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  • Reconnect to GPRS from J2ME

    - by ouzz
    Dear All, I have a little problem. I have developed a midlet application that call some webservices through internet. I'm using cell phones with GPRS connection. For some time it runs as I wanted, run the apps, call the webservices through the GPRS, it returns the result, call the webservices again, and so on. But say, I call the webservices and after the apps return the result I needed, I left it for a while. The next time I continue to access the webservices, the apps takes a while to connect through the GPRS. In nokia, it is marked with a G in a box. In SE it is marked with a glowing globe. This 'G' in the box or the glowing globe will appear after a while or won't appear at all, but the apps is still trying to connect to the internet. Does it come from my apps or it come from the cell phone? And could I know [or the apps knows] that at the moment the apps tries to connect the GPRS is ready? Thanks a lot for your responses...

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  • Using Grapher on GIN application with GinModuleAdapter

    - by Epaga
    I've been trying to use Grapher on my GIN project. But trying to create an Injector to give the InjectorGrapher has not been working. Right in the first line of my code: Injector injector = Guice.createInjector( new GinModuleAdapter( new MyGinModule() ) ); it crashes with Exception in thread "main" java.lang.AssertionError: should never be actually called at com.google.gwt.inject.rebind.adapter.GwtDotCreateProvider.get(GwtDotCreateProvider.java:43) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter$1.call(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:45) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:811) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.get(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:42) at com.google.inject.Scopes$1$1.get(Scopes.java:54) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.SingleParameterInjector.inject(SingleParameterInjector.java:42) at com.google.inject.SingleParameterInjector.getAll(SingleParameterInjector.java:66) at com.google.inject.ConstructorInjector.construct(ConstructorInjector.java:84) at com.google.inject.ConstructorBindingImpl$Factory.get(ConstructorBindingImpl.java:111) at com.google.inject.BoundProviderFactory.get(BoundProviderFactory.java:56) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter$1.call(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:45) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:811) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.get(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:42) at com.google.inject.Scopes$1$1.get(Scopes.java:54) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder$1.call(InjectorBuilder.java:200) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder$1.call(InjectorBuilder.java:194) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:804) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.loadEagerSingletons(InjectorBuilder.java:194) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.injectDynamically(InjectorBuilder.java:176) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.build(InjectorBuilder.java:113) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:92) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:69) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:59) at com.me.myself.Grapher.main(Grapher.java:20) What gives?

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  • IPhone SDK removal of NSLog causes NSArray to be undeclared !

    - by Maxwell Segal
    I have a working application I'm about to distribute and am tidying up NSLog statements in it. When I remove NSLog from from a "case" statement, the NSArray declared within the "case" statement errors as Expected expression before AND undeclared. Anybody any idea why this may be? This is happening on all case statements in my app where I'm now removing NSLog. An example code sections appears below: switch (chosenScene) { case 0: //NSLog(@"group1"); // the following NSArray errors with "expected expression.." AND "..group1Secondsarray undeclared" NSArray *group1SecondsArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"1/15",@"1/30",@"1/30",@"1/60",@"1/125",@"1/250",nil]; NSArray *group1FStopArray = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"Dummy",@"2.8",@"2.8",@"4",@"5.6",@"5.6",@"5.6",nil]; NSString *group1SecondsText = [group1SecondsArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedSeconds.text = group1SecondsText; NSString *group1FStopText = [group1FStopArray objectAtIndex:slider.value]; calculatedFStop.text = group1FStopText; [group1SecondsText release]; [group1FStopText release]; break;

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  • How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s = e.Result; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Why is XML Deserilzation not throwing exceptions when it should.

