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  • Specifying a Postfix Instance to send outbound email

    - by Catherine Jefferson
    I have a CentOS 6.5 server running Postfix 2.6x (the default distribution) with five public IPv4 IPs bound to it. Each IP has DNS and rDNS set separately. Each uses a different hostname at a different domain. I have five Postfix instances, one bound to each IP, like this example: 192.168.34.104 red.example.com /etc/postfix 192.168.36.48 green.example.net /etc/postfix-green 192.168.36.49 pink.example.org /etc/postfix-pink 192.168.36.50 orange.example.info /etc/postfix-orange 192.168.36.51 blue.example.us /etc/postfix-blue I've tested each IP by telneting to port 25. Postfix answers and banners properly with the correct hostname. Email is received on all of these instances with no problems and is routed to the correct place. This setup, minus the final instance, has existed for a couple of years and works. I never bothered to set up outbound email to go through any but the main instance, however; there was no need. Now I need to send email from blue.example.us that actually leaves from that interface and IP, such that the Received headers show blue.example.us as the sending mailhost, so that SPF and DKIM validate, etc etc. The email that will be sent from blue.example.com is a feedback loop sent by a single shell account on the server (account5), an account that is dedicated to sending this email. The account receives the feedback loop emails from servers on other networks, saves the bodies of those emails, and then generates a new outbound email header, appends the saved body, and sends the email. It's sending by piping each email to sendmail -oi -t. We're doing it this way to mask the identities of the initial servers. The procmail script that processes these emails works correctly. However, I cannot configure this account to send email through the proper Postfix instance/IP/interface. The exact same account and script sends email through the main Postfix instance /etc/postfix without any issues. When I change MAIL_CONFIG to point to /etc/postfix-blue in either .bash_profile or the Procmail script that handles this email, though, I get this error: sendmail: fatal: User account5(###) is not allowed to submit mail I've read the manuals on Postfix.org, searched Google, and tried the suggestions in three previous answers here on ServerFault.com: Postfix - specify interface to deliver outbound mail on Postfix user is not allowed to submit mail Postfix rejects php mails I have been careful to stop and restart Postfix after each configuration change, and tested the results. Nothing has worked. The main postfix instance happily accepts outbound email from account5. The postfix-blue instance continues to reject email from account5 with the sendmail error above. As tempting as it is to blame machine hostility, I know that I must be missing something or doing something wrong. Does anybody have any suggestions as to what it might be? Please feel free to ask for further information about my setup if you need it. =-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-=-= At the request of the responder, here are main.cf and master.cf for a) the main postfix instance ("red.example.com") and b) the FBL instance ("blue.example.us") [NOTE: All parameters not specified below were left at the default Postfix 2.6 settings] MAIN: master.cf smtp inet n - n - - smtpd main.cf myhostname = red.example.com mydomain = example.com inet_interfaces = $myhostname, localhost inet_protocols = all lmtp_host_lookup = native smtp_host_lookup = native ignore_mx_lookup_error = yes mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$mydomain, localhost local_recipient_maps = mynetworks = 192.168.34.104/32 relay_domains = example.com, example.info, example.net, example.org, example.us relayhost = [192.168.34.102] # Separate physical server, main mailserver. relay_recipient_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/relay_recipients alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name multi_instance_wrapper = ${command_directory}/postmulti -p -- multi_instance_enable = yes multi_instance_directories = /etc/postfix-green /etc/postfix-pink /etc/postfix-orange /etc/postfix-blue FBL: master.cf 184.173.119.103:25 inet n - n - - smtpd main.cf myhostname = blue.example.us mydomain = blue.example.us <= Deliberately set to subdomain only. myorigin = $mydomain inet_interfaces = $myhostname lmtp_host_lookup = native smtp_host_lookup = native ignore_mx_lookup_error = yes mydestination = $myhostname local_recipient_maps = unix:passwd.byname $alias_maps $virtual_alias_maps mynetworks = 192.168.36.51/32, 192.168.35.20/31 <= Second IP is backup MX servers relay_domains = $mydestination recipient_canonical_maps = hash:/etc/postfix-blue/canonical virtual_alias_maps = hash:/etc/postfix-fbl/virtual alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases, hash:/etc/postfix-blue/canonical alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases, hash:/etc/postfix-blue/canonical mailbox_command = /usr/bin/procmail -a "$EXTENSION" DEFAULT=$HOME/Mail/ MAILDIR=$HOME/Mail smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name authorized_submit_users = multi_instance_name = postfix-blue multi_instance_enable = yes

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  • I am starting to think that Prevx.com isnt a legit site...but heres my long-winded question

    - by cop1152
    I apologize in advance for the long-winded post. I posted it all because I believe its informative and may be useful. Also, I posted my question at the end. Moments ago I was RDC to a file server in my home (from inside my home). I had opened Firefox and Googled for a manufacturers website. Immediately after clicking the link, Firefox abruptly closed. This seemed odd to me to so I checked the running processes and discovered d.exe, e.exe, and f.exe running. I Googled these processes on a different machine and found them belonging to a key-logger/screen-capturer/trojan called defender.exe, which according to the Prevx lives in c:\documents and settings\user\local settings\temp. (Prevx link http://www.prevx.com/filenames/147352809685142526-X1/DEFENDER32.EXE.html) Simultaneously, an obviously-spoofed Windows Firewall popup appeared on the server asking me to click ‘yes’ to update Windows Firewall. At this time I ended all rogue processes, emptied the temp folder, removed defender.exe from startup, and checked my registry and a few other locations. Before deleting Defender.exe I noted that it was created moments ago, just before Firefox crashed. I believe that I was ‘almost’ infected with this malware. I believe that it needed me to click the phony popup in order to complete infection because it wasn’t allowed to execute processes from the temp folder. After cleaning the machine, I restarted it and have been monitoring it for over an hour. I am debating on whether or not to restore the Windows partition (a separate physical drive from the data) or to just watch it for awhle. I should mention that, because of the specs on this machine, I do not run antivirus software, but I know it well and inspect it regularly. It is a very old Compaq with a 400mhz processer and 512mb of ram. I have a static IP and the server is in the DMZ running an FTP client and some HTTP server software. All files transferred to and stored on this machine are scanned for malware before transferring. Usually the machine only runs 19 processes and performs pretty well for its intended purpose. I posted the story so that you could be aware of a possible new piece of malware and how it acts, but I also have a question or two. First, over the last few months I have noticed that PREVX is listed at the top of most of my Google searches when researching malware, especially for new or obscure malware…and they always want you to purchase something. I don’t think they are one of the top AV companies, so it seems odd that they are always the top Google result. Does anyone have any experience with any of their products? Also, what sites do you rely on for malware researching? Recently, I have found it difficult to find good info because of HijackThis-logs and other deadend info cluttering up my searches. And lastly, besides antivirus, third-party firewall, etc, what settings would you use to lock down a machine to make it more secure in instances where a stubborn admin like myself refuses to run AV? Thanks.

