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  • 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

    - by DFP
    Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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  • Explained: EF 6 and “Could not determine storage version; a valid storage connection or a version hint is required.”

    - by Ken Cox [MVP]
    I have a legacy ASP.NET 3.5 web site that I’ve upgraded to a .NET 4 web application. At the same time, I upgraded to Entity Framework 6. Suddenly one of the pages returned the following error: [ArgumentException: Could not determine storage version; a valid storage connection or a version hint is required.]    System.Data.SqlClient.SqlVersionUtils.GetSqlVersion(String versionHint) +11372412    System.Data.SqlClient.SqlProviderServices.GetDbProviderManifest(String versionHint) +91    System.Data.Common.DbProviderServices.GetProviderManifest(String manifestToken) +92 [ProviderIncompatibleException: The provider did not return a ProviderManifest instance.]    System.Data.Common.DbProviderServices.GetProviderManifest(String manifestToken) +11431433    System.Data.Metadata.Edm.Loader.InitializeProviderManifest(Action`3 addError) +11370982    System.Data.EntityModel.SchemaObjectModel.Schema.HandleAttribute(XmlReader reader) +216 A search of the error message didn’t turn up anything helpful except that someone mentioned that the error messages was bogus in his case. The page in question uses the ASP.NET EntityDataSource control, consumed by a Telerik RadGrid. This is a fabulous combination for putting a huge amount of functionality on a page in a very short time. Unfortunately, the 6.0.1 release of EF6 doesn’t support EntityDataSource. According to the people in charge, support is planned but there’s no timeline for an EntityDataSource build that works with EF6.  I’m not sure what to do in the meantime. Should I back out EF6 or manually wire up the RadGrid? The upshot is that you might want to rethink plans to upgrade to Entity Framework 6 for Web forms projects if they rely on that handy control. It might also help to spend a User voice vote here:  http://data.uservoice.com/forums/72025-entity-framework-feature-suggestions/suggestions/3702890-support-for-asp-net-entitydatasource-and-dynamicda

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  • Best practice for marking a bug as resolved in Bugzilla ?

    - by Vincent B.
    I am wondering what is the best way to handle the situation of marking a bug as resolved and providing a version of component/product in which this fix can be found. Context For a project I am working on, we are using Bugzilla for issue tracking, and we have the following: A product "A" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, This product "A" have the following components: Component "C1" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, Component "C2" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, Component "C3" with a version number like vA.B.C.D. Internally we keep track of which component versions have been used to generate the product A version vA.B.C.D. Example: Product "A" version v1.0.0.0 has been produced from component "C1" v1.0.0.3, component "C2" v1.3.0.0 and component "C3" v2.1.3.5. And Product "A" version v1.0.1.0 has been produced from component "C1" v1.0.0.4, component "C2" v1.3.0.0 and component "C3" v2.1.3.5. Each component is a SVN repository. The person in charge of generating the product "A" have only access to the different components tags folder in SVN, and not the trunk of each component repository. Problem Now the problem is the following, when a bug is found in the product "A", and that the bug is related to Component "C1", the version of product "A" is chosen (e.g. v1.0.0.0), and this version allow the developer to know which version of component "C1" has the bug (here it will be v1.0.0.3). A bug report is created. Now let's say that the developer responsible for component "C1" corrects the bug, then when the bug seems to be fixed and after some test and validation, the developer generates a new tag for component "C1", with the version v1.0.0.4. At this time, the developer of component "C1" needs to update the bug report, but what is the best to do: Mark the bug as resolved/fixed and add a comment saying "This bug has been fixed in the tags v1.0.0.4 of C1 component" ? Keep the bug as assigned, add a comment saying "This bug has been fixed in the tags v1.0.0.4 of C1 component, update this bug status to resolved for the next version of the product that will be generated with the newest version (v1.0.0.4 of C1)" ? Another possible way to deal with this problem. Right now the problem is that when a product component CX is fixed, it is not sure in which future version of the product A it will be included, so it is for me not possible to say in which version of the product it will be solved, but it is possible to say in which version of the Component CX it has been solved. So when do we need to mark a bug as solved, when the product A version include the fixed version of CX, or only when CX component has been fixed ? Thanks for your personal feedback and ideas about this !

