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  • populating one checkedlistbox with another (checkedlistbox)

    - by 8thWonder
    I am having difficulties populating a checkedlistbox (CLB) based on the selection(s) made in another. It should also be noted that I have a "Select All" checkbox at the top that checks/unchecks all of the items in the first CLB. Here's the code: Private Sub chkSelectAll_CheckedChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles chkSelectAll.CheckedChanged For i As Integer = 0 To clb1.Items.Count - 1 clb1.SetItemChecked(i, chkSelectAll.Checked) Next End Sub Private Sub clb1_ItemCheck(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.ItemCheckEventArgs) Handles clb1.ItemCheck Dim i As Integer = clb1.SelectedIndex For j As Integer = 0 To al_2.Count - 1 If i = -1 Then For k As Integer = 0 To al_2.Count - 1 If Not clb2.Contains(al_2(k).sDate) Then clb2.Items.Add(al_2(k).sDate) Else : k += 1 End If Next ElseIf (e.NewValue = CheckState.Checked And al_2(j).sName = al_1(i)) Then clb2.Items.Add(al_2(j).sDate) ElseIf (e.NewValue = CheckState.Unchecked And al_2(j).sName = al_1(i)) Then clbProdBkups.Items.Remove(al_2(j).sDate) End If Next End Sub The first CLB is populated with an arraylist of values on the button click event. Based on whatever is checked in the first CLB, corresponding values from an arraylist of structures should fill the second CLB. The following code partially works until the "Select All" checkbox is clicked at which point one of two things happens: If other values have been selected before "Select All" is checked, the second CLB is filled with the correct number of corresponding values BUT only those of the most recently selected item of the first CLB instead of all of corresponding values of all of the items that were not already selected. When "Select All" is unchecked, the most recently incorrect values are removed, everything in CLB 1 is unchecked but the values in CLB 2 that were selected before "Select All" was checked remain. If "Select All" is checked before anything else is selected, I get an "unable to cast object of type 'System.String' to type 'System.Windows.Forms.Control'" error that points to the following statement from the itemcheck event: If Not clb2.Contains(al_2(k).sDate) Then Any insights will be greatly appreciated. ~8th

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  • How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

    - by Bounded
    Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

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  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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  • NetworkStream.Read delay .Net

    - by Gilbes
    I have a class that inherits from TcpClient. In that class I have a method to process responses. In that method I call I get the NetworkStream with MyBase.GetStream and call Read on it. This works fine, excpet the first call to read blocks too long. And by too long I mean that the socket has recieved plenty of data, but won't read it until some arbitrary limit is reached. I can see that it has recieved plenty of data using the packet sniffer WireShark. I have set the recieve buffer to small amounts, and very small amounts (like just a few bytes) to no avail. I have done the same with the buffer byte array I pass to the read method, and it still delays. Or to put it another way. I am download 600k. The download takes 5 seconds (at a little over 100k/second connection to the server which makes sense). The initial Read call takes 2-3 seconds and tells me only 256 bytes are availble (256 is the Recieve buffer and the size of the array I read in to). Then magically, the other few hundred thousand bytes can be read in 256 byte chunks in only a few process ticks each. Using a packet sniffer, I know that during those initial 2-3 seconds, the socket has recieved much more than just 256 bytes. My connection wasn't .25k/second for 3 seconds and then 400k for 2 seconds. How do I get the bytes from a socket as they come in?

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  • how avoids deadlock condition

    - by rima
    Hi I try to write a program like a compiler.In this case I must simulate these codes of SQLPL(This one can be just for example).for example in command prompt i wana do these: c:\> sqlplus .... Enter User-Name:(here we must enter username) xxxx Enter password:(same up)yyyyy ... sql>(now i want to send my sql command to shell)prompt "rima"; "rima" [<-output] sql> prompt "xxxx" sql> exit very simple. I try to use this code: ProcessStartInfo psi = new ProcessStartInfo( @"sqlplus"); psi.UseShellExecute = false; psi.CreateNoWindow = true; psi.RedirectStandardInput = true; psi.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //psi.RedirectStandardError = true; Process process = new Process(); process.StartInfo = psi; bool started = process.Start(); if (started) { process.StandardInput.WriteLine("user/password"); process.StandardInput.Flush(); string ret = process.StandardOutput.ReadLine(); // <-- stalls here System.Console.WriteLine("sqlplus says :" + ret + "\"."); } i find out it form here but as if u read this code has problem!DEADLOCK Condition problem! this is my second time i ask my question,every time my knowledge growing,but i cant get how I can solve my problem at last!!! So I kindly kiss your hand,please help me,these process is not clear for me.any one can give me a code that handle my problem?Already i look at all codes,also I try to use ProcessRunner that in my last post some one offer me,but I cant use it also,i receive an error. I hope by first example u find out what i want,and solve the second code problem... thanks I use C# for implemantation