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  • WNDR3700 Router + Cisco SG200-08 + LACP + Dual Uplink

    - by kobaltz
    Background I have a storage server that has several virtual machine images stored on them. I would store them locally, but I have limited space on my desktop (using SSD storage). I would like to increase the bandwidth between the desktop and the storage server by using two NICs on each computer. My original configuration allowed about 55MBps between the desktop and storage server. This storage server also has several TBs of documents, pictures, movies, vms, and ISO/programs. The storage server has 8 1.5TB hard drives in a RAID 10 configuration with a hardware RAID controller. The benchmarks on the RAID 10 are about 300MBps. Configuration In short, I am trying to bridge my switch and router. The switch is a small 8 port Cisco smart switch that supports 802.3ad LACP. I have two computers plugged into the switch, each with 2 Intel Gigabit NICs. The first computer is a Windows 7 machine that has the Intel ANS software installed. I have LACP configured with the computer and now show 3 NICs (2 Physical + 1 TEAM Virtual @ 2Gbps). It looks like this computer is configured correctly. I trunked the two ports that this computer is plugged into with the switch's web interface. The second computer is a homebrew storage box running debian. I also have the bonding enabled on this machine and the switch configured with LACP. Without having the WNDR3700 router in the picture yet, I am able to communicate between the Windows 7 machine and the debian box since they both have static IP addresses. With LACP enabled on both machines I am getting about 106-108MBps speeds. Issue I plug in a network cable from the switch into the router and enable DHCP on the desktop. I saw no need to have a static address on the desktop. My transfer rates are still from 106MBps-108MBps. While this is still a boost, I am trying to figure out how to get about 140-180MBps. I am thinking that I need to increase the bandwidth from the router to the switch. My switch allows 4 groups for port trunking. I plugged in a second network cable from the router to the switch. My question is, what is the proper way to fix this issue. Should I port trunk the two ports that are going from the switch to the router? Keep in mind that the router is a WNDR3700 and is unsure whether or not it supports LACP. I do have OpenWRT installed on the router, but it still wasn't clear in any documentation that I found if it supported 802.3ad LACP standards. I am also wondering if there needs to be anything changed within the Cisco settings. [Edit] - Corrected some numbers, wasn't really paying attention. It looks like the speeds though at least two NICs are bonded with LACP is still reaching the max bandwidth of one port. Is there a way to configure the switch so that I can increase this bandwidth? Also, on the storage server, I had a couple of extra NICs laying around and threw them on there as well. Another EDIT and More Findings I happened to look at the traffic of each individual NIC and think that I see the problem. I tested with a simple transfer for a 4GB file. I noticed that only one of the NICs was taking the load of the traffic. I then copied the file back to the Storage Server and noticed that the other NIC was sending out the traffic. I have 802.3ad LACP enabled on the two NICs and I see that it gets enabled dynamically on the switch's interface. Should I be using Static Link Aggregation?

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  • Distributed and/or Parallel SSIS processing

    - by Jeff
    Background: Our company hosts SaaS DSS applications, where clients provide us data Daily and/or Weekly, which we process & merge into their existing database. During business hours, load in the servers are pretty minimal as it's mostly users running simple pre-defined queries via the website, or running drill-through reports that mostly hit the SSAS OLAP cube. I manage the IT Operations Team, and so far this has presented an interesting "scaling" issue for us. For our daily-refreshed clients, the server is only "busy" for about 4-6 hrs at night. For our weekly-refresh clients, the server is only "busy" for maybe 8-10 hrs per week! We've done our best to use some simple methods of distributing the load by spreading the daily clients evenly among the servers such that we're not trying to process daily clients back-to-back over night. But long-term this scaling strategy creates two notable issues. First, it's going to consume a pretty immense amount of hardware that sits idle for large periods of time. Second, it takes significant Production Support over-head to basically "schedule" the ETL such that they don't over-lap, and move clients/schedules around if they out-grow the resources on a particular server or allocated time-slot. As the title would imply, one option we've tried is running multiple SSIS packages in parallel, but in most cases this has yielded VERY inconsistent results. The most common failures are DTExec, SQL, and SSAS fighting for physical memory and throwing out-of-memory errors, and ETLs running 3,4,5x longer than expected. So from my practical experience thus far, it seems like running multiple ETL packages on the same hardware isn't a good idea, but I can't be the first person that doesn't want to scale multiple ETLs around manual scheduling, and sequential processing. One option we've considered is virtualizing the servers, which obviously doesn't give you any additional resources, but moves the resource contention onto the hypervisor, which (from my experience) seems to manage simultaneous CPU/RAM/Disk I/O a little more gracefully than letting DTExec, SQL, and SSAS battle it out within Windows. Question to the forum: So my question to the forum is, are we missing something obvious here? Are there tools out there that can help manage running multiple SSIS packages on the same hardware? Would it be more "efficient" in terms of parallel execution if instead of running DTExec, SQL, and SSAS same machine (with every machine running that configuration), we run in pairs of three machines with SSIS running on one machine, SQL on another, and SSAS on a third? Obviously that would only make sense if we could process more than the three ETL we were able to process on the machine independently. Another option we've considered is completely re-architecting our SSIS package to have one "master" package for all clients that attempts to intelligently chose a server based off how "busy" it already is in terms of CPU/Memory/Disk utilization, but that would be a herculean effort, and seems like we're trying to reinvent something that you would think someone would sell (although I haven't had any luck finding it). So in summary, are we missing an obvious solution for this, and does anyone know if any tools (for free or for purchase, doesn't matter) that facilitate running multiple SSIS ETL packages in parallel and on multiple servers? (What I would call a "queue & node based" system, but that's not an official term). Ultimately VMWare's Distributed Resource Scheduler addresses this as you simply run a consistent number of clients per VM that you know will never conflict scheduleing-wise, then leave it up to VMWare to move the VMs around to balance out hardware usage. I'm definitely not against using VMWare to do this, but since we're a 100% Microsoft app stack, it seems like -someone- out there would have solved this problem at the application layer instead of the hypervisor layer by checking on resource utilization at the OS, SQL, SSAS levels. I'm open to ANY discussion on this, and remember no suggestion is too crazy or radical! :-) Right now, VMWare is the only option we've found to get away from "manually" balancing our resources, so any suggestions that leave us on a pure Microsoft stack would be great. Thanks guys, Jeff

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  • How to install Delorme StreetAtlas (any version) + GPS inside VirtualBox VM?