    - by chobo2
    Hi Here is some dummy xml and dummy xml schema I made. schema <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="http://www.domain.com" xmlns="http://www.domain.com" elementFormDefault="qualified"> <xs:element name="vehicles"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="owner" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="2" /> <xs:maxLength value="8" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Car" minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Information" type="CarInfo" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="Truck"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Information" type="CarInfo" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="SUV"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Information" type="CarInfo" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:complexType name="CarInfo"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="CarName"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="1"/> <xs:maxLength value="50"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="CarPassword"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:minLength value="6"/> <xs:maxLength value="50"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="CarEmail"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:pattern value="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:schema> xml sample <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <vehicles> <owner>Car</owner> <Car> <Information> <CarName>Bob</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> <Information> <CarName>Bob2</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> </Car> <Truck> <Information> <CarName>Jim</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> <Information> <CarName>Jim2</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> </Truck> <SUV> <Information> <CarName>Jane</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> <Information> <CarName>Jane</CarName> <CarPassword>123456</CarPassword> <CarEmail>[email protected]</CarEmail> </Information> </SUV> </vehicles> Serialization Class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlRoot("vehicles")] public class MyClass { public MyClass() { Cars = new List<Information>(); Trucks = new List<Information>(); SUVs = new List<Information>(); } [XmlElement(ElementName = "owner")] public string Owner { get; set; } [XmlElement("Car")] public List<Information> Cars { get; set; } [XmlElement("Truck")] public List<Information> Trucks { get; set; } [XmlElement("SUV")] public List<Information> SUVs { get; set; } } public class CarInfo { public CarInfo() { Info = new List<Information>(); } [XmlElement("Information")] public List<Information> Info { get; set; } } public class Information { [XmlElement(ElementName = "CarName")] public string CarName { get; set; } [XmlElement("CarPassword")] public string CarPassword { get; set; } [XmlElement("CarEmail")] public string CarEmail { get; set; } } Now I think this should all validate. If not assume it is write as my real file does work and this is what this dummy one is based off. Now my problem is this. I want to enforce as much as I can from my schema. Such as the "owner" tag must be the first element and should show up one time and only one time ( minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1"). Right now I can remove the owner element from my dummy xml file and deseriliaze it and it will go on it's happy way and convert it to object and will just put that property as null. I don't want that I want it to throw an exception or something saying this does match what was expected. I don't want to have to validate things like that once deserialized. Same goes for the <car></car> tag I want that to appear always even if there is no information yet I can remove that too and it will be happy with that. So what tags do I have to add to make my serialization class know that these things are required and if they are not found throw an exception.

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  • Forcing file redirection on x64 for a 32-bit application

    - by Paul Alexander
    The silent redirection of 64-bit system files to their 32-bit equivalents can be turned off and reverted with Wow64DisableWow64FsRedirection and Wow64RevertWow64FsRedirection. We use this for certain file identity checks in our application. The problem is that in performing some of theses tasks, we might call a framework or Windows API in a DLL that has not yet been loaded. If redirection is enabled at that time, the wrong version of the dll may be loaded resulting in a XXX is not a valid Win32 application error. I've identified the few API calls in question and what I'd like to do force the redirection on for the duration of that call then revert it back - just the opposite of the provided Win32 APIs. Unfortunately these calls do not provide any sort of WOW64 compatibility flag like some of the registry methods do. The obvious alternative is to use Wow64EnableWow64FsRedirection, pass TRUE for Wow64FsEanbledRedirection. However there are a variety of warnings about the use of this method and a note that it is not compatible with Disable/Revert combo methods that have replaced it. Is there a safe way to force redirection on for a give Win32 call? The docs state the redirection is thread specific so I've considered spinning up a new thread for the specific call with appropriate locks and waits, but I was hoping for a simpler solution.

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  • Why can't perfmon see instances of my custom performance counter?

