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  • Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

    - by Anssssss
    This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

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  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Strange javascript decoding behavior in IE

    - by Yoni
    I run the following html snippet in IE8 and IE7 with non-English characters (we tried both Hebrew and Chinese), and the second link never works properly. The displayed text in the alert box is mangled. This occurs in IE8 and IE7, but not in firefox. It is not dependent on Windows's regional settings. Here is the html snippet (html header and footer omitted for brevity, the content-type is "text/html; charset=utf-8", and so is the response header): <p> <a href="javascript:alert('ab????ab')">link with English and Hebrew text</a> <a href="javascript:alert('ab%D7%A9%D7%9C%D7%95%D7%9Dab')">same text, url encoded</a> </p> Here is the alert box that pops up when clicking the second link: I know that the string for "????" is encoded as 8 bytes in utf-8, thus there are 8 %NN items, and there are also 8 weird characters in the alert box. The problem is, how can I make IE recognize that this is utf-8 encoding text, like firefox does?

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  • Password hashing, salt and storage of hashed values

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    Suppose you were at liberty to decide how hashed passwords were to be stored in a DBMS. Are there obvious weaknesses in a scheme like this one? To create the hash value stored in the DBMS, take: A value that is unique to the DBMS server instance as part of the salt, And the username as a second part of the salt, And create the concatenation of the salt with the actual password, And hash the whole string using the SHA-256 algorithm, And store the result in the DBMS. This would mean that anyone wanting to come up with a collision should have to do the work separately for each user name and each DBMS server instance separately. I'd plan to keep the actual hash mechanism somewhat flexible to allow for the use of the new NIST standard hash algorithm (SHA-3) that is still being worked on. The 'value that is unique to the DBMS server instance' need not be secret - though it wouldn't be divulged casually. The intention is to ensure that if someone uses the same password in different DBMS server instances, the recorded hashes would be different. Likewise, the user name would not be secret - just the password proper. Would there be any advantage to having the password first and the user name and 'unique value' second, or any other permutation of the three sources of data? Or what about interleaving the strings? Do I need to add (and record) a random salt value (per password) as well as the information above? (Advantage: the user can re-use a password and still, probably, get a different hash recorded in the database. Disadvantage: the salt has to be recorded. I suspect the advantage considerably outweighs the disadvantage.) There are quite a lot of related SO questions - this list is unlikely to be comprehensive: Encrypting/Hashing plain text passwords in database Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords The necessity of hiding the salt for a hash Clients-side MD5 hash with time salt Simple password encryption Salt generation and Open Source software I think that the answers to these questions support my algorithm (though if you simply use a random salt, then the 'unique value per server' and username components are less important).

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  • Increment part of a string in Ruby

    - by Rik
    I have a method in a Ruby script that is attempting to rename files before they are saved. It looks like this: def increment (path) if path[-3,2] == "_#" print " Incremented file with that name already exists, renaming\n" count = path[-1].chr.to_i + 1 return path.chop! << count.to_s else print " A file with that name already exists, renaming\n" return path << "_#1" end end Say you have 3 files with the same name being saved to a directory, we'll say the file is called example.mp3. The idea is that the first will be saved as example.mp3 (since it won't be caught by if File.exists?("#{file_path}.mp3") elsewhere in the script), the second will be saved as example_#1.mp3 (since it is caught by the else part of the above method) and the third as example_#2.mp3 (since it is caught by the if part of the above method). The problem I have is twofold. 1) if path[-3,2] == "_#" won't work for files with an integer of more than one digit (example_#11.mp3 for example) since the character placement will be wrong (you'd need it to be path[-4,2] but then that doesn't cope with 3 digit numbers etc). 2) I'm never reaching problem 1) since the method doesn't reliably catch file names. At the moment it will rename the first to example_#1.mp3 but the second gets renamed to the same thing (causing it to overwrite the previously saved file). This is possibly too vague for Stack Overflow but I can't find anything that addresses the issue of incrementing a certain part of a string. Thanks in advance!

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  • Create a new delegate class for each asynchronous image download?

    - by Charles S.
    First, I'm using an NSURLConnection to download JSON data from twitter. Then, I'm using a second NSURLConnection to download corresponding user avatar images (the urls to the images are parsed from the first data download). For the first data connection, I have my TwitterViewController set as the NSURLConnection delegate. I've created a separate class (ImageDownloadDelegate) to function as the delegate for a second NSURLConnection that handles the images. After the tweets are finished downloading, I'm using this code to get the avatars: for(int j=0; j<[self.tweets count]; j++){ ImageDownloadDelegate *imgDelegate = [[ImageDownloadDelegate alloc] init]; Tweet *myTweet = [self.tweets objectAtIndex:j]; imgDelegate.tweet = myTweet; imgDelegate.table = timeline; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myTweet.imageURL] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60]; imgConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:imgDelegate]; [imgDelegate release]; } So basically a new instance of the delegate class is created for each image that needs to be downloaded. Is this the best way to go about this? But then there's no way to figure out which image is associate with which tweet, correct? The algorithm works fine... I'm just wondering if I'm going about it the most efficient way.

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  • Change the colour of ablines on ggplot

    - by Sarah
    Using this data I am fitting a plot: p <- ggplot(dat, aes(x=log(Explan), y=Response)) + geom_point(aes(group=Area, colour=Area))+ geom_abline(slope=-0.062712, intercept=0.165886)+ geom_abline(slope= -0.052300, intercept=-0.038691)+ scale_x_continuous("log(Mass) (g)")+ theme(axis.title.y=element_text(size=rel(1.2),vjust=0.2), axis.title.x=element_text(size=rel(1.2),vjust=0.2), axis.text.x=element_text(size=rel(1.3)), axis.text.y=element_text(size=rel(1.3)), text = element_text(size=13)) + scale_colour_brewer(palette="Set1") The two ablines represent the phylogenetically adjusted relationships for each Area trend. I am wondering, is it possible to get the ablines in the same colour palette as their appropriate area data? The first specified is for Area A, the second for Area B. I used: g <- ggplot_build(p) to find out that the first colour is #E41A1C and the second is #377EB8, however when I try to use aes within the +geom_abline command to specify these colours i.e. p <- ggplot(dat, aes(x=log(Explan), y=Response)) + geom_point(aes(group=Area, colour=Area))+ geom_abline(slope=-0.062712, intercept=0.165886,aes(colour='#E41A1C'))+ geom_abline(slope= -0.052300, intercept=-0.038691,aes(colour=#377EB8))+ scale_x_continuous("log(Mass) (g)")+ theme(axis.title.y=element_text(size=rel(1.2),vjust=0.2), axis.title.x=element_text(size=rel(1.2),vjust=0.2), axis.text.x=element_text(size=rel(1.3)), axis.text.y=element_text(size=rel(1.3)), text = element_text(size=13)) + scale_colour_brewer(palette="Set1") It changes the colour of the points and adds to the legend, which I don't want to do. Any advice would be much appreciated!

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  • Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by Brian McCleary
    We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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  • Is JPA persistence.xml classpath located?

    - by Vinnie
    Here's what I'm trying to do. I'm using JPA persistence in a web application, but I have a set of unit tests that I want to run outside of a container. I have my primary persistence.xml in the META_INF folder of my main app and it works great in the container (Glassfish). I placed a second persistence.xml in the META-INF folder of my test-classes directory. This contains a separate persistence unit that I want to use for test only. In eclipse, I placed this folder higher in the classpath than the default folder and it seems to work. Now when I run the maven build directly from the command line and it attempts to run the unit tests, the persistence.xml override is ignored. I can see the override in the META-INF folder of the maven generated test-classes directory and I expected the maven tests to use this file, but it isn't. My Spring test configuration overrides, achieved in a similar fashion are working. I'm confused at to whether the persistence.xml is located through the classpath. If it were, my override should work like the spring override since the maven surefire plugin explains "[The test class directory] will be included at the beginning the test classpath". Did I wrongly anticipate how the persistence.xml file is located? I could (and have) create a second persistence unit in the production persistence.xml file, but it feels dirty to place test configuration into this production file. Any other ideas on how to achieve my goal is welcome.

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  • jQuery .each() function. Resetting the index?

    - by Michael
    Hi there, I have multiple lists with the same class. I'd like to loop each list and its LI's and prepend the current number before each. The current code I have is: $jQuery(".numberList li").each(function(i) { var index = i + 1; $jQuery(this).prepend("<span>" + index + "</span>"); }); The problem is, is that the index doesn't restart back at 0 for each list it goes through, it just keeps going up. For example, the output I get now is: First list 1. item 2. item 3. item Second list 4. item 5. item 6. item Second list should start at 1 again by having the index back at 0. Could someone point out where I'm going wrong? I'm not a jQuery expert or anything...clearly :) Many thanks, Michael.

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  • UIPickerView crashing when switching segemented control

    - by Mattog1456
    Hello, I have four NSDictionaries that I would like to use to populate a pickerview depending on a segemented control. With the code I have, the first segmented control/pickerview works fine but when I switch to the second segment the picker view only loads part of the second dictionary, that is it loads the same number of rows as it counted in the first dictionary. When I change the segmented control to the third or fourth segment it simply crashes with a sigabrt error indicating that it cannot index item43 when only 27 exist. This I suspect stems from a UItextfield population based on the upickerview row and object. I think the problem is with the way I have the data source and delegate set up. #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDelegate - (NSString *)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView titleForRow:(NSInteger)row forComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return [robskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return [esabskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return [lebskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return [sbskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } return @"Unknown title"; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDataSource - (NSInteger)numberOfComponentsInPickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView numberOfRowsInComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return robskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return esabskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return lebskeys.count; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return sbskeys.count; } return 1; } #pragma mark - Any help would be much appreciated Thank you

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  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

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  • Using Array Controllers to restrict the view in one popup depending on the selection in another. Not

    - by mjohnh
    I am working on an app that is not core data based - the data feed is a series of web services. Two arrays are created from the data feed. The first holds season data, each array object being an NSDictionary. Two of the NSDictionary entries hold the data to be displayed in the popup ('seasonName') and an id ('seasonID') that acts as a pointer (in an external table) by matches defined for that season. The second array is also a collection of NSDictionaries. Two of the entries hold the data to be displayed in the popup ('matchDescription') and the id ('matchSeasonId') that points to the seasonId defined in the NSDictionaries in first array. I have two NSPopUps. I want the first to display the season names and the second to display the matches defined for that season, depending on the selection in the first. I'm new at bindings, so excuse me if I've missed something obvious. I've tried using ArrayControllers as follows: SeasonsArrayController: content bound to appDelegate seasonsPopUpArrayData. seasonsPopup: content bound to SeasonsArrayController.arrangedObjects; content value bound to SeasonsArrayController.arrangedObjects.seasonName I see the season names fine. I can obviously follow a similar route to see the matches, but I then see them all, instead of restricting the list to the matches for the season highlighted. All the tutorials I can find seem to revolve around core data and utilise the relationships defined therein. I don't have that luxury here. Any help very gratefully received.

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  • Python creating a dictionary and swapping these into another file

    - by satsurae
    Hi all, I have two tab delimited .csv file. From one.csv I have created a dictionary which looks like: 'EB2430': ' "\t"idnD "\t"yjgV "\t"b4267 "\n', 'EB3128': ' "\t"yagE "\t\t"b0268 "\n', 'EB3945': ' "\t"maeB "\t"ypfF "\t"b2463 "\n', 'EB3944': ' "\t"eutS "\t"ypfE "\t"b2462 "\n', I would like to insert the value of the dictionary into the second.csv file which looks like: "EB2430" 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 "EB3128" 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 "EB3945" 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 "EB3944" 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 With a resultant output tab delimited: 'EB2430' idnD yjgV b4267 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 'EB3128' yagE b0268 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 'EB3945' maeB ypfF b2463 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 'EB3944' eutS ypfE b2462 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 Here is my code for creating the dictionary: f = open ("one.csv", "r") g = open ("second.csv", "r") eb = [] desc = [] di = {} for line in f: for row in f: eb.append(row[1:7]) desc.append(row[7:]) di = dict(zip(eb,desc)) Sorry for it being so long-winded!! I've not been programming for long. Cheers! Sat

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  • How to receive Email in JEE application

    - by Hank
    Obviously it's not so difficult to send out emails from a JEE application via JavaMail. What I am interested in is the best pattern to receive emails (notification bounces, mostly)? I am not interested in IMAP/POP3-based approaches (polling the inbox) - my application shall react to inbound emails. One approach I could think of would be Keep existing MTA (postfix on linux in my case) - ops team already knows how to configure / operate it For every mail that arrives, spawn a Java app that receives the data and sends it off via JMS. I could do this via an entry in /etc/aliases like myuser: "|/path/to/javahelper" with javahelper calling the Java app, passing STDIN along. MDB (part of JEE application) receives JMS message, parses it, detects bounce message and acts accordingly. Another approach could be Open a listening network socket on port 25 on the JEE application container. Associate a SessionBean with the socket. Bean is part of JEE application and can parse/detect bounces/handle the messages directly. Keep existing MTA as inbound relay, do all its security/spam filtering, but forward emails to myuser (that pass the filter) to the JEE application container, port 25. The first approach I have done before (albeit in a different language/setup). From a performance and (perceived) cleanliness point of view, I think the second approach is better, but it would require me to provide a proper SMTP transport implementation. Also, I don't know if it's at all possible to connect a network socket with a bean... What is your recommendation? Do you have details about the second approach?

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  • coredata using old file version on device

    - by Martin KS
    This is a follow on from my previous problems here. Resetting the simulator solved all my troubles before, and I've gone on to complete my App. I now have the exact same problem when installing the app onto my iPhone device. It picks up an old version of my database, which doesn't have the second entity in it, and crashes when I try to access the second entity: 2010-04-22 23:52:18.860 albumCloud[135:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Image'' 2010-04-22 23:52:18.874 albumCloud[135:207] Stack: ( 843263261, 825818644, 820669213, 20277, 844154820, 16985, 14633, 844473760, 844851728, 862896011, 843011267, 843009055, 860901832, 843738160, 843731504, 11547, 11500 ) terminate called after throwing an instance of 'NSException' I have two questions: 1) How on earth do I delete my app thoroughly enough from my phone that it removes the old data? (I've so far tried regular app deletion, deleting and then holding home and power for a reboot, cursing at and threatening the app while running it... everything) 2) How do I prevent this happening when my application is in the App store, and I for some reason decide that I want to add another entity to the store, or another attribute to the existing entities? is there an "if x doesn't exist then create it" method?

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  • RSKeyMgmt -r unable to remove installtion ID

    - by Eves
    I have backed up databases on one 2005 SQL Server and have restored those databases on a second 2005 SQL Server. I am currently trying to remove the new server's OLD key instance ID using the Reporting Services Key Manager (RSKeyMgmt -r). Prior to running the removal command the list of the current instances shows the new server's OLD instance ID as well as the NEW instance ID from the first SQL Server. Executing the RSKeyMgmt -r command results in: "The command completed successfully". However, when I recheck the listing of current instance IDs I see both the OLD and NEW instance IDs. In addition, when I check the Application Event Viewer I see an error: Report Server Windows Service (MSSQLSERVER) has not been granted access to the catalog content Does anyone know why I would be getting the above application error? Or...does anyone know what I would need to do to give access to the catalog to the Report Server Window Service? The first SQL Server where the databases were backed up is an Enterprise edition SQL Server and the second SQL Server where the databases were restored is Standard edition. Could this be the cause of the problem? Is there a way to make this backup and restore migration work?

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  • Linux time sample based profiler.

    - by Caspin
    short version: Is there a good time based sampling profiler for Linux? long version: I generally use OProfile to optimize my applications. I recently found a shortcoming that has me wondering. The problem was a tight loop spawning c++filt to demangle a c++ name. I only stumbled upon the code by accident while chasing down another bottleneck. The OProfile didn't show anything unusual about the code so I almost ignored it but my code sense told me to optimize the call and see what happened. I changed the popen of c++filt to abi::__cxa_demangle. The runtime went from more than a minute to a little over a second. About a x60 speed up. Is there a way I could have configured OProfile to flag the popen call? As the profile data sits now OProfile thinks the bottle neck was the heap and std::string calls (which BTW once optimized dropped the runtime to less than a second, more than x2 speed up). Here is my OProfile configuration: $ sudo opcontrol --status Daemon not running Event 0: CPU_CLK_UNHALTED:90000:0:1:1 Separate options: library vmlinux file: none Image filter: /path/to/excutable Call-graph depth: 7 Buffer size: 65536 Is there another profiler for Linux that could have found the bottleneck? I suspect the issue is that OProfile only logs its samples to the currently running process. I'd like it to always log its samples to the process I'm profiling. So if the process is currently switched out (blocking on IO or a popen call) OProfile would just place its sample at the blocked call. If I can't fix this, OProfile will only be useful when the executable is pushing near 100% CPU. It can't help with executables that that have inefficient blocking calls.

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  • getting data from tableviewcell to 2nd view

    - by chubsta
    I am very new to this and am trying to learn by creating a few little apps for myself. I have a navigation-based app where the user taps the row to select a film title - i then want the second view to show details of the film. Thanks to a very helpful person here i am getting the results of the row pressed as 'rowTitle' as follows : (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [keys objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *nameSection = [names objectForKey:key]; NSString *rowTitle = [nameSection objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; NSLog(@"rowTitle = %@", rowTitle); [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; I am, however, struggling to make the data at 'rowTitle' available to the 2nd view - basically, if i can get the info - for example rowTitle is "aliens2" - i want to be able to add a new extension to the end of the string returned by 'rowTitle' in order to point to an image (if that makes sense) in the second view... something like tempImageName=[** this is where the info from rowTitle needs to be i suppose**]; tempImageType=@".png"; finalImageName=[tempImageName stringByAppendingString:tempImageType]; does this make sense to anyone (apologies if it doesnt - i know what i want but how to explain it is a little more awkward!) Thanks again for any help anyone can give (and any help as to formatting these questions would be useful too obviously!!)!

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  • Java try finally variations

    - by Petr Gladkikh
    This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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  • Same code, not the same place, different results

    - by Tom
    Hi! I'm trying to something pretty simple but I don't understand why the second bit of code is giving me a bad access error... First: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Tom: Converting the row int to a string and adding 1 to it so that the rows fit with the array indexes.) NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); cell.textLabel.text = [array objectAtIndex:1]; return cell; } That code gives me exactly what I want: 2010-03-18 15:18:12.884 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 1 2010-03-18 15:18:12.885 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 7, Blessures ) 2010-03-18 15:18:12.892 PremierSoins[28005:40b] 2 2010-03-18 15:18:12.893 PremierSoins[28005:40b] ( 18, "Test 2" ) But then, the second: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSString *key = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", indexPath.row+1]; NSArray *array = [self.tableDataSource objectForKey:key]; NSLog(@"%@", key); NSLog(@"%@", [array description]); } Is only able to get me the key, but the description of the array makes it crash... tableDataSource is a NSMutableDictionary containing multiple arrays... Like this: { 1 = ( 7, Blessures ); 2 = ( 18, "Test 2" ); } Do you have any clue? I've been looking at this since yesterday... Thanks! Tom

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  • zoomfactor value in CGAffineTransformMakeScale in iPhone