    - by hotei
    When I try to run the install program I get a popup message that says the installer program is not a valid executable. Background: I want a GPS with maps on my laptop running Ubuntu 10.4LTS. Unfortunately I can't find a decent native Linux GPS solution with 50 state US street level coverage. I have VirtualBox VMs available for WinXP and Win7 (among others). The VMs work fine with MicroSoft Streets and Trips (2010) and MapNGo 5 (a very! old Delorme product), but while both these products support GPS, they don't support the Earthmate LT-40 USB GPS I already have. I've got pretty much every Delorme Street Atlas they've released in the last decade and none of them will install in a VM. Any help would be much appreciated. Clarification: I've installed the Delorme products from these CDs before and the disks are fine - as long as installation is done on a "physical" machine. Added: I've tried install from an iso as well as the real CD. No difference in result (setup.exe is not a valid executable) The WinXP is SP-2 (held back on purpose at this point - I'll snapshot and fork a later SP to test). The Win2K is SP-6a. Win7(32) VM is whatever updates came out last week. The USB setup is working at least to the point where the GPS device is active in the device list (has an x in the box). At this point its not relevant because the program that needs to read it can't even be installed. Added 9-19: Added wine as harrymc suggested. Initial result was no change. Here's wines error message. The file '/media/Disk1/setup.exe' is not marked as executable. If this was downloaded or copied form an untrusted source, it may be dangerous to run. For more details, read about the executable bit. At first I thought the execute bit was the problem, but looking at several other windows CDs I see that the execute bit is not set on their exe files (which install to VM without error). Still it was worth a shot so I copied the StreetAtlas 9 DVD to my hard disk, changed the on-disk exe files to have the execute bit set and tried to install again. This time the install via wine got me through the installation process. When I start the program it bombs immediately, so we haven't made much real progress so far. I very much prefer the VM solution to wine, so I'm going back to that for now. To recap the VM situation, using an updated XP with SP3 and all recommended hotfixes: StreetAtlas 2009 USA fails with "not marked as executable". StreetAtlas 2007 USA fails with "not marked as executable". StreetAtlas 9 (copyright 2001) fails with "not marked as executable". SteeetAtlas (copyright 1991) fails with "not marked as executable" Delorme Topo 4 (copyright 2002) fails with "not marked as executable". Just about ready to give up. So I switched from XP VM to Win7 VM and tried StreetAtlas 2009 again. This time it installs. Earthmate USB GPS works. WTH? I feel like the monkey who just wrote a line of Shakespear. I'm smiling because it worked, but I have no clue why. I'm awarding the bounty to harrymc because wine did give some useful insight into the problem and a +1 to goyiux as thanks for helping.

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  • How to use iptables to forward all data from an IP to a Virtual Machine

    - by jro
    OK, in an attempt to get some response, a TL;DR version. I know that the following command: iptables -A PREROUTING -t nat -i eth0 --dport 80 --source 1.1.1.1 -j REDIRECT --to-port 8080 ... will redirect all traffic from port 80 to port 8080. The problem is that I have to do this for every port that is to be redirected. To be future-proof, I want all ports for an IP to be redirected to a different (internal) IP, so that if one might decide to enable SSH, they can directly connect without worrying about iptables. What is needed to reliable forward all traffic from an external IP, to an internal IP, and vice versa? Extended version I've scoured the internet for this, but I never got a solid answer. What I have is one physical server (HOST), with several virtual machines (VM) that need traffic redirected to them. Just getting it to work with a single machine is enough for now. The VM's run under VirtualBox, and are set to use a host-only adapter (vboxnet0). Everything seems to work, but it is greatly lagging. Both the host (CentOS 5.6) and the guest (Ubuntu 10.04) machine are running Linux. What I did was the following: Configure the VM to have a static IP in the network of the vboxnet0 adapter. Add an IP alias to the host, registering to the dedicated (outside) IP. Setup iptables to allow traffic to come through (via sysctl). Configure iptables to DNAT and SNAT data from a given IP address to the internal address. iptables commands: sudo iptables -A FORWARD -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT sudo iptables -A POSTROUTING -t nat -j MASQUERADE iptables -t nat -I PREROUTING -d $OUT_IP -I eth0 -j DNAT --to-destination $IN_IP iptables -t nat -I POSTROUTING -s $IN_IP -o eth0 -j SNAT --to-source $OUT_IP Now the site works, but is really, really slow. I'm hoping I missed something simple, but I'm out of ideas for now. Some background info: before this, the site was working with basic port forwarding. E.g. port 80 was mapped to port 8080 using iptables. In VirtualBox (having the network adapter configured as NAT), a port forwarding the other way around made things work beautifully. The problem was twofold: first, multiple ports needed to be forwarded (for admin interfaces, https, ssh, etc). Second, it only allowed one IP address to use port 80. To resolve things, multiple external IP addresses are used for different (sub)domains. Likewise, the "VirtualBox" network will contain the virtual machines: DNS Ext. IP Adapter VM "VirtalBox" IP ------------------------------------------------------------------ a.example.com 1.1.1.1 eth0:1 vm_guest_1 192.168.56.1 b.example.com 2.2.2.2 eth0:2 vm_guest_2 192.168.56.2 c.example.com 3.3.3.3 eth0:3 vm_guest_3 192.168.56.3 And so on. Put simply, the goal is to channel all traffic from a.example.com to vm_guest_1 (of put differently, from 1.1.1.1 to 192.168.56.1). And achieve this with an acceptable speed :).

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  • How to make XAMPP virtual hosts accessible to VM's and other computers on LAN?

    - by martin's
    XAMPP running on Vista 64 Ultimate dev machine (don't think it matters). Machine / Browser configuration Safari, Firefox, Chrome and IE9 on dev machine IE7 and IE8 on separate XP Pro VM's (VMWare on dev machine) IE10 and Chrome on Windows 8 VM (VMware on dev machine) Safari, Firefox and Chrome running on a iMac (same network as dev) Safari, Firefox and Chrome running on a couple of Mac Pro's (same network as dev) IE7, IE8, IE9 running on other PC's on the same network as dev machine Development Configuration Multiple virtual hosts for different projects .local fake TLD for development No firewall restrictions on dev machine for Apache Some sites have .htaccess mapping www to non-www Port 80 is open in the dev machine's firewall Problem XAMPP local home page (http://192.168.1.98/xampp/) can be accessed from everywhere, real or virtual, by IP All .local sites can be accessed from the browsers on the dev machine. All .local sites can be accessed form the browsers in the XP VM's. Some .local sites cannot be accessed from IE10 or Chrome on the W8 VM Sites that cannot be accessed from W8 VM have a minimal .htaccess file No .local sites can be accessed from ANY machine (PC or Mac) on the LAN hosts on dev machine (relevant excerpt) 127.0.0.1 site1.local 127.0.0.1 site2.local 127.0.0.1 site3.local 127.0.0.1 site4.local 127.0.0.1 site5.local 127.0.0.1 site6.local 127.0.0.1 site7.local 127.0.0.1 site8.local 127.0.0.1 site9.local 192.168.1.98 site1.local 192.168.1.98 site2.local 192.168.1.98 site3.local 192.168.1.98 site4.local 192.168.1.98 site5.local 192.168.1.98 site6.local 192.168.1.98 site7.local 192.168.1.98 site8.local 192.168.1.98 site9.local httpd-vhosts.conf on dev machine (relevant excerpt) NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName localhost ServerAlias localhost *.localhost.* DocumentRoot D:/xampp/htdocs </VirtualHost> # ======================================== site1.local <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName site1.local ServerAlias site1.local *.site1.local DocumentRoot D:/xampp-sites/site1/public_html ErrorLog D:/xampp-sites/site1/logs/access.log CustomLog D:/xampp-sites/site1/logs/error.log combined <Directory D:/xampp-sites/site1> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Require all granted </Directory> </VirtualHost> NOTE: The above <VirtualHost *:80> block is repeated for each of the nine virtual hosts in the file, no sense in posting it here. hosts on all VM's and physical machines on the network (relevant excerpt) 127.0.0.1 localhost ::1 localhost 192.168.1.98 site1.local 192.168.1.98 site2.local 192.168.1.98 site3.local 192.168.1.98 site4.local 192.168.1.98 site5.local 192.168.1.98 site6.local 192.168.1.98 site7.local 192.168.1.98 site8.local 192.168.1.98 site9.local None of the VM's have any firewall blocks on http traffic. They can reach any site on the real Internet. The same is true of the real machines on the network. The biggest puzzle perhaps is that the W8 VM actually DOES reach some of the virtual hosts. It does NOT reach site2, site6 and site 9, all of which have this minimal .htaccess file. .htaccess file <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> Adding this file to any of the virtual hosts that do work on the W8 VM will break the site (only for W8 VM, not the XP VM's) and require a cache flush on the W8 VM before it will see the site again after deleting the file. Regardless of whether a .htaccess file exists or not, no machine on the same LAN can access anything other than the XAMPP home page via IP. Even with hosts files on all machines. I can ping any virtual host from any machine on the network and get a response from the correct IP address. I can't see anything in out Netgear router that might prevent one machine from reaching the other. Besides, once the local hosts file resolves to an ip address that's all that goes out onto the local network. I've gone through an extensive number of posts on both SO and as the result of Google searches. I can't say that I have found anything definitive anywhere.