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  • Best practice while marking a bug as resolved with Bugzilla (versioning of product and components)

    - by Vincent B.
    I am wondering what is the best way to handle the situation of marking a bug as resolved and providing a version of component/product in which this fix can be found. Context For a project I am working on, we are using Bugzilla for issue tracking, and we have the following: A product "A" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, This product "A" have the following components: Component "C1" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, Component "C2" with a version number like vA.B.C.D, Component "C3" with a version number like vA.B.C.D. Internally we keep track of which component versions have been used to generate the product A version vA.B.C.D. Example: Product "A" version v1.0.0.0 has been produced from component "C1" v1.0.0.3, component "C2" v1.3.0.0 and component "C3" v2.1.3.5. And Product "A" version v1.0.1.0 has been produced from component "C1" v1.0.0.4, component "C2" v1.3.0.0 and component "C3" v2.1.3.5. Each component is a SVN repository. The person in charge of generating the product "A" have only access to the different components tags folder in SVN, and not the trunk of each component repository. Problem Now the problem is the following, when a bug is found in the product "A", and that the bug is related to Component "C1", the version of product "A" is chosen (e.g. v1.0.0.0), and this version allow the developer to know which version of component "C1" has the bug (here it will be v1.0.0.3). A bug report is created. Now let's say that the developer responsible for component "C1" corrects the bug, then when the bug seems to be fixed and after some test and validation, the developer generates a new tag for component "C1", with the version v1.0.0.4. At this time, the developer of component "C1" needs to update the bug report, but what is the best to do: Mark the bug as resolved/fixed and add a comment saying "This bug has been fixed in the tags v1.0.0.4 of C1 component" ? Keep the bug as assigned, add a comment saying "This bug has been fixed in the tags v1.0.0.4 of C1 component, update this bug status to resolved for the next version of the product that will be generated with the newest version (v1.0.0.4 of C1)" ? Another possible way to deal with this problem. Right now the problem is that when a product component CX is fixed, it is not sure in which future version of the product A it will be included, so it is for me not possible to say in which version of the product it will be solved, but it is possible to say in which version of the Component CX it has been solved. So when do we need to mark a bug as solved, when the product A version include the fixed version of CX, or only when CX component has been fixed ? Thanks for your personal feedback and ideas about this !

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  • CFBundleVersion error even though new version is higher

    - by Rob
    When trying to upload an upgrade binary to iTunes Connect, I am getting this error message even though I have updated CFBundleVersion in my info.plist file to a higher value (and checked the package contents after building it to be sure it copied over). I have already successfully submitted a different app upgrade by doing this same method, but for whatever reason it won't work this time. Any insights or is this an iTunes bug? The binary you uploaded was invalid. The key CFBundleVersion in the Info.plist file must contain a higher version than that of the previously uploaded version.

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  • "Malformed version number string mingw32" when starting rails

    - by Freewind
    My os: windows xp, ruby: 1.8.7, rails: 2.3.5 Everything was fine, but I just installed a "gcc-4.4.0-mingw32-bin", and run gem install rdiscount, then my rails can't start. Now when I run ruby script/server, or rake gems:install, the following error will occur: rake aborted! Malformed version number string mingw32 (See full trace by running task with --trace) E:\WORKSPACE_TOPCODER\wenda_ror>ruby script/server => Booting Mongrel => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/version.rb:182:in `initialize': Malformed version number string mingw32 (ArgumentError) from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:105:in `new' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:105:in `version_for_dir' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:47:in `refresh!' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:45:in `each' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:45:in `refresh!' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/vendor_gem_source_index.rb:29:in `initialize' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `new' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:21:in `add_frozen_gem_path' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:298:in `add_gem_load_paths' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:132:in `process' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `send' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run' from E:/WORKSPACE_TOPCODER/wenda_ror/config/environment.rb:9 from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from E:/Ruby/ruby-187/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' Now I have re-installed my ruby and rails, but the same error still occurs. And I have searched in google, found no solution. It seems I have to re-install my windows xp. Somebody knows the reason? Help...

