursor(sqlCmd, m_sqlConnection); return cursor.Count(); } } I will follow up with an answer on my attempts to fix this...

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

    Read the article

  • Javascript (using jQuery) in a large Project... organization, passing data, private method, etc.

    - by gaoshan88
    I'm working on a large project that is organized like so: Multiple javascript files are included as needed and most code is wrapped in anonymous functions... // wutang.js //Included Files Go Here // Public stuff var MethodMan; // Private stuff (function() { var someVar1; MethodMan = function(){...}; var APrivateMethod = function(){...}; $(function(){ //jquery page load stuff here $('#meh').click(APrivateMethod); }); })(); I'm wondering about a few things here. Assuming that there are a number of these files included on a page, what has access to what and what is the best way to pass data between the files? For example, I assume that MethodMan() can be accessed by anything on any included page. It is public, yes? var someVar1 is only accessible to the methods inside that particular anonymous function and nowhere else, yes? Also true of var APrivateMethod(), yes? What if I want APrivateMethod() to make something available to some other method in a different anonymous wrapped method in a different included page. What's the best way to pass data between these private, anonymous functions on different included pages? Do I simply have to make whatever I want to use between them public? How about if I want to minimize global variables? What about the following: var PootyTang = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some stuff }; and in another included file used by that same page I have: var TangyPoot = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some completely different stuff }; What's the best way to share the value of someVar1 across these anonymous (they are wrapped as the first example) functions?

    Read the article

  • Can a PHP object respond to an undefined method?

    - by Nathan Long
    Rails relies on some of the neat aspects of Ruby. One of those is the ability to respond to an undefined method. Consider a relationship between Dog and Owner. Owner has_many :dogs and Dog belongs_to :owner. If you go into script/console, get a dog object with fido = Dog.find(1), and look at that object, you won't see a method or attribute called Owner. What you will see is an owner_id. And if you ask for fido.owner, the object will do something like this (at least, this is how it appears to me): I'm being asked for my .owner attribute. I don't have one of those! Before I throw a NoMethodError, do I have a rule about how to deal with this? Yes, I do: I should check and see if I have an owner_id. I do! OK, then I'll do a join and return that owner object. PHP's documentation is - ahem - a bit lacking sometimes, so I wonder if anyone here knows the answer to this: Can I define similar behavior for objects in PHP? If not, do you know of a workaround for flexible model joins like these?

    Read the article

  • Why is Excel's 'Evaluate' method a general expression evaluator?

    - by jtolle
    A few questions have come up recently involving the Application.Evaluate method callable from Excel VBA. The old XLM macro language also exposes an EVALUATE() function. Both can be quite useful. Does anyone know why the evaluator that is exposed can handle general expressions, though? My own hunch is that Excel needed to give people a way to get ranges from string addresses, and to get the value of named formulas, and just opening a portal to the expression evaluator was the easiest way. (The help for the VBA version does say its purpose it to "convert a Microsoft Excel name to an object or a value".) But of course you don't need the ability to evaluate arbitrary expressions just to do that. (That is, Excel could provide a Name.Evaluate method or something instead.) Application.Evaluate seems kind of...unfinished. It's full behavior isn't very well documented, and there are quite a few quirks and limitations (as described by Charles Williams here: http://www.decisionmodels.com/calcsecretsh.htm) with what is exposed. I suppose the answer could be simply "why not expose it?", but I'd be interested to know what design decisions led to this feature taking the form that it does. Failing that, I'd be interested to hear other hunches.

    Read the article

  • Cross-browser method for getting width and height of a DIV?

    - by thinkthank
    This is my first post, so please go easy on me. I'm sure I'm doing everything wrong. However, I couldn't find any posts that answered the question above. I use jQuery. I'm trying to find a way to get the current width and height of a DIV element, even if they're set to "auto". I've found many ways to do this, but no method returns the same width in IE. It is important that this method is cross-browser, as it will break the layout of the page if different numbers are returned in different browsers. .width() and .height() do not work because in IE, padding is subtracted (e.g. width() returns 25 where width is 30 and padding is 5). .outerWidth() and .outerHeight() are not consistent either. While they work IE (believe it or not) in FF, the padding is added again to the full width (e.g. outerWidth() returns 110 in FF where width is 100px and padding is 10px). Is there any way out of this mess without writing complex browser checks? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >