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  • Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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  • MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

    - by A9S6
    I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

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  • SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

    - by coreyward
    I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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  • Tail recursion and memoization with C#

    - by Jay
    I'm writing a function that finds the full path of a directory based on a database table of entries. Each record contains a key, the directory's name, and the key of the parent directory (it's the Directory table in an MSI if you're familiar). I had an iterative solution, but it started looking a little nasty. I thought I could write an elegant tail recursive solution, but I'm not sure anymore. I'll show you my code and then explain the issues I'm facing. Dictionary<string, string> m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); ... private string ExpandDirectoryKey(Database database, string directoryKey) { // check for terminating condition string fullPath; if (m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary.TryGetValue(directoryKey, out fullPath)) { return fullPath; } // inductive step Record record = ExecuteQuery(database, "SELECT DefaultDir, Directory_Parent FROM Directory where Directory.Directory='{0}'", directoryKey); // null check string directoryName = record.GetString("DefaultDir"); string parentDirectoryKey = record.GetString("Directory_Parent"); return Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey), directoryName); } This is how the code looked when I realized I had a problem (with some minor validation/massaging removed). I want to use memoization to short circuit whenever possible, but that requires me to make a function call to the dictionary to store the output of the recursive ExpandDirectoryKey call. I realize that I also have a Path.Combine call there, but I think that can be circumvented with a ... + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + .... I thought about using a helper method that would memoize the directory and return the value so that I could call it like this at the end of the function above: return MemoizeHelper( m_directoryKeyToFullPathDictionary, Path.Combine(ExpandDirectoryKey(database, parentDirectoryKey)), directoryName); But I feel like that's cheating and not going to be optimized as tail recursion. Any ideas? Should I be using a completely different strategy? This doesn't need to be a super efficient algorithm at all, I'm just really curious. I'm using .NET 4.0, btw. Thanks!

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  • Unmanaged DLL (exporting Dialog) + Class Library (DLL) + no Windows Style/Themes

    - by Gohlool
    Hi, I have a managed application TestApplication.exe in C# and Application.EnableVisualStyles() is allready called. I have a Class Library MySharedCode.dll also in C# which uses [DLLImport()] to import some External dialogs out of an unmanaged dll. Well, now I am using (add reference) MySharedCode.dll in my TestApplication.exe and call a function MyTestConfigDlg() out of it. TestClass.MyTestConfigDlg(); OK, everything works fine and I get my dialog, but the dialog has NO XP style/themes? I just wanted to see if it's general problem with managed/unmanged modules, so I used the [DLLImport()] to call the same MyTestConfigDlg() dialog but this time directly in my TestApplication.exe! WOW! Worked as I expected. The Dialog was in XP Style/Themes! so, anybody here who can help me out? FYI: I also tried (just for test) to call MessageBoxA() API call in my Class Library Dll which later called by my TestApplication.exe and the MessageBoxA() had also no Style/Themes! Thanks in advance!

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  • How to start/stop/restart jQuery animation

    - by Emin
    I have the following function that when I call displays a message to the user for a certain amount of time (5 secs in my case). During this "period" if I call the function again to display another message, practically it should hide, then re-appear with the new message for another 5 seconds. What happens with my code below, I call the function to display the message. Then, lets say on the 4th second, I call it again to display another message, the new message is displayed for 1 second. I need to somehow -reset- the time but can't figure out how. Tried stopping the animation, checking if the element was visible and hiding it if it was, and many other things. I believe the solution is a simple chaining issue but can't get it right. So any help would be appreciated! function display_message(msgType, message) { var elem = $('#ur_messagebox'); switch (msgType) { case 'confirm': elem.addClass('msg_confirm'); break; case 'error': elem.addClass('msg_error'); break; } elem.html(message); elem.show().delay(5000).fadeOut(1000); } thanks in advance...

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  • calling java script function then C# function after clicking ASP.NET button

    - by Eyla
    I have this serious: I have ASP.NET page, This page contents Update panel with ASP.NET control. I have Java script function to do validation so when I click the button I will use onclientclick to call the java function to do the validation and after this one done should call then event click button function from code behind. I tried vew methods but they did not work for me. here is sample of my code that after I click the button onclientclick will call the java script function for validation and if the validation is OK should call onclick event. .................... java script function ........................ <script type="text/javascript" > function add(){ if (tag == trye) { document.getElementById('<%=btnInfor.ClientID%>').click(); alert("DataAdded") } else { alert("Requiered Field Missing.") return false; } } </script> ..................... ASP.NET button ................... <asp:Button ID="btnInfor" runat="server" Text="Add Information" Style="position: absolute; top: 1659px; left: 433px;" onclientclick="JavaScript: return myAdd()" /> .................... code behind in C# ...................... protected void btnInfor_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { \\mycode }