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  • SharePoint Webpart and ASP.NET User Control

    - by tbischel
    I am developing SharePoint Web Parts for MOSS 2007 on Visual Studio 2008. Up until now, I've been adding all my controls by hand to the code behind... but an earlier post suggested I could use the designer to create an ASP.NET User Control, then add it to the webpart, and everything is happy... See figure 5 for an example. However, I can't seem to add a new ASP.NET User Control to my MOSS WebPart project, the template just doesn't appear. If I create a WebApplication and make my User Control in there, I can't see any SharePoint templates to add to the project. Finally, I tried copying a simple aspx file and its code behind to my webpart directly, and adding them as an "existing component"... but now the designer won't recognize the aspx file. Next, I'd probably try adding two projects to my solution, and just referencing any dll's from the ASP.NET application... So how do I get an ASP control into my SharePoint WebPart project so that I can use the Visual Studio designer?

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  • Using Lite Version of Entity in nHibernate Relations?

    - by Amitabh
    Is it a good idea to create a lighter version of an Entity in some cases just for performance reason pointing to same table but with fewer columns mapped. E.g If I have a Contact Table which has 50 Columns and in few of the related entities I might be interested in FirstName and LastName property is it a good idea to create a lightweight version of Contact table. E.g. public class ContactLite { public int Id {get; set;} public string FirstName {get; set;} public string LastName {get; set;} } Also is it possible to map multiple classes to same table?

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  • RubyGem version error: activesupport(1.4.4 not = 3.0.0.beta) (Gem::LoadError)

    - by Denis
    Hello, I want to use the last version of rails, in my Gemfile: gem 'rails', '3.0.0.beta3' When trying to start my server I get this error, do you know how I can fix this issue? $rails s /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:777:in `report_activate_error': RubyGem version error: activesupport(1.4.4 not = 3.0.0.beta) (Gem::LoadError) from /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:211:in `activate' from /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:246:in `activate' from /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:245:in `each' from /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:245:in `activate' from /Library/Ruby/Site/1.8/rubygems.rb:1056:in `gem' from /usr/bin/rails:18 bundle install return Your bundle is complete! gem list give me activesupport (3.0.0.beta3, 2.3.5, 2.2.2, 1.4.4)

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  • Eclipse/adb error message in Vista "Failed to parse the output of adb version"

    - by watchman317
    I am trying to learn Android development, so I downloaded Eclipse Galileo and the Android SDK. However, whenever I start Eclipse, I get the error message "Failed to parse the output of adb version." In the Console/DDMS pane, the debug output reads: [2010-06-07 20:15:13 - ddms]Failed to reopen debug port for Selected Client to: 8700 [2010-06-07 20:15:13 - ddms]Address family not supported by protocol family: bind java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol family: bind at sun.nio.ch.Net.bind(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.ServerSocketChannelImpl.bind(Unknown Source) at sun.nio.ch.ServerSocketAdaptor.bind(Unknown Source) at sun.nio.ch.ServerSocketAdaptor.bind(Unknown Source) at com.android.ddmlib.MonitorThread.reopenDebugSelectedPort(Unknown Source) at com.android.ddmlib.MonitorThread.run(Unknown Source) [2010-06-07 20:15:17 - adb]Failed to parse the output of 'adb version' I am running Eclipse Galileo, have the most recent Android SDK downloaded, and am running Windows Vista 32-bit SP2. I am sure that the Android SDK path is correct and that all the files are there. I would appreciate any assistance anyone could provide. P.S.--If anyone could direct me to any useful Android development resources, I would appreciate it

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  • Binding WPF menu items to WPF Tab Control Items collection