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  • NSTimer to smooth out playback position

    - by Michael
    I have an audio player and I want to show the current time of the the playback. I'm using a custom play class. The app downloads the mp3 to a file then plays from the file when 5% has been downloaded. I have a progress view update as the file plays and update a label on each call to the progress view. However, this is jerky... sometimes even going backward a digit or two. I was considering using an NSTimer to smooth things out. I would be fired every second to a method and pass the percentage played figure to the method then update the label. First, does this seem reasonable? Second, how do I pass the percentage (a float) over to the target of the timer. Right now I am putting the percent played into a dictionary but this seems less than optimal. This is what is called update the progress bar: -(void)updateAudioProgress:(Percentage)percent { audio = percent; if (!seekChanging) slider.value = percent; NSMutableDictionary *myDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [myDictionary setValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:percent] forKey:@"myPercent"]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5 target:self selector:@selector(myTimerMethod:) userInfo:myDictionary repeats:YES]; [myDictionary release]; } This is called first after 5 seconds but then updates each time the method is called. As always, comments and pointers appreciated.

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  • jQuery DOM manipulation

    - by ufw
    I have different php output in jQuery-based tabs. This output is formed from database and it consists of several <div>'s. Every time I click any tab it sends AJAX request to the php script which performs "SELECT" request and gives result back as response to AJAX request from the tab. $(document).ready(function() { $('ul.tabs li').css('cursor', 'pointer'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').click(function(){ var thisClass = this.className.slice(0,2); $('div.t1').hide(); $('div.t2').hide(); $('div.t3').hide(); $('div.t4').hide(); $('div.' + thisClass).show('fast'); $('ul.tabs.tabs1 li').removeClass('tab-current'); $(this).addClass('tab-current'); var data = thisClass; $.ajax({ type:"GET", url:"handler.php?name="+data, data:data, success:function(html) { $('div.' + thisClass).html(html); } }); return false; }); }); //Server-side PHP script: <?php $name = $_GET[name]; switch ($name) { case "t1": query_and_output_1(); case "t2": query_and_output_2(); // etc... } ?> The problem is that the first tab contains output that must be in second and third ones as well, the second also contains the third tab output. Sorry for such a rubbishy question, I used to work with server side and unfortunately I'm not familiar with DOM and jQuery yet. Thanks.

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  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

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  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

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  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML / jQuery?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

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  • form change with javascript

    - by aslum
    I have two drop down lists <select name="branch"> <option value="b">Blacksburg</option> <option value="c">Christiansburg</option> <option value="f">Floyd</option> <option value="m">Meadowbrook</option> </select> but I would like the second list to be different based upon what is selected from the first list. So FREX Blacksburg's might be <select name="room"> <option value="Kitchen">Kitchen Side</option> <option value="Closet">Closet Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> </select While Christiansburg's is <select name="room"> <option value="Window">Window Side</option> <option value="Door">Door Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> and of course the options are also different for the other branches... Is it possible to change the second drop down list based on what they select for the first one? I have used javascript a teensy bit, but not much so please explain in detail. Thanks!

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  • De-normalization alternative to specific MYSQL problem?

    - by Booker
    I am facing quite a specific optimization problem. I currently have 4 normalized tables of data. Every second, possibly thousands of users will pull down up-to-date info from these tables using AJAX. The thing is that I can predict relatively easily which subset of data they need... The most recent 100 or so entries in those 4 normalized tables. I have been researching de-normalization... but feel that perhaps there is an easier solution. I was thinking that I could somehow every second run one sql query to condense the needed info, store it in a temp cached table and then have all of the user queries just draw from this. This will allow the complex join of 4 tables to only be run once, and then from there the users just need to do a simple lookup from the cached table. I really don't know if this is feasible. Comments on this or any other suggestions would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Why would the value of the Session object go away?