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  • PHP date returning wrong time

    - by gargantaun
    The following script is returning the wrong time after I call date_default_timezone_set("UTC") <?PHP $timestamp = time(); echo "<p>Timestamp: $timestamp</p>"; // This returns the correct time echo "<p>". date("Y-m-d H:i:s", $timestamp) ."</p>"; echo "<p>Now I call 'date_default_timezone_set(\"UTC\")' and echo out the same timestamp.</p>"; echo "Set timezone = " . date_default_timezone_set("UTC"); // This returns a time 5 hours in the past echo "<p>". date("Y-m-d H:i:s", $timestamp) ."</p>"; ?> The timezone on the server is BST. So what should happen is that the second call to 'date' should return a time 1 hour behind the first call. It's actually returning a time 5 hours behind the first one. I should note that the server was originally set up with the EDT timezone (UTC -4). That was changed to BST (UTC +1) and the server was restarted. I can't figure out if this is a PHP problem or a problem with the server.

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  • Control Javascript > CSS through Flash

    - by Jason b.
    Hi All, Ideal situation/setup: A page containing 1 Flash movie and a separate div containing a few hyperlinks. These hyperlinks each have a unique class name like so: Copy code <ul> <li><a href="" class="randomname1"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname2"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname3"></a></li> <li><a href="" class="randomname4"></a></li> </ul> The Flash movie itself will contain 4 buttons. Clicking on one of these buttons should make the Flash communicate with Jquery/JS and tell it to highlight the specific classname. Ideas so far For the javascript, it would look like $(function() { function setClass(className) {$("."+className).css("background","red");} }); And in specific keyframes within Flash 1. button 1 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname1"); 1. button 2 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname2"); 1. button 3 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname3"); 1. button 4 ExternalInterface.call("setClass","randomname4"); The problem is that it is not really working well and i am not sure if i am making Flash communicate with JS properly. Any ideas or hints to steer me in the right direction again? Thank you in advance J.

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  • C to Assembly code - what does it mean

    - by Smith
    I'm trying to figure out exactly what is going on with the following assembly code. Can someone go down line by line and explain what is happening? I input what I think is happening (see comments) but need clarification. .file "testcalc.c" .section .rodata.str1.1,"aMS",@progbits,1 .LC0: .string "x=%d, y=%d, z=%d, result=%d\n" .text .globl main .type main, @function main: leal 4(%esp), %ecx // establish stack frame andl $-16, %esp // decrement %esp by 16, align stack pushl -4(%ecx) // push original stack pointer pushl %ebp // save base pointer movl %esp, %ebp // establish stack frame pushl %ecx // save to ecx subl $36, %esp // alloc 36 bytes for local vars movl $11, 8(%esp) // store 11 in z movl $6, 4(%esp) // store 6 in y movl $2, (%esp) // store 2 in x call calc // function call to calc movl %eax, 20(%esp) // %esp + 20 into %eax movl $11, 16(%esp) // WHAT movl $6, 12(%esp) // WHAT movl $2, 8(%esp) // WHAT movl $.LC0, 4(%esp) // WHAT?!?! movl $1, (%esp) // move result into address of %esp call __printf_chk // call printf function addl $36, %esp // WHAT? popl %ecx popl %ebp leal -4(%ecx), %esp ret .size main, .-main .ident "GCC: (Ubuntu 4.3.3-5ubuntu4) 4.3.3" .section .note.GNU-stack,"",@progbits Original code: #include <stdio.h> int calc(int x, int y, int z); int main() { int x = 2; int y = 6; int z = 11; int result; result = calc(x,y,z); printf("x=%d, y=%d, z=%d, result=%d\n",x,y,z,result); }

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  • jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

    - by Martin
    I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • Standard term for a thread I/O reorder buffer?

    - by Crashworks
    I have a case where many threads all concurrently generate data that is ultimately written to one long, serial file. I need to somehow serialize these writes so that the file gets written in the right order. ie, I have an input queue of 2048 jobs j0..jn, each of which produces a chunk of data oi. The jobs run in parallel on, say, eight threads, but the output blocks have to appear in the file in the same order as the corresponding input blocks — the output file has to be in the order o0o1o2... The solution to this is pretty self evident: I need some kind of buffer that accumulates and writes the output blocks in the correct order, similar to a CPU reorder buffer in Tomasulo's algorithm, or to the way that TCP reassembles out-of-order packets before passing them to the application layer. Before I go code it, I'd like to do a quick literature search to see if there are any papers that have solved this problem in a particularly clever or efficient way, since I have severe realtime and memory constraints. I can't seem to find any papers describing this though; a Scholar search on every permutation of [threads, concurrent, reorder buffer, reassembly, io, serialize] hasn't yielded anything useful. I feel like I must just not be searching the right terms. Is there a common academic name or keyword for this kind of pattern that I can search on?