    - by William
    I have a WPF Menu and a Tab control. I would like the list of menu items to be generated from the collection of TabItems on my tab control. I am binding my tab control to a collection to generate the TabItems. I have a TabItem style that uses a ContentPresenter to display the TabItem text in a TextBlock. When I bind the tab items to my menu the menu items are blank. I assume the menu items are looking for the Header property of the TabItems which I am not using. Is there a workaround for my scenario? Is it possible to bind to the Header property of the tab item, when I do not know the number of tabs in advance? Below is a copy of my xaml declarations. Tab Control and items: <DataTemplate x:Key="ClosableTabItemTemplate"> <DockPanel HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <Button Command="{Binding Path=CloseWorkSpaceCommand}" Content="X" Cursor="Hand" DockPanel.Dock="Right" Focusable="False" FontFamily="Courier" FontSize="9" FontWeight="Bold" Margin="10,1,0,0" Padding="0" VerticalContentAlignment="Bottom" Width="16" Height="16" Background="Red" /> <ContentPresenter HorizontalAlignment="Center" Content="{Binding Path=DisplayName}"> <ContentPresenter.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type TextBlock}"/> </ContentPresenter.Resources> </ContentPresenter> </DockPanel> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="WorkspacesTemplate"> <TabControl IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource ClosableTabItemTemplate}" Margin="10" Background="#4C4C4C"/> </DataTemplate> My Menu <Menu Background="Transparent"> <MenuItem Style="{StaticResource TabMenuButtonStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type TabControl}}, Path=Items}" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource TabMenuItem}"> </MenuItem> </Menu>

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  • Refresh User Control without Refreshing the Page

    - by Shrewdy
    hi, I have a page and on that page i have a button and a user control. I want to refresh the user control without refreshing the page. I know i cannot do it otherwise so i did is... (wrapped my user control inside the Update Panel.) <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd" runat="server" Text="Add name to list" OnClick="btnAdd_Click" /><br /><br /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upShowNames" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc1:ShowNames ID="ucShowNames" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnAdd" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> but i still the control wont refresh. i also tried calling the update panels .Update() method by changing its UpdateMode to Conditional but that does not work either... does any one know how can we do it then... any help will be greatly appreciated....thank you!!

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  • Database structure and source control - best practice

    - by Paddy
    Background I came from several years working in a company where all the database objects were stored in source control, one file per object. We had a list of all the objects that was maintained when new items were added (to allow us to have scripts run in order and handle dependencies) and a VB script that ran to create one big script for running against the database. All the tables were 'create if not exists' and all the SP's etc. were drop and recreate. Up to the present and I am now working in a place where the database is the master and there is no source control for DB objects, but we do use redgate's tools for updating our production database (SQL compare), which is very handy, and requires little work. Question How do you handle your DB objects? I like to have them under source control (and, as we're using GIT, I'd like to be able to handle merge conflicts in the scripts, rather than the DB), but I'm going to be pressed to get past the ease of using SQL compare to update the database. I don't really want to have us updating scripts in GIT and then using SQL compare to update the production database from our DEV DB, as I'd rather have 'one version of the truth', but I don't really want to get into re-writing a custom bit of software to bundle the whole lot of scripts together. I think that visual studio database edition may do something similar to this, but I'm not sure if we will have the budget for it. I'm sure that this has been asked to death, but I can't find anything that seems to quite have the answer I'm looking for. Similar to this, but not quite the same: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340614/what-are-the-best-practices-for-database-scripts-under-code-control

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  • Relative path from an ASP.NET user control NavigateUrl

    - by Daniel Ballinger
    I have a user control that contains a GridView. The GridView has both a HyperLinkField column and a template column that contains a HyperLink control. The ASP.NET project is structured as follows, with the Default.aspx page in each case using the user control. Application Root Controls UserControl with GridView SystemAdminFolder Default.aspx Edit.aspx OrganisationAdminFolder Default.aspx Edit.aspx StandardUserFolder Default.aspx Edit.aspx Note: The folders are being used to ensure the user has the correct role. I need to be able to set the DataNavigateUrlFormatString for the HyperLinkField and the NavigateUrl for the HyperLink to resolve to the Edit.aspx page in the corresponding folder. If I set the navigate URL to "Edit.aspx" the URL in the browser appears as 'http://Application Root/Controls/Edit.aspx' regardless of the originating directory. I can't use the Web application root operator (~/) as the path needs to be relative to the current page, not the application root. How can I use the same user control in multiple folders and resolve the URL to another page in the same folder? Note: The question is strongly based off a similar question by azhar2000s on the asp.net forums that matches my problem.