    - by Michael
    In ASP.NET/VB.NET 2005 I've created a small web app with two forms. In Default there is a button and a text box and a link. When you press the button whatever is in the text box is put into the Session. Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey") = Me.TextBox1.Text End Sub When you press the link it's NavigateURL property is "~/Retrieve.aspx" On the Retrieve page it pulls the information out of the Session (that is, whatever you typed in the text box). Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim myValue As String = CType(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey"), String) Response.Write(myValue) End Sub Now it works on my machine and when deployed to the production web-site server if I run the browser remotely there it works fine - What you type on the first page appears on the second page. But when I run it from my machine to the production web server the second page is always blank. Why? It doesnt seem like a timeout issue - brand new web.config taking the defaults. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Why Stream/lazy val implementation using is faster than ListBuffer one

    - by anrizal
    I coded the following implementation of lazy sieve algorithms using Stream and lazy val below : def primes(): Stream[Int] = { lazy val ps = 2 #:: sieve(3) def sieve(p: Int): Stream[Int] = { p #:: sieve( Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get) } ps } and the following implementation using (mutable) ListBuffer: import scala.collection.mutable.ListBuffer def primes(): Stream[Int] = { def sieve(p: Int, ps: ListBuffer[Int]): Stream[Int] = { p #:: { val nextprime = Stream.from(p + 2, 2). find(i=> ps.takeWhile(j => j * j <= i). forall(i % _ > 0)).get sieve(nextprime, ps += nextprime) } } sieve(3, ListBuffer(3))} When I did primes().takeWhile(_ < 1000000).size , the first implementation is 3 times faster than the second one. What's the explanation for this ? I edited the second version: it should have been sieve(3, ListBuffer(3)) instead of sieve(3, ListBuffer()) .

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  • iphone - moving from one view to another

    - by codemonkey
    Hi there, I am getting started with iphone development and am trying to move from one view to another. I have a main view (NearestPhotosViewController) which basically acts as a menu for my app. I then have a second view (DisplayNearestPhotos). I come from a web (html) background so what i'm trying to do here in web terms is click a button (link) on the NearestPhotosViewController view to then display the DisplayNearestPhotos view. I have been looking around for some code to do this (I don't think it's as simple as doing the equivelent in html). The following code is hooked up to a button on my menu view. -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { DisplayNearestPhotos *views = [[DisplayNearestPhotos alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:views animated:YES]; views.release; } The above code works (it displays the second view) but what i'd like to know is, is that the correct way to do it? If not, what is the correct way to move from one view to another? Thank you in advance

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  • I can't figure out why this fps counter is inaccurate.

    - by rmetzger
    I'm trying to track frames per second in my game. I don't want the fps to show as an average. I want to see how the frame rate is affected when I push keys and add models etc. So I am using a variable to store the current time and previous time, and when they differ by 1 second, then I update the fps. My problem is that it is showing around 33fps but when I move the mouse around really fast, the fps jumps up to 49fps. Other times, if I change a simple line of code elsewhere not related to the frame counter, or close the project and open it later, the fps will be around 60. Vsync is on so I can't tell if the mouse is still effecting the fps. Here is my code which is in an update function that happens every frame: FrameCount++; currentTime = timeGetTime (); static unsigned long prevTime = currentTime; TimeDelta = (currentTime - prevTime) / 1000; if (TimeDelta > 1.0f) { fps = FrameCount / TimeDelta; prevTime = currentTime; FrameCount = 0; TimeDelta = 0; } Here are the variable declarations: int FrameCount; double fps, currentTime, prevTime, TimeDelta, TimeElapsed; Please let me know what is wrong here and how to fix it, or if you have a better way to count fps. Thanks!!!!!! I am using DirectX 9 btw but I doubt that is relevant, and I am using PeekMessage. Should I be using an if else statement instead? Here is my message processing loop: MSG msg; ZeroMemory (&msg, sizeof (MSG)); while (msg.message != WM_QUIT) { if (PeekMessage(&msg, NULL, 0, 0, PM_REMOVE)) { TranslateMessage (&msg); DispatchMessage (&msg); } Update (); RenderFrame (); }

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  • new Statefull session bean instance without calling lookup

    - by kislo_metal
    Hi! Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , it`s method createSession() generating @Statefull UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Statefull session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

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  • How to start AJAX in Zend?