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  • How does the Cloud compare to Colocation? And development too

    - by David
    Currently I/we run a SaaS web application where each subscriber has their own physical instance of the application in addition to their own database. The setup has each web application instance deployed on two different IIS boxes both for load-balancing and redundancy (the machines have their Windows Update install times 12 hours apart, for example). Databases are mirrored on two different SQL Server 2012 machines with AlwaysOn for uptime. I don't make use of SQL Server clustering (as it doesn't provide storage-level failover: we don't have a shared storage box). Because it's a Windows setup it means there are two Domain Controllers (we cheat: they're both Mac Minis, 17W each, which keeps our colo power costs low). Finally there's also an Exchange server (Mailbox, Hub Transport and Client Access). One of the SQL Servers also doubles-up as an Exchange Hub Transport. Running costs are about $700 a month for our quarter-rack colocation (which includes power and peering/transfer), then there's about $150 a month for SPLA licensing, so $850 a month in total. Then there's the hard-to-quantify cost of administration, but I reckon I spend a couple of hours a week checking-in on the servers: reviewing event logs, etc. I keep getting bombarded by ads and manufactured news stories about how great "the cloud" is. Back in 2008 when the cloud was taking off I was reading up about the proper "cloud" services like Google AppEngine, where you write in Python against Google's API and that's how they scale your application across servers and also use their database provider for scaling storage. Simple enough to understand. Then came along Amazon, and I understand how Amazon Storage works, but I'm not sure how Amazon Compute works: web application pages don't take much CPU time to compute, how do you even quantify usage anyway? Finally, RackSpace gets in the act and now I'm really confused. RackSpace advertise "Cloud" SQL Server 2012 available for about "$0.70 per hour", going by how they advertise it I thought the "hour" meant the sum of CPU time, IO blocking time, maybe time spent transferring data, so for a low-intensity application that works out pretty cheap then? Nope. I went on to a Sales Chat window and spoke to one of their advisors. They told me the $0.70/hour was actually for every hour the SQL Server is running... but who wants a SQL Server for only a few hours? You're going to need it available 24 hours a day for months on end. $0.70 * 24 * 31 works out at $520 a month, which is rediculously expensive for SQL Server. An SPLA license for SQL Server is only $50 a month or so. That $520 a month does not include "fanatical support", and you also need to stack on top the costs of the host Windows server instance too. From what I can tell, Rackspace's "Cloud" products seem like like an cynical rebranding of an overpriced VPS service, but priced by the hour. I have the same confusion about Windows Azure which uses similar terms to describe the products available, but I think that's because Azure offers both traditional shared webhosting in addition to their own APIs you can target for scalable applications.

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  • Connecting PC to TV via HDMI/DVI: Windows XP doesn't allow the appropriate screen resolution

    - by Jørgen
    I have a computer that is connected to the living room TV (a Panasonic) via HDMI. There is no other monitor connected. My problem is that the computer, which is running Windows XP, does not allow me to set the proper resolution for the TV. Both the graphics adapter and the TV should support the 1280x720 resolution, but it cannot be selected - the only available options are 1280x600 and 800x600, both in the "native" Windows dialog box and the custom Intel graphics options dialog box. Do anyone have a suggestion for a solution for this? Things I've thought of: Setting the resolution directly in the registry (where?) Installing some "custom" monitor driver (the TV manufacturer does not appear to provide any, currently the "generic" one is used) Details on the setup: Connection: DVI output on the computer via a passive DVI-HDMI adapter to the HDMI input on the TV, audio is run on a separate link, the TV is able to combine video and audio without any problem, the problem is there regardless of whether or not the audio is connected. The connection is several meters long through some walls, for this reason using a VGA cable instead is not an option. Note that the report explicitly says that the TV supports 1280x720. Still, I am not allowed to select it in Graphics Options, only 1280x600 and 800x600 is available. For 800x600, there's a lot of black around the edges; for 1280x600, the screen is "zoomed" so the edges of the monitor image (like the taskbar) is not visible. Other: The computer is running Windows XP. More recent versions of Windows are not an option (I have no licence). Linux is probably not an option (some of the video streaming sites I plan to use do not support it, I think) I wrote the rest of the details below. Thanks for any help!! TV: Panasonic TX-L32X10Y, European version; a 720p 32" quite "regular" LCD TV. Allowed resolutions according to manual: Signal name: 640x480 @60HZ Horizontal frequency: 31.47 kHz Vertical frequency: 60Hz Signal name: 750/720) /60p Horizontal frequency: 45.00 kHz Vertical frequency: 60Hz Signal name: 1,125 (1,080) / 60p Horizontal frequency: 67.50 kHz Vertical frequency: 60Hz (this is exactly how the manual presents it. PC via D-SUB (VGA cable) and "regular" HDMI have more alternatives.) Messing with the "zoom" settings on the TV does not affect the available resolution options on the computer. Computer: The following is a printout from one of the graphics adapter option pages. I think it covers most of it. The computer is a Dell. INTEL(R) EXTREME GRAPHICS 2 REPORT Report Date: 04/17/2011 Report Time[hr:mm:ss]: 20:18:02 Driver Version: 6.14.10.4396 Operating System: Windows XP* Professional, Service Pack 3 (5.1.2600) Default Language: English DirectX* Version: 9.0 Physical Memory: 1021 MB Minimum Graphics Memory: 1 MB Maximum Graphics Memory: 96 MB Graphics Memory in Use: 6 MB Processor: x86 Processor Speed: 2593 MHZ Vendor ID: 8086 Device ID: 2572 Device Revision: 02 * Accelerator Information * Accelerator in Use: Intel(R) 82865G Graphics Controller Video BIOS: 2972 Current Graphics Mode: 1280 by 600 True Color (60 Hz) * Devices Connected to the Graphics Accelerator * Active Digital Displays: 1 * Digital Display * Monitor Name: Plug and Play Monitor Display Type: Digital Gamma Value: 2.20 DDC2 Protocol: Supported Maximum Image Size: Horizontal: Not Available Vertical: Not Available Monitor Supported Modes: 1280 by 720 (50 Hz) 1280 by 720 (60 Hz) Display Power Management Support: Standby Mode: Not Supported Suspend Mode: Not Supported Active Off Mode: Not Supported (disclaimer: this question was also asked at the Wikipedia Reference Desk some time ago and might show up in a Google search. I got no useful answers there.)