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  • Wrapped WPF Control

    - by Robert
    Hi, I'm trying to create a GUI (WPF) Library where each (custom) control basically wraps an internal (third party) control. Then, I'm manually exposing each property (not all of them, but almost). In XAML the resulting control is pretty straightforward: <my:CustomButton Content="ClickMe" /> And the code behind is quite simple as well: public class CustomButton : Control { private MyThirdPartyButton _button = null; static CustomButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(CustomButton))); } public CustomButton() { _button = new MyThirdPartyButton(); this.AddVisualChild(_button); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return _button == null ? 0 : 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { if (_button == null) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); } return _button; } #region Property: Content public Object Content { get { return GetValue(ContentProperty); } set { SetValue(ContentProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ContentProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Content", typeof(Object), typeof(CustomButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(new PropertyChangedCallback(ChangeContent)) ); private static void ChangeContent(DependencyObject source, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { (source as CustomButton).UpdateContent(e.NewValue); } private void UpdateContent(Object sel) { _button.Content = sel; } #endregion } The problem comes after we expose MyThirdPartyButton as a property (in case we don't expose something, we would like to give the programmer the means to use it directly). By simply creating the property, like this: public MyThirdPartyButton InternalControl { get { return _button; } set { if (_button != value) { this.RemoveVisualChild(_button); _button = value; this.AddVisualChild(_button); } } } The resulting XAML would be this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl> <thirdparty:MyThirdPartyButton Content="ClickMe" /> </my:CustomButton.InternalControl> And what I'm looking for, is something like this: <my:CustomButton> <my:CustomButton.InternalControl Content="ClickMe" /> But (with the code I have) its impossible to add attributes to InternalControl... Any ideas/suggestions? Thanks a lot, -- Robert

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  • Bring Winforms control to front

    - by Nathan
    Are there any other methods of bringing a control to the front other than control.BringToFront()? I have series of labels on a user control and when I try to bring one of them to front it is not working. I have even looped through all the controls and sent them all the back except for the one I am interested in and it doesn't change a thing. Here is the method where a label is added to the user control private void AddUserLabel() { UserLabel field = new UserLabel(); ++fieldNumber; field.Name = "field" + fieldNumber.ToString(); field.Top = field.FieldTop + fieldNumber; field.Left = field.FieldLeft + fieldNumber; field.Height = field.FieldHeight; field.Width = field.FieldWidth; field.RotationAngle = field.FieldRotation; field.Barcode = field.BarCoded; field.HumanReadable = field.HumanReadable; field.Text = field.FieldText; field.ForeColor = Color.Black; field.MouseDown += new MouseEventHandler(label_MouseDown); field.MouseUp += new MouseEventHandler(label_MouseUp); field.MouseMove += new MouseEventHandler(label_MouseMove); userContainer.Controls.Add(field); SendLabelsToBack(); //Send All labels to back userContainer.Controls[field.FieldName].BringToFront(); } Here is the method that sends all of them to the back. private void SendLabelsToBack() { foreach (UserLabel lbl in userContainer.Controls) { lbl.SendToBack(); } }

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  • Sharepoint.OpenDocuments Control Compatible with Forms Authentication?

    - by Richard Collette
    We are using the Sharepoint.OpenDocuments.EditDocument2 ActiveX control and method. The method is being called from JavaScript in an IE6 client on a Windows XP SP3 client (fully patched). The server is running IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 Fronting the IIS server is Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) which proxies access to the web applications sitting behind it. Similar to forms authentication, it creates a session cookie for authentication purposes, that must be present for the HTTP request to reach the IIS server. In front of TAM is an F5/BigIP load balancer and SSL encryption offloader, which enforces that incoming requests use the HTTPS protocol. What is happening is that HTTP requests issued by this control do not contain any session cookies that were present in the browser. It drops the ASP.NET session cookie, the ASP.NET forms authentication cookie and the TAM cookie Because the TAM cookie is missing the request is redirected to the TAM login page, which then shows up via HTML conversion in Word or Excel. The API documentation at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms440037.aspx mentions nothing about security or appropriate usage scenarios for this control. Should these controls work in an ASP.Net Forms Authentication scenario or are they only supported with Windows Authentication. If Forms Authentication is supposed to function, how do we get the control to include the necessary session cookies in its requests?