    - by Awan
    I am working on some projects as a developer(PHP,MySQL) in which AJAX and jQuery is already implemented. But now I want to learn implementation of AJAX and jQuery stuff. Can anyone tell me the exact steps with explanation? I have created a project in Zend. There is only one controller(IndexController) and two actions(a and b) in my project now. Now I want to use ajax in my project. But I don't know how to start. I read some tutorial but unable to completely understand. I have index.phtml like this: <a href='index/a'>Load info A</a> <br/> <a href='index/b'>Load info B</a> <br /> <div id=one>load first here<div> <div id=two>load second here</div> Here index is controller in links. a and b are actions. now I have four files like this: a1.phtml I am a1 a2.phtml I am a2 b1.phtml I am b1 b2.phtml I am b2 I think you have got my point. When user clicks first link (Load info A) then a1.phtml should be loaded into div one and a2.phtml should be loaded into div two When user clicks second link (Load info B) then b1.phtml should be loaded into div one and b2.phtml should be loaded into div two And someone tell me the purpose of JSON in this process and how to use this also? Thanks

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  • How to start with AJAX/JSON in Zend?

    - by Awan
    I am working on some projects as a developer(PHP,MySQL) in which AJAX and jQuery is already implemented. But now I want to learn implementation of AJAX and jQuery stuff. Can anyone tell me the exact steps with explanation? I have created a project in Zend. There is only one controller(IndexController) and two actions(a and b) in my project now. Now I want to use ajax in my project. But I don't know how to start. I read some tutorial but unable to completely understand. I have index.phtml like this: <a href='index/a'>Load info A</a> <br/> <a href='index/b'>Load info B</a> <br /> <div id=one>load first here<div> <div id=two>load second here</div> Here index is controller in links. a and b are actions. now I have four files like this: a1.phtml I am a1 a2.phtml I am a2 b1.phtml I am b1 b2.phtml I am b2 I think you have got my point. When user clicks first link (Load info A) then a1.phtml should be loaded into div one and a2.phtml should be loaded into div two When user clicks second link (Load info B) then b1.phtml should be loaded into div one and b2.phtml should be loaded into div two And someone tell me the purpose of JSON in this process and how to use this also? Thanks

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  • parse content away from structure in a binary file

    - by Jeff Godfrey
    Using C#, I need to read a packed binary file created using FORTRAN. The file is stored in an "Unformatted Sequential" format as described here (about half-way down the page in the "Unformatted Sequential Files" section): http://www.tacc.utexas.edu/services/userguides/intel8/fc/f_ug1/pggfmsp.htm As you can see from the URL, the file is organized into "chunks" of 130 bytes or less and includes 2 length bytes (inserted by the FORTRAN compiler) surrounding each chunk. So, I need to find an efficient way to parse the actual file payload away from the compiler-inserted formatting. Once I've extracted the actual payload from the file, I'll then need to parse it up into its varying data types. That'll be the next exercise. My first thoughts are to slurp up the entire file into a byte array using File.ReadAllBytes. Then, just iterate through the bytes, skipping the formatting and transferring the actual data to a second byte array. In the end, that second byte array should contain the actual file contents minus all the formatting, which I'd then need to go back through to get what I need. As I'm fairly new to C#, I thought there might be a better, more accepted way of tackling this. Also, in case it's helpful, these files could be fairly large (say 30MB), though most will be much smaller...