    - by spoulson
    I'm creating some custom performance counters for an application. I wrote a simple C# tool to create the categories and counters. For example, the code snippet below is basically what I'm running. Then, I run a separate app that endlessly refreshes the raw value of the counter. While that runs, the counter and dummy instance are seen locally in perfmon. The problem I'm having is that the monitoring system we use can't see the instances in the multi-instance counter I've created when viewing remotely from another server. When using perfmon to browse the counters, I can see the category and counters, but the instances box is grayed out and I can't even select "All instances", nor can I click "Add". Using other access methods, like [typeperf][1] exhibit similar issues. I'm not sure if this is a server or code issue. This is only reproducible in the production environment where I need it. On my desktop and development servers, it works great. I'm a local admin on all servers. CounterCreationDataCollection collection = new CounterCreationDataCollection(); var category_name = "My Application"; var counter_name = "My counter name"; CounterCreationData ccd = new CounterCreationData(); ccd.CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.RateOfCountsPerSecond64; ccd.CounterName = counter_name; ccd.CounterHelp = counter_name; collection.Add(ccd); PerformanceCounterCategory.Create(category_name, category_name, PerformanceCounterCategoryType.MultiInstance, collection); Then, in a separate app, I run this to generate dummy instance data: var pc = new PerformanceCounter(category_name, counter_name, instance_name, false); while (true) { pc.RawValue = 0; Thread.Sleep(1000); }

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  • Automatic web form testing/filling

    - by Polatrite
    I recently became lead on getting an inordinate amount of testing done in a very short period of time. We have many different web forms, using custom (Telerik) controls that need to be tested for proper data validation and sensible handling of the data. Some of the forms are several pages long with 30-80 different controls for data entry. I am looking for a software solution (that is free) that would allow me to automate the process of filling in these forms by designing a script, or using a UI. The other requirement is that I can't use any browsers but IE6 (terrible, I know). I have previously used AutoHotkey to great success for automatic Windows form testing, since Autohotkey's API allows you to directly reference controls on the Windows form. However Autohotkey does not have similar support for web forms (everything is just one big "InternetExplorer" control). While I would prefer that I could script some variance in the data to help serialize each test, it's not necessary, as I could go back through and manually edit a field or two (plus "break" whatever control I'm currently testing) to serialize each test. If you've ever seen Spawner: http://forge.mysql.com/projects/project.php?id=214 It's almost exactly the sort of thing I'm looking for (Spawner generates dummy SQL data, as opposed to dummy webform data) - but I won't be picky, I've got a really short deadline to meet and had this thrust in my lap just today. ;) Edit1: One of the challenges of just using Autohotkey to simulate keyboard input (tabbing through controls) is that some controls don't currently have tab index (bug), and some controls cause a page reload after modification, resulting in inconsistent control focus (tabbing screwed up). Our application makes heavy use of page reloads to populate fields (select a location, it auto-populates a city, for example).

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  • HttpUtility.HtmlDecode driving me crazy!!!!

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hi everybody! This situation is driving me crazy!!: the following snippet does not work (as i should) ... string preResult = doc.DocumentNode.SelectSingleNode("//textarea[@name='utrans']").InnerText return HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(preResult); ... The first line assigns a value (e.g.) "&lt;b&gt; Dummy value: &lt;/ b&gt; into preResult (that's expected). BUT the next line gives AGAIN the same value!!! But it should return "<b> Dummy value: </ b>". Debugging these lines i thought to copy and paste the value directly into HttpUtility.HtmlDecode() and guess what...it worked!!! I got the expected value! Of course this is useless, but it proves something weird is going on...what?!! Has anybody faced the same situation again? (dev.env. VS2008,.NET3.5SP1) Thanks in advance

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Ambiguous access to base class template member function

    - by Johann Gerell
    In Visual Studio 2008, the compiler cannot resolve the call to SetCustomer in _tmain below and make it unambiguous: template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { void SetConsumer(TConsumer* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; struct AppleConsumer { }; struct MeatConsumer { }; struct ShillyShallyProducer : public Producer<AppleConsumer>, public Producer<MeatConsumer> { }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ShillyShallyProducer producer; AppleConsumer consumer; producer.SetConsumer(&consumer); // <--- Ambiguous call!! return 0; } This is the compilation error: // error C2385: ambiguous access of 'SetConsumer' // could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<AppleConsumer>' // or could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<MeatConsumer>' I thought the template argument lookup mechanism would be smart enough to deduce the correct base Producer. Why isn't it? I could get around this by changing Producer to template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { template <typename TConsumer2> void SetConsumer(TConsumer2* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; and call SetConsumer as producer.SetConsumer<AppleConsumer>(&consumer); // Unambiguous call!! but it would be nicer if I didn't have to...