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  • The best dvd ripper software in 2014 review

    - by user328170
    The top 3 DVD Ripping Tools in 2014 Nowadays everyone may have several smart mobile devices, such as iphone, ipad air, ipad mini ,Samsung Galaxy and Sony Xperia. If you want to take your movies with your mobile devices, or sometimes just want to backup those classic physical discs on your notebook or workstation with high quality resolutions, you need a fast and stable software to rip them and convert them to the format you like. Fortunately, there are plenty of great software products designed to make the process easy and transform DVD to the files that are playable on any mobile device you choose. We have done a full review on dozens of products. Here are five of the best, based on our review. We test the software from its ripping speed, friendly use guide , reliability and ripping capability. The top one is still Winx DVD Ripper platinum. We've test its 6.1 version 2 years ago for its ability to quickly and easily rip DVDs and Blu-ray discs to high quality MKV files with a single click. It gave us deep impression in the test. This time we test it’s lastest 7.3.5 version. Besides easy use and speed, we test its capability to decrypt all kinds of discs with different protect method, for example, Disney X-project DRM , Sony ArccOS, RCE and region code. The result shows that winx dvd ripper platinum still maintain its advantages in all the area. Winx dvd ripper platinum is a more focused on DVD ripping software with the basic duty to rip and convert DVD. The color of UI is a modern technical sense. All the main functions are shown obviously while others specials are hidden for advanced users, making it more clear and convenient to make option. There are two company weisoft limited and Digiarty who can provide the software. Weisoft limited focus on USA, UK and Australia market. Digiarty focus on others. ripping speed ????? friendly use guide ????? reliability ????? ripping capability ????? The second one DVDFab DVDFab is also very robust during ripping dics. It can also decrypt most of the dics in the market. The shortage it still friendly use and speed. We'd note that the app is frequently updated to cut through the copy protection on even the latest DVDs and Blu-ray discs . The app is shareware, meaning most features are free, including decrypting and ripping to your hard drive. Many of you note that you use another app for compression and authoring, but many of you say they hey, storage is cheap, and the rips from DVDFab are easy, one-click, and work. ripping speed ??? friendly use guide ???? reliability ????? ripping capability ????? The Third one is Handbrake Handbrake is our favorite video encoder for a reason: it's simple, easy to use, easy to install, and offers a lots of options to get the high quality file as a result. If you're scared by them, you don't even have to use them—the app will compensate for you and pick some settings it thinks you'll like based on your destination device. So many of you like Handbrake that many of you use it in conjunction with another app (like VLC, which makes ripping easy)—you'll let another app do the rip and crack the DRM on your discs, and then process the file through Handbrake for encoding. The app is fast, can make the most of multi-core processors to speed up the process, and is completely open source. ripping speed ??? friendly use guide ???? reliability ???? ripping capability ????

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  • FILESTREAM/FILETABLE Clarifications for Implementation

    - by user1209734
    Recently our team was looking at FILESTREAM to expand the capabilities of our proprietary application. The main purpose of this app is managing the various PDFS, Images and documents to all of the parts we manufacture. Our ASP application uses a few third party tools to allow viewing of these files. We currently have 980GB of data on the Fileserver. We have around 200GB of Binary data in SQL Server that we would like to extract since it is not performing well hence FILESTREAM seems to be a good compromise to the two major data storage/access issues. A few things are not exactly clear to us: FILESTREAM Can or Cannot store its data on a drive that is not locally attached. We already have a File Server with a RAID 10 (1.5TB drives). This server stores all of the documents right now, would we have to move these drives to the SQL Server for FILESTREAM? That would be a tough bullet to bite since the server also is doubling as the Application Server (Two VMs on one physical server). FILETABLE stores the common metadata about the files but where is the Full Text part of it stored to allow searching of files like doc/docx? Is this separate? Are you able to freely add criteria to this to search by? If so any links to clarify would be appreciated. Can FILETABLE be referenced in another table with a foreign key? Thank you in advance EDIT: For those having these questions this web video covered everything and more in terms of explaining filestream from 2008 to 2012 and the cavets to consider (I would seriously rep him if I could): http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechDays/Techdays-2012-the-Netherlands/2270 In conclusion we will not be using FILESTREAM as it would be way to huge of an upsurge to accommodate for investment. EDIT 2: Update to #1 - After carefully assessing FileTable in addition to FILESTREAM we got a winning combination. We did have to move the files over to the new server (wasn't to painful since they were on the same VM).It honestly took more time to write an extraction tool to dump the binary data within SQL to the File System. Update to #2 - This was seperate but again Bob had an excellent webinar explaining this: http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechEd/Europe/2012/DBI411 Update to #3 - Using TFT inheritance we recycled the Docs table we had (minus the huge binary blobs) which required very little changes in our legacy apps. This was a huge upshot for the developer team.