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  • Password hashing, salt and storage of hashed values

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    Suppose you were at liberty to decide how hashed passwords were to be stored in a DBMS. Are there obvious weaknesses in a scheme like this one? To create the hash value stored in the DBMS, take: A value that is unique to the DBMS server instance as part of the salt, And the username as a second part of the salt, And create the concatenation of the salt with the actual password, And hash the whole string using the SHA-256 algorithm, And store the result in the DBMS. This would mean that anyone wanting to come up with a collision should have to do the work separately for each user name and each DBMS server instance separately. I'd plan to keep the actual hash mechanism somewhat flexible to allow for the use of the new NIST standard hash algorithm (SHA-3) that is still being worked on. The 'value that is unique to the DBMS server instance' need not be secret - though it wouldn't be divulged casually. The intention is to ensure that if someone uses the same password in different DBMS server instances, the recorded hashes would be different. Likewise, the user name would not be secret - just the password proper. Would there be any advantage to having the password first and the user name and 'unique value' second, or any other permutation of the three sources of data? Or what about interleaving the strings? Do I need to add (and record) a random salt value (per password) as well as the information above? (Advantage: the user can re-use a password and still, probably, get a different hash recorded in the database. Disadvantage: the salt has to be recorded. I suspect the advantage considerably outweighs the disadvantage.) There are quite a lot of related SO questions - this list is unlikely to be comprehensive: Encrypting/Hashing plain text passwords in database Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords The necessity of hiding the salt for a hash Clients-side MD5 hash with time salt Simple password encryption Salt generation and Open Source software I think that the answers to these questions support my algorithm (though if you simply use a random salt, then the 'unique value per server' and username components are less important).

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  • Strange javascript decoding behavior in IE

    - by Yoni
    I run the following html snippet in IE8 and IE7 with non-English characters (we tried both Hebrew and Chinese), and the second link never works properly. The displayed text in the alert box is mangled. This occurs in IE8 and IE7, but not in firefox. It is not dependent on Windows's regional settings. Here is the html snippet (html header and footer omitted for brevity, the content-type is "text/html; charset=utf-8", and so is the response header): <p> <a href="javascript:alert('ab????ab')">link with English and Hebrew text</a> <a href="javascript:alert('ab%D7%A9%D7%9C%D7%95%D7%9Dab')">same text, url encoded</a> </p> Here is the alert box that pops up when clicking the second link: I know that the string for "????" is encoded as 8 bytes in utf-8, thus there are 8 %NN items, and there are also 8 weird characters in the alert box. The problem is, how can I make IE recognize that this is utf-8 encoding text, like firefox does?

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  • Three20 TTSectionedDataSource row height

    - by Ward
    Hey there, I'm using Three20 to create a table with several textfields for user registration. I've found two possible methods using Three20. The first uses the TTSectionedDataSource's tableDidLoadModel method to manually add UI components and the second adds custom items that contains pre formatted UI components. The second option seems way more complex and I'm having a difficult time accessing the individual fields. So if one field is a textfield for the username, I need to access the field to submit the username and it doesn't seem like there's an easy answer. The first option gives me a lot of flexibility, but I can't figure out how to set the individual row heights. One row may have a label above a text field, another may have an image, etc. Is there a method that can be used in TTSectionedDataSource that will allow me to set the height for each row? Thus far, I'm using method one and creating UIViews to hold a label field and a text field. I've tried changing the frame of the uiview before it is added to the items array, but it has no affect. Any ideas?

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  • Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by Brian McCleary
    We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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  • Enums, Constructor overloads with similar conversions.

    - by David Thornley
    Why does VisualC++ (2008) get confused 'C2666: 2 overloads have similar conversions' when I specify an enum as the second parameter, but not when I define a bool type? Shouldn't type matching already rule out the second constructor because it is of a 'basic_string' type? #include <string> using namespace std; enum EMyEnum { mbOne, mbTwo }; class test { public: #if 1 // 0 = COMPILE_OK, 1 = COMPILE_FAIL test(basic_string<char> myString, EMyEnum myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #else test(basic_string<char> myString, bool myBool2) { } test(bool myBool, bool myBool2) { } #endif }; void testme() { test("test", mbOne); } I can work around this by specifying a reference 'ie. basic_string &myString' but not if it is 'const basic_string &myString'. Also calling explicitly via "test((basic_string)"test", mbOne);" also works. I suspect this has something to do with every expression/type being resolved to a bool via an inherent '!=0'. Curious for comments all the same :)

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