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Ajax -- re-load div on success.

    - by RPM
    I am trying to accomplish a "re-load." More specifically, I need to be able to refresh a portion of my page as a result of another successful ajax call. Moreover, I load my portion of the page via ajax which obtains it's content from an ajax post. The result is my content being displayed inside my portion precisely. I need this portion of the page refreshed after a successful ajax post. Here is some of the code: /* Ajax-- this part is loaded automatically, and I need it reloaded upon success of another ajax post. This data comes from the outcome of my other ajax function. */ $('#newCo').load('click', function() { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/Indeed', dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { if (json['newCompare']) { $('#newCo .newResults').html(json['newCompare']); } } }); }); The next portion of code is responsible for posting the data of which I obtain in this above ajax function. function ZgHiapud (ofWhich) { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/update', type: 'post', data: 'product_id=' + product_id, dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('.success, .warning, .attention, .information').remove(); if (json['success']) { $('.attention').fadeIn('slow'); $('#compare_total').html(json['total']); $('html, body').animate({ scrollTop: 0 }, 'slow'); } } }); } In the end, I need to obtain the data that I send to the server immediately upon success of the second ajax call. This data that is sent via the second ajax call needs to fire the first ajax call upon success.

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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • SQL Server: Clustering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    I have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means I want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But I can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. I could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic I want for a candidate cluster key. So I cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, I use what I already have. What I'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • How do I properly display all content in a JTabbedPane?

    - by maleki
    I am nesting a JPanel inside a JTabbedPane. I am having trouble displaying all the content inside of the JTabbedPane. The outside borders of the internal content get chopped off. I am currently not using a Layout Manager for my JTabbedPane or dummy Panel because it stretches my content automatically. How do I add a JPanel inside the JTabbedPane so that I can have an even border around all the content.My attempts to create a dummy panel and setting a border for the inner panel using BorderFactory haven't worked. Is there a convention that I need to know to do this correctly? JTabbedPane tabPane = new JTabbedPane(); GridPane tab1 = new GridPane(); GridPane tab2 = new GridPane(); tabPane.add("My Pieces",tab1); tabPane.add("Opponent Pieces",tab2); public class GridPane extends JPanel { public GridPane() { this.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(400,160)); this.setLayout(new GridLayout(4,10)); this.setComponentOrientation(ComponentOrientation.LEFT_TO_RIGHT); for (int i = 0; i < 4; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < 10; j++) { boardSquares[i][j] = new JPanel(); boardSquaresArr.add(boardSquares[i][j]); this.add(boardSquares[i][j]); } } } }

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  • jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

    - by M Katz
    I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • passing callback function accross windows causing error with ie ...

    - by krul
    I have a problem with IE causing two errors: 1. Object doesn't support this property or method 2. Call was rejected by callee. My Intention: To call window.opener.myObject method that is going to retrieve some data using ajax and pass in callback function that live as nested function in popup window that initiated call that is going to handle response data and modify popup window html accordingly. Here is a scenario: I pull up popup window that handles some specific operation. This popup window calling window.opener.myObject method that using ajax call. I'm passing in popup window function that is going to handle response and it works with ff and safari but not with ie. Here is code sample //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON POPUP WINDOW $('#myButton').live('click', function() { var h = window.opener.myObject, p = { 'p1': 1 }; var responseHandler = function(responseObj) { //in IE we never got here if (!responseObj) { alert('Unexpected error!! No response from server'); return false; } //..handle response }; p.p1 = $('#control').val(); h.executeMethod(p, responseHandler); }); //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON WINDOW OPENER MYOBJECT try { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', async: true, url: url, data: postData, dataType: "json", contentType: 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=utf-8', success: r, // r here is reference to my responseHandler popup window function error: handleError }); } catch (ex) { alert(ex.message); } Any tips?