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  • Switching DataSources on a ReportViewer in WinForms

    - by Mike Wills
    I have created a winform for the users to view view the many reports I am creating for them. I have a drop down list with the report name which triggers the appropriate fields to display the parameters. Once those are filled, they press Submit and the report appears. This works the first time they hit the screen. They can change the parameters and the ReportViewer works fine. Change to a different report, and the I get the following ReportViewer error: An error occurred during local report processing. An error has occurred during the report processing. A data source instance has not been supplied for the data source "CgTempData_BusMaintenance". As far as the process I use: I set reportName (string) the physical RDLC name. I set the dataSource (string) as the DataSource Name I fill a generic DataTable with the data for the report to run from. Make the ReportViewer visible Set the LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" = reportName; Clear the LocalReport.DataSources.Clear() Add the new LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); RefreshReport() on the ReportViewer. Here is the portion of the code that setups up and displays the ReportViewer: /// <summary> /// Builds the report. /// </summary> private void BuildReport() { DataTable dt = null; ReportingCG rcg = new ReportingCG(); if (reportName == "GasUsedReport.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_FuelLog"; CgTempData.FuelLogDataTable DtFuelLog = rcg.BuildFuelUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtFuelLog; } else if (reportName == "InventoryCost.rdlc") { CgTempData.InventoryUsedDataTable DtInventory; dataSource = "CgTempData_InventoryUsed"; DtInventory = rcg.BuildInventoryUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtInventory; } else if (reportName == "VehicleMasterList.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_VehicleMaster"; CgTempData.VehicleMasterDataTable DtVehicleMaster = rcg.BuildVehicleMasterTable(); dt = DtVehicleMaster; } else if (reportName == "BusCosts.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_BusMaintenance"; dt = rcg.BuildBusCostsTable(fromDate, toDate); } // Setup the DataSource this.reportViewer1.Visible = true; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" + reportName; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Clear(); this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); this.reportViewer1.RefreshReport(); } Any ideas how to remove all of the old remaining data? Do I dispose the object and recreate it?

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  • Playing an InputStream video in Blackberry JDE.

    - by Jenny
    I think I'm using InputStream incorrectly with a Blackberry 9000 simulator: I found some sample code, http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 that lets you play video from within a Blackberry App. The code claims it can handle HTTP, but it's taken some fandangling to get it to actually approach doing so: http://pastie.org/609491 Specifically, I'm doing: StreamConnection s = null; s = (StreamConnection)Connector.open("http://10.252.9.15/eggs.3gp"); HttpConnection c = (HttpConnection)s; InputStream i = c.openInputStream(); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a connection?~~~~~~" + c); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a URL?~~~~" + c.getURL()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a type?~~~~" + c.getType()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a status?~~~~~~" + c.getResponseCode()); System.out.println("~~~~~I have a stream?~~~~~~" + i); player = Manager.createPlayer(i, c.getType()); I've found that this is the only way I can get an InputStream from an HTTPConnection without causing a: "JUM Error 104: Uncaught NullPointer Exception". (That is, the casting as a StreamConnection, and THEN as an HttpConnection stops it from crashing). However, I'm still not streaming video. Before, a stream wasn't able to be created (it would crash with the null pointer exception). Now, a stream is being made, the debugger claims it's begining to stream video from it...and nothing happens. No video plays. The app doesn't freeze, or crash or anything. I can 'pause' and 'play' freely, and get appropriate debug messages for both. But no video shows up. If I'm playing a video stored locally on the blackberry, everything is fine (it actually plays the video), so I know the Player itself is working fine, I"m just wondering if maybe I have something wrong with my stream? The API says the player can take in an InputStream. Is there a specific kind it needs? How can I query my inputstream to know if it's valid? It existing is further than I've gotten before. -Jenny Edit: I'm on a Blackberry Bold simulator (9000). I've heard that some versions of phones do NOT stream video via HTTP, however, the Bold does. I have yet to see examples of this though. When I go to the internet and point at a blackberry playable video, it attempts to stream, and then asks me to physically download the file (and then plays fine once I download). Edit: Also, I have a physical blackberry Bold, as well, but it can't stream either (I've gone to m.youtube.com, only to get a server/content not found error). Is there something special I need to do to stream RTSP content?

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  • Switching DataSources in ReportViewer in WinForms

    - by Mike Wills
    I have created a winform for the users to view view the many reports I am creating for them. I have a drop down list with the report name which triggers the appropriate fields to display the parameters. Once those are filled, they press Submit and the report appears. This works the first time they hit the screen. They can change the parameters and the ReportViewer works fine. Change to a different report, and the I get the following ReportViewer error: An error occurred during local report processing. An error has occurred during the report processing. A data source instance has not been supplied for the data source "CgTempData_BusMaintenance". As far as the process I use: I set reportName (string) the physical RDLC name. I set the dataSource (string) as the DataSource Name I fill a generic DataTable with the data for the report to run from. Make the ReportViewer visible Set the LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" = reportName; Clear the LocalReport.DataSources.Clear() Add the new LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); RefreshReport() on the ReportViewer. Here is the portion of the code that setups up and displays the ReportViewer: /// <summary> /// Builds the report. /// </summary> private void BuildReport() { DataTable dt = null; ReportingCG rcg = new ReportingCG(); if (reportName == "GasUsedReport.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_FuelLog"; CgTempData.FuelLogDataTable DtFuelLog = rcg.BuildFuelUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtFuelLog; } else if (reportName == "InventoryCost.rdlc") { CgTempData.InventoryUsedDataTable DtInventory; dataSource = "CgTempData_InventoryUsed"; DtInventory = rcg.BuildInventoryUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtInventory; } else if (reportName == "VehicleMasterList.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_VehicleMaster"; CgTempData.VehicleMasterDataTable DtVehicleMaster = rcg.BuildVehicleMasterTable(); dt = DtVehicleMaster; } else if (reportName == "BusCosts.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_BusMaintenance"; dt = rcg.BuildBusCostsTable(fromDate, toDate); } // Setup the DataSource this.reportViewer1.Visible = true; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" + reportName; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Clear(); this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); this.reportViewer1.RefreshReport(); } Any ideas how to remove all of the old remaining data? Do I dispose the object and recreate it?

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  • FASM vc MASM trasnlation problem in mov si, offset msg

    - by Ruben Trancoso
    hi folks, just did my first test with MASM and FASM with the same code (almos) and I falled in trouble. The only difference is that to produce just the 104 bytes I need to write to MBR in FASM I put org 7c00h and in MASM 0h. The problem is on the mov si, offset msg that in the first case transletes it to 44 7C (7c44h) and with masm translates to 44 00 (0044h)! but just when I change org 7c00h to org 0h in MASM. Otherwise it will produce the entire segment from 0 to 7dff. how do I solve it? or in short, how to make MASM produce a binary that begins at 7c00h as it first byte and subsequent jumps remain relative to 7c00h? .model TINY .code org 7c00h ; Boot entry point. Address 07c0:0000 on the computer memory xor ax, ax ; Zero out ax mov ds, ax ; Set data segment to base of RAM jmp start ; Jump to the first byte after DOS boot record data ; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- ; DOS boot record data ; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- brINT13Flag db 90h ; 0002h - 0EH for INT13 AH=42 READ brOEM db 'MSDOS5.0' ; 0003h - OEM name & DOS version (8 chars) brBPS dw 512 ; 000Bh - Bytes/sector brSPC db 1 ; 000Dh - Sectors/cluster brResCount dw 1 ; 000Eh - Reserved (boot) sectors brFATs db 2 ; 0010h - FAT copies brRootEntries dw 0E0h ; 0011h - Root directory entries brSectorCount dw 2880 ; 0013h - Sectors in volume, < 32MB brMedia db 240 ; 0015h - Media descriptor brSPF dw 9 ; 0016h - Sectors per FAT brSPH dw 18 ; 0018h - Sectors per track brHPC dw 2 ; 001Ah - Number of Heads brHidden dd 0 ; 001Ch - Hidden sectors brSectors dd 0 ; 0020h - Total number of sectors db 0 ; 0024h - Physical drive no. db 0 ; 0025h - Reserved (FAT32) db 29h ; 0026h - Extended boot record sig brSerialNum dd 404418EAh ; 0027h - Volume serial number (random) brLabel db 'OSAdventure' ; 002Bh - Volume label (11 chars) brFSID db 'FAT12 ' ; 0036h - File System ID (8 chars) ;------------------------------------------------------------------------ ; Boot code ; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- start: mov si, offset msg call showmsg hang: jmp hang msg db 'Loading...',0 showmsg: lodsb cmp al, 0 jz showmsgd push si mov bx, 0007 mov ah, 0eh int 10h pop si jmp showmsg showmsgd: retn ; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- ; Boot record signature ; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- dw 0AA55h ; Boot record signature END