    - by suse
    Hello, 1) I'm doing pinch zoom on the UIImageView , how should i decide upon the zoomfactor value, because when the zoomfactor value goes beyond 0[i.e negative value]the image is gettig tilted, which i dont want it to happen. how to avoid this situation. 2) Y is the flickring kind of rotationis happening, Y not the smooth rotation? ll this be taken care by CGAffineTransformMakeScale(zoomfactor,zoomfactor);method? This is what i'm doing in my code: zoomFactor = 0;// Initially zoomfactor is set to zero - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ NSLog(@" Inside touchesBegan .................."); NSArray *twoTouches = [touches allObjects]; UITouch *first = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:0]; OPERATION = [self identifyOperation:touches :first]; NSLog(@"OPERATION : %d",OPERATION); if(OPERATION == OPERATION_PINCH){ //double touch pinch UITouch *second = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:1]; f_G_initialDistance = distanceBetweenPoints([first locationInView:self.view],[second locationInView:self.view]); } NSLog(@" leaving touchesBegan .................."); } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@" Inside touchesMoved ................."); NSArray *twoTouchPoints = [touches allObjects]; if(OPERATION == OPERATION_PINCH){ CGFloat currentDistance = distanceBetweenPoints([[twoTouchPoints objectAtIndex:0] locationInView:self.view],[[twoTouchPoints objectAtIndex:1] locationInView:self.view]); int pinchOperation = [self identifyPinchOperation:f_G_initialDistance :currentDistance]; G_zoomFactor = [self calculateZoomFactor:pinchOperation :G_zoomFactor]; [uiImageView_G_obj setTransform:CGAffineTransformMakeScale(G_zoomFactor, G_zoomFactor)]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:resetButton]; [self.view bringSubviewToFront:uiSlider_G_obj]; f_G_initialDistance = currentDistance; } NSLog(@" leaving touchesMoved .................."); } - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@" Inside touchesEnded .................."); NSArray *twoTouches = [touches allObjects]; UITouch *first = [twoTouches objectAtIndex:0]; if(OPERATION == OPERATION_PINCH){ //do nothing } NSLog(@" Leaving touchesEnded .................."); } Thank You.

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • How can I control the height of a ListView in WPF, using a complex DataTemplate with DataTriggers?

    - by Rob Perkins
    I have a ListView element with a DataTemplate for each ListViewItem defined as follows. When run, the ListView's height is not collapsed onto the items in the view, which is undesirable behavior: <DataTemplate x:Key="LicenseItemTemplate"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> <RowDefinition Height="Auto" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Row="0" Text="{Binding company}"></TextBlock> <Grid Grid.Row="1" Style="{StaticResource HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle}"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Button Grid.Row="0">ClickIt</Button> </Grid> </Grid> </DataTemplate> The second row of the outer grid has a style applied which looks like this. The purpose of the style is to : <Style TargetType="{x:Type Grid}" x:Key="HiddenWhenNotSelectedStyle" > <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Collapsed" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsSelected, RelativeSource={ RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type ListBoxItem} } }" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Grid.Visibility" Value="Visible" /> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> The ListView renders like this: The desired appearance is this, when none of the elements are selected: ...with, of course, the ListView's height adjusting to accommodate the additional content when the second grid is made visible by selection. What can I do to get the desired behavior?

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  • php multidimensional array as name value pair

    - by Ayad Mfs
    For ecommerce, that expected name value pair I have the following approved code: function create_example_purchase() { set_credentials(); $purchase = array( 'name' => 'Digital Good Purchase Example', 'description' => 'Example Digital Good Purchase', 'amount' => '12.00', // sum of all item_amount 'items' => array( array( // First item 'item_name' => 'First item name', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 1st item', 'item_amount' => '6.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 1, 'item_number' => 'XF100', ), array( // Second item 'item_name' => 'Second Item', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 2nd item', 'item_amount' => '3.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 2, 'item_number' => 'XJ100', ), ) ); return new Purchase( $purchase); } I would like to get $items Array inside associative $purchase array dynamically from shipping cart. Is there a way to generate exactly the same output above? My dirty solution, to write $purchase array as string inclusive the generated $items array in a file and include it later in the called script. Help appreciated.

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