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  • SQL Server: Clutering by timestamp; pros/cons

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have a table in SQL Server, where i want inserts to be added to the end of the table (as opposed to a clustering key that would cause them to be inserted in the middle). This means i want the table clustered by some column that will constantly increase. This could be achieved by clustering on a datetime column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... CreatedDate datetime DEFAULT getdate(), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (CreatedDate) ) But i can't guaranteed that two Things won't have the same time. So my requirements can't really be achieved by a datetime column. i could add a dummy identity int column, and cluster on that: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... RowID int IDENTITY(1,1), [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (RowID) ) But you'll notice that my table already constains a timestamp column; a column which is guaranteed to be a monotonically increasing. This is exactly the characteristic i want for a candidate cluster key. So i cluster the table on the rowversion (aka timestamp) column: CREATE TABLE Things ( ... [timestamp] timestamp, CONSTRAINT [IX_Things] UNIQUE CLUSTERED (timestamp) ) Rather than adding a dummy identity int column (RowID) to ensure an order, i use what i already have. What i'm looking for are thoughts of why this is a bad idea; and what other ideas are better. Note: Community wiki, since the answers are subjective.

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  • How can I export an array from Dynamics AX 2009 via c#?

    - by Steve Homer
    I'm pulling data from Dynamics AX 2009 from c# using the following code snippet. This works fine, except for those cases where the underlying field type is a dimension. I want to be able to "flatten" array types when I return them but can't see any way to do this. Any ideas anyone? axRecord = ax.CreateAxaptaRecord(tableName); axRecord.ExecuteStmt(strQuery); // Loop through the set of retrieved records. using (StreamWriter sw = File.CreateText(path)) { AxaptaObject axDictTable = ax.CreateAxaptaObject("SysDictTable",axRecord.get_Field("tableid")); outputRow = null; List<int> ids = new List<int>(); for (int i = 1; i <= (int)axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt"); i++) { AxaptaObject axDictField = ax.CreateAxaptaObject("DictField", axRecord.get_Field("tableid"), axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt2ID", i)); outputRow += ((string)axDictField.Call("Name")) + ","; ids.Add((int)axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt2ID", i)); } sw.WriteLine(outputRow); while (axRecord.Found) { outputRow = null; foreach(int i in ids) outputRow += axRecord.get_Field(i).ToString().Replace(",", "") + ","; sw.WriteLine(outputRow); axRecord.Next(); } }

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  • Passing an object as parameter from Andriod to web service using ksoap

    - by user3718626
    I have an object called User which implements KvmSerializable. Would like to pass this object to the webservice. PropertyInfo pi = new PropertyInfo(); pi.setName("obj"); pi.setValue(user); pi.setType(user.getClass()); request.addProperty(pi); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.addMapping(NAMESPACE, "User",User.class); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); I get the following error.... SoapFault - faultcode: 'soapenv:Server' faultstring: 'Unknow type {http://users.com}User' faultactor: 'null' detail: org.kxml2.kdom.Node@53263024 at org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope.parseBody(SoapSerializationEnvelope.java:141) at org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope.parse(SoapEnvelope.java:140) at org.ksoap2.transport.Transport.parseResponse(Transport.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:272) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:113) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.getQuestion(WebServiceCallTask.java:114) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:53) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:1) at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:287) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:234) at android.os.AsyncTask$SerialExecutor$1.run(AsyncTask.java:230) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1080) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:573) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:856) Appreciate if any one can point me to an sample code or can direct me what is the issue. Thanks.

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  • Windows Phone app: Binding data in a UserControl which is contained in a ListBox

    - by Alexandros Dafkos
    I have an "AddressListBox" ListBox that contains "AddressDetails" UserControl items, as shown in the .xaml file extract below. The Addresses collection is defined as ObservableCollection< Address Addresses and Street, Number, PostCode, City are properties of the Address class. The binding fails, when I use the "{Binding property}" syntax shown below. The binding succeeds, when I use the "dummy" strings in the commented-out code. I have also tried "{Binding Path=property}" syntax without success. Can you suggest what syntax I should use for binding the data in the user controls? <ListBox x:Name="AddressListBox" DataContext="{StaticResource dataSettings}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Addresses, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <!-- <usercontrols:AddressDetails AddressRoad="dummy" AddressNumber="dummy2" AddressPostCode="dummy3" AddressCity="dummy4"> </