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  • jQuery, get datas in AJAX (done) then, display them as star (error)

    - by Tristan
    Hello, In my website, there are 2 steps : I get values from another domain with AJAX, it's numbers 100% working Then, i want to display those numbers in stars with this plugin (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1987524/turn-a-number-into-star-rating-display-using-jquery-and-css) The error : the stars plugin does not work for the value i recieve from my ajax request, but it's working for my values for my domain which are not JS manipulated you can see a demo here http://www.esl.eu/fr/test/test_atome/?killcache=true PS: the data in ajax are provided in JSON-P so i wrote a parser which look like this: jQuery.ajax({ type: "get", dataType: "jsonp", url: "http://www.foo.com/", data: {demandeur: "monkey" }, cache: true, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest){ var obj = null, length = data.length; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { widget = "<p>AVERAGES<p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].services; widget += "</span></p>"; widget += "<p><span class='stars'>"; widget += data[i].qualite; widget += "</span></p>"; jQuery('#gotserv').html(widget); } } }); }); Then i have the star plugin after this function : $.fn.stars = function() { $(this).each(function() { // Get the value var val = parseFloat($(this).html()); // Make sure that the value is in 0 - 5 range val = val 5 ? 5 : (val < 0 ? 0 : val); // Calculate physical size var size = 16 * val; // Create stars holder var stars = $(''); // Adjust yellow stars' width stars.find('span').width(size); // Replace the numerical value with stars $(this).replaceWith(stars); }); I hope you understand, i don't know if i'm clear Thank you

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  • SIGSEGV problem

    - by sickmate
    I'm designing a protocol (in C) to implement the layered OSI network structure, using cnet (http://www.csse.uwa.edu.au/cnet/). I'm getting a SIGSEGV error at runtime, however cnet compiles my source code files itself (I can't compile it through gcc) so I can't easily use any debugging tools such as gdb to find the error. Here's the structures used, and the code in question: typedef struct { char *data; } DATA; typedef struct { CnetAddr src_addr; CnetAddr dest_addr; PACKET_TYPE type; DATA data; } Packet; typedef struct { int length; int checksum; Packet datagram; } Frame; static void keyboard(CnetEvent ev, CnetTimerID timer, CnetData data) { char line[80]; int length; length = sizeof(line); CHECK(CNET_read_keyboard((void *)line, (unsigned int *)&length)); // Reads input from keyboard if(length > 1) { /* not just a blank line */ printf("\tsending %d bytes - \"%s\"\n", length, line); application_downto_transport(1, line, &length); } } void application_downto_transport(int link, char *msg, int *length) { transport_downto_network(link, msg, length); } void transport_downto_network(int link, char *msg, int *length) { Packet *p; DATA *d; p = (Packet *)malloc(sizeof(Packet)); d = (DATA *)malloc(sizeof(DATA)); d->data = msg; p->data = *d; network_downto_datalink(link, (void *)p, length); } void network_downto_datalink(int link, Packet *p, int *length) { Frame *f; // Encapsulate datagram and checksum into a Frame. f = (Frame *)malloc(sizeof(Frame)); f->checksum = CNET_crc32((unsigned char *)(p->data).data, *length); // Generate 32-bit CRC for the data. f->datagram = *p; f->length = sizeof(f); //Pass Frame to the CNET physical layer to send Frame to the require link. CHECK(CNET_write_physical(link, (void *)f, (size_t *)f->length)); free(p->data); free(p); free(f); } I managed to find that the line: CHECK(CNET_write_physical(link, (void *)f, (size_t *)f-length)); is causing the segfault but I can't work out why. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Question about design (inheritance, polymorphism)

    - by Dan
    Hi, I have a question about a problem I'm struggling with. Hope you can bear with me. Imagine I have an Object class representing the base class of a hierarchy of physical objects. Later I inherit from it to create an Object1D, Object2D and Object3D classes. Each of these derived classes will have some specific methods and attributes. For example, the 3d object might have functionality to download a 3d model to be used by a renderer. So I'd have something like this: class Object {}; class Object1D : public Object { Point mPos; }; class Object2D : public Object { ... }; class Object3D : public Object { Model mModel; }; Now I'd have a separate class called Renderer, which simply takes an Object as argument and well, renders it :-) In a similar way, I'd like to support different kinds of renderers. For instance, I could have a default one that every object could rely on, and then provide other specific renderers for some kind of objects: class Renderer {}; // Default one class Renderer3D : public Renderer {}; And here comes my problem. A renderer class needs to get an Object as an argument, for example in the constructor in order to retrieve whatever data it needs to render the object. So far so good. But a Renderer3D would need to get an Object3D argument, in order to get not only the basic attributes but also the specific attributes of a 3d object. Constructors would look like this: CRenderer(Object& object); CRenderer3D(Object3D& object); Now how do I specify this in a generic way? Or better yet, is there a better way to design this? I know I could rely on RTTI or similar but I'd like to avoid this if possible as I feel there is probably a better way to deal with this. Thanks in advance!

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  • With EJB 2.1, is declaring references to resources in ejb-jar.xml required?