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  • SQLCLR using the wrong version of the .NET Framework

    - by Tobias Rundbom
    During a recent restart of our development server the SQL Server started using .NET 4.0 for the SQLCLR. This means that nothing using the CLR in SQL works, or at least that's my understanding by reading these sources: http://software.intel.com/en-us/blogs/2009/10/16/sql-server-2008-sqlclr-net-framework-version/ www.sqlskills.com/BLOGS/BOBB/post/On-SQL-Server-and-NET-40.aspx All we get are error messages of this type: Msg 6517, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Failed to create AppDomain "xxx.dbo[ddl].3". Method's type signature is not Interop compatible. Does anyone know how to solve this or how we can force SQL Server CLR to use an earlier version of the Framework?

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  • PowerPoint version compilation

    - by Jeremy A
    Let's say I am using SharpDevelop/VS to develop an app that uses PowerPoint. Do I need to recompile the app so there is a build for each version of MS Office? I have MS Office 2007, but I would also like the app to work with Office 2003 and later, without having to recompile the app for each version. Do I just need to install the appropriate Office Interop redistributable package/msi on the client machine, and ship my app as is? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • How to deal with calculated values with Dependency Properties on a custom WPF control

    - by jpierson
    To summarize what I'm doing, I have a custom control that looks like a checked listbox and that has two dependency properties one that provides a list of available options and the other that represents a enum flag value that combines the selection options. So as I mentioned my custom control exposes two different DependencyProperties, one of which is a list of options called Options and the other property called SelectedOptions is of a specific Enum type that uses the [Flags] attribute to allow combinations of values to be set. My UserControl then contains an ItemsControl similar to a ListBox that is used to display the options along with a checkbox. When the check box is checked or unchecked the SelectedOptions property should be updated accordingly by using the corresponding bitwise operation. The problem I'm experiencing is that I have no way other than resorting to maintaining private fields and handling property change events to update my properties which just feels unatural in WPF. I have tried using ValueConverters but have run into the problem that I can't really using binding with the value converter binding so I would need to resort to hard coding my enum values as the ValueConverter parameter which is not acceptable. If anybody has seen a good example of how to do this sanely I would greatly appreciate any input. Side Note: This has been a problem I've had in the past too while trying to wrap my head around how dependency properties don't allow calculated or deferred values. Another example is when one may want to expose a property on a child control as a property on the parent. Most suggest in this case to use binding but that only works if the child controls property is a Dependency Property since placing the binding so that the target is the parent property it would be overwritten when the user of the parent control wants to set their own binding for that property.

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • Performance benefits of upgrading Richfaces to newer version

    - by peteDog
    I have a client that's running an application based on JBoss 4.0.5, Seam 1.2 and RichFaces 3.0.1. Their system is having performance problems due to the fact that a lot of data is coming back from the server to be displayed on screen and it seems like the rendering of that data is taking forever. The data brought back is displayed in a tabbed interface, but the tabs aren't currently being loaded individually, but all at once. I'm trying to build up a case to present to the client on the benefits of upgrading to never version of RichFaces, which, as I understand it, has added a great number of features related to tabbed panels and being able to use ajax to page the data and load the chunks you actually need to display at the moment, and not the rest that's in other tabs. The move to a newer version of RichFaces will also result in never versions of Jboss and Seam, as the current production build of RichFaces 3.2.1 requires JSF 1.2. IF anyone has some suggestions or experience on performance of current versions RichFaces, paging, etc, I would really appreciate some feedback.

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  • A better JavaScript version of addslashes and stripslashes?

    - by karlthorwald
    I am using these 2 functions: http://javascript.about.com/library/bladdslash.htm But JSLint complains 'Bad Escapement' on this line: str=str.replace(/\\0/g,'\0'); [Edit] I converted to 2 lines, and now the first line is the one that fails JLint: var rep = '\0'; str=str.replace(/\\0/g,rep); So it is the '\0' can you help? I could try something but I want to understand what is going on. [/Edit] Can you make a better version and explain? I would like a version that passes JSLint and still works.

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