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  • C Program Stalls or Infinite Loops inside and else statement?

    - by Bobby S
    I have this weird thing happening in my C program which has never happened to me before. I am calling a void function with a single parameter, the function is very similar to this so you can get the jist: ... printf("Before Call"); Dumb_Function(a); printf("After Call"); ... ... void Dumb_Function(int a){ if(a == null) { } else{ int i; for(i=0; i<a; i++) { do stuff } printf("test"); } } This will output Before Call test and NOT "After Call" How is this possible? Why does my function not return? Did my program counter get lost? I can not modify it to a non void function. When running the cursor will blink and I am able to type, I press CTRL+C to terminate. Any ideas?

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  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

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  • What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

    - by Hongli
    I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Is private method in spring service implement class thread safe

    - by Roger Ray
    I got a service in an project using Spring framework. public class MyServiceImpl implements IMyService { public MyObject foo(SomeObject obj) { MyObject myobj = this.mapToMyObject(obj); myobj.setLastUpdatedDate(new Date()); return myobj; } private MyObject mapToMyObject(SomeObject obj){ MyObject myojb = new MyObject(); ConvertUtils.register(new MyNullConvertor(), String.class); ConvertUtils.register(new StringConvertorForDateType(), Date.class); BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class); return myojb; } } Then I got a class to call foo() in multi-thread; There goes the problem. In some of the threads, I got error when calling BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); saying Cannot invoke com.my.MyObject.setStartDate - java.lang.ClassCastException@2da93171 obviously, this is caused by ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class) which is supposed to be called after BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. It looks like one of the threads deregistered the Date class out while another thread was just about to call BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. So My question is how do I make the private method mapToMyObject() thread safe? Or simply make the BeanUtils thread safe when it's used in a private method. And will the problem still be there if I keep the code this way but instead I call this foo() method in sevlet? If many sevlets call at the same time, would this be a multi-thread case as well?

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  • Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

    - by Sen Jacob
    Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • wx_ref and custom wx_object's

    - by Iogann
    Hi! I am developing MDI application with help of wxErlang. I have a parent frame, implemented as wx_object: -module(main_frame). -export([new/0, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -behaviour(wx_object). .... And I have a child frame, implemented as wx_object too: module(child_frame). -export([new/2, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -export([save/1]). -behaviour(wx_object). % some public API method save(Frame) -> wx_object:call(Frame, save). .... I want to call save/1 for an active child frame from the parent frame. There is my code: ActiveChild = wxMDIParentFrame:getActiveChild(Frame), case wx:is_null(ActiveChild) of false - child_frame:save(ActiveChild); _ - ignore end This code fails because ActiveChild is #wx_ref{} with state=[], but wx_object:call/2 needs #wx_ref{} where state is set to the pid of the process which we call. What is the right method to do this? I thought only to store a list of all created child frames with its pids in the parent frame and search the pid in this list, but this is ugly.

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • C# and Objects/Classes

    - by user1192890
    I have tried to compile code from Deitel's C# 2010 for programmers. I copied it exactly out of the book, but it still can't find main, even though I declared it in one of the classes. Here is a look at the two classes: For GradeBookTest: // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. public class GradeBookTest { // Main method begins program execution public static void Main(string[] args) { // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); } // end Main } // end class GradeBookTest Now for the GradeBook class: // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook That is how I copied them. Here is how they appeared in the book: 1 // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs 2 // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. 3 public class GradeBookTest 4 { 5 // Main method begins program execution 6 public static void Main( string[] args ) 7 { 8 // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook 9 GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); 10 11 // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method 12 myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); 13 } // end Main 14 } // end class GradeBookTest and // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook I don't see why they are not working. Right now I am using Visual Studio Pro 2010. Any Thoughts?

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  • Django templatetag "order of processing"

    - by Jason Persampieri
    I am trying to write a set of template tags that allow you to easily specify js and css files from within the template files themselves. Something along the lines of {% requires global.css %}, and later in the request, {% get_required_css %}. I have this mostly working, but there are a couple of issues. We'll start with the 'timing' issues. Each template tag is made up of two steps, call/init and render. Every call/init happens before any render procedure is called. In order to guarantee that all of the files are queued before the {% get_required_css %} is rendered, I need to build my list of required files in the call/init procedures themselves. So, I need to collect all of the files into one bundle per request. The context dict is obviously the place for this, but unfortunately, the call/init doesn't have access to the context variable. Is this making sense? Anyone see a way around this (without resorting to a hack-y global request object)? Another possibility to store these in a local dict but they would still need to be tied to the request somehow... possibly some sort of {% start_requires %} tag? But I have no clue how to make that work either.

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