    - by zwerd328
    I'm using Weblogic 9.2 with a lot of MDBs. These MDBs access JDBC DataSources and write to both locally and externally managed JMS Destinations using local and foreign XAConnectionFactorys, respectively. Each MDB demarcates a container-managed JTA transaction that should be distributed amongst all of these resources. Below is an excerpt from my ejb-jar.xml for an MDB that consumes from a local Queue called "MyDestination" and produces to an IBM Websphere MQ Queue called "MyOtherDestination". These logical names are linked to physical objects in my weblogic-ejb-jar.xml file. Is it required to use the <resource-ref> and <message-destination-ref> tags to expose the ConnectionFactory and Queue to the MDB? If so, is it required by Weblogic or is it required by the J2EE spec? And for what purpose? For example, is it required to support XA transactionality? I'm already aware of the benefit of decoupling the administered objects from my MDB using names exposed to the naming context of the MDB. Is this the only value added when specifying these tags? In other words, is it acceptable to just reference these objects from my MDB using the InitialContext and the objects' fully-qualified names? <enterprise-bean> <message-driven> <ejb-name>MyMDB</ejb-name> <ejb-class>com.mycompany.MyMessageDrivenBean</ejb-class> <transaction-type>Container</transaction-type> <message-destination-type>javax.jms.Queue</message-destination> <message-destination-link>MyDestination</message-destination-link> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jms/myQCF</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.jms.XAConnectionFactory</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> <message-destination-ref> <message-destination-ref-name>jms/myOtherDestination</message-destination-ref-name> <message-destination-type>javax.jms.Queue</message-destination-type> <message-destination-usage>Produces</message-destination-usage> <message-destination-link>MyOtherDestination</message-destination-link> </message-destination-ref> </message-driven> <enterprise-bean>

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  • jQuery tablesorter - loss of functionality after AJAX call

    - by Nick
    I have recently been experimenting with the tablesorter plugin for jQuery. I have successfully got it up and running in once instance, and am very impressed. However, I have tried to apply the tablesorter to a different table, only to encounter some difficulties... Basically the table causing a problem has a <ul> above it which acts as a set of tabs for the table. so if you click one of these tabs, an AJAX call is made and the table is repopulated with the rows relevant to the specific tab clicked. When the page initially loads (i.e. before a tab has been clicked) the tablesorter functionality works exactly as expected. But when a tab is clicked and the table repopulated, the functionality disappears, rendering it without the sortable feature. Even if you go back to the original tab, after clicking another, the functionality does not return - the only way to do so is a physical refresh of the page in the browser. I have seen a solution which seems similar to my problem on this site, and someone recommends using the jQuery plugin, livequery. I have tried this but to no avail :-( If someone has any suggestions I would be most appreciative. I can post code snippets if it would help (though I know the instantiation code for tablesorter is fine as it works on tables with no tabs - so it's definitely not that!) EDIT: As requested, here are some code snippets: The table being sorted is <table id="#sortableTable#">..</table>, the instantiation code for tablesorter I am using is: $(document).ready(function() { $("#sortableTable").tablesorter( { headers: //disable any headers not worthy of sorting! { 0: { sorter: false }, 5: { sorter: false } }, sortMultiSortKey: 'ctrlKey', debug:true, widgets: ['zebra'] }); }); And I tried to rig up livequery as follows: $("#sortableTable").livequery(function(){ $(this).tablesorter(); }); This has not helped though... I am not sure whether I should use the id of the table with livequery as it is the click on the <ul> I should be responding to, which is of course not part of the table itself. I have tried a number of variations in the hope that one of them will help, but to no avail :-(

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  • asp.net Multiple Page_Load events for a user control when using URL Routing

    - by Paul Hutson
    Hello, I've recently set up an ASP.net site (not using MVC.net) to use URL Routing (more on the code below) - when using user controls on the site (i.e I've created a "menu" user control to hold menu information) the page_load event for that control will fire twice when URLs have more than one variable passed over. i.e. pageName/VAR1 : will only fire the page_load event once. while pageName/VAR1/VAR2 : will fire the page_load event twice. *Multiple extra VARs added on the end will still only fire the page_load event twice*. Below are the code snippits from the files, the first is the MapPageRoute, located in the Global.asax : // Register a route for the Example page, with the NodeID and also the Test123 variables allowed. // This demonstrates how to have several items linked with the page routes. routes.MapPageRoute( "Multiple Data Example", // Route name "Example/{NodeID}/{test123}/{variable}", // Route URL - note the NodeID bit "~/Example.aspx", // Web page to handle route true, // Check for physical access new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "1" }, // Default Node ID { "test123", "1" }, // Default addtional variable value { "variable", "hello"} // Default test variable value } ); Next is the way I've directed to the page in the menu item, this is a list item within a UL tag : <li class="TopMenu_ListItem"><a href="<%= Page.GetRouteUrl("Multiple Data Example", new System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary { { "NodeID", "4855" }, { "test123", "2" } }) %>">Example 2</a></li> And finally the control that gets hit multiple times on a page load : // For use when the page loads. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Handle the routing variables. // this handles the route data value for NodeID - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] != null) { nodeID = Page.RouteData.Values["NodeID"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for Test123 - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] != null) { ExampleOutput2.Text = "I am the output of the third variable : " + Page.RouteData.Values["Test123"] as string; }; // this handles the route data value for variable - if the page was reached using URL Routing. if (Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] != null) { ExampleOutput3.Text = "I say " + Page.RouteData.Values["variable"] as string; }; } Note, that when I'm just hitting the page and it uses the default values for items, the reloads do not happen. Any help or guidance that anyone can offer would be very much appreciated! EDIT : The User Control is only added to the page once. I've tested the load sequence by putting a breakpoint in the page_load event - it only hits twice when the extra routes are added. Thanks in Advance, Paul Hutson

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  • How to define and work with an array of bits in C?

    - by Eddy
    I want to create a very large array on which I write '0's and '1's. I'm trying to simulate a physical process called random sequential adsorption, where units of length 2, dimers, are deposited onto an n-dimensional lattice at a random location, without overlapping each other. The process stops when there is no more room left on the lattice for depositing more dimers (lattice is jammed). Initially I start with a lattice of zeroes, and the dimers are represented by a pair of '1's. As each dimer is deposited, the site on the left of the dimer is blocked, due to the fact that the dimers cannot overlap. So I simulate this process by depositing a triple of '1's on the lattice. I need to repeat the entire simulation a large number of times and then work out the average coverage %. I've already done this using an array of chars for 1D and 2D lattices. At the moment I'm trying to make the code as efficient as possible, before working on the 3D problem and more complicated generalisations. This is basically what the code looks like in 1D, simplified: int main() { /* Define lattice */ array = (char*)malloc(N * sizeof(char)); total_c = 0; /* Carry out RSA multiple times */ for (i = 0; i < 1000; i++) rand_seq_ads(); /* Calculate average coverage efficiency at jamming */ printf("coverage efficiency = %lf", total_c/1000); return 0; } void rand_seq_ads() { /* Initialise array, initial conditions */ memset(a, 0, N * sizeof(char)); available_sites = N; count = 0; /* While the lattice still has enough room... */ while(available_sites != 0) { /* Generate random site location */ x = rand(); /* Deposit dimer (if site is available) */ if(array[x] == 0) { array[x] = 1; array[x+1] = 1; count += 1; available_sites += -2; } /* Mark site left of dimer as unavailable (if its empty) */ if(array[x-1] == 0) { array[x-1] = 1; available_sites += -1; } } /* Calculate coverage %, and add to total */ c = count/N total_c += c; } For the actual project I'm doing, it involves not just dimers but trimers, quadrimers, and all sorts of shapes and sizes (for 2D and 3D). I was hoping that I would be able to work with individual bits instead of bytes, but I've been reading around and as far as I can tell you can only change 1 byte at a time, so either I need to do some complicated indexing or there is a simpler way to do it? Thanks for your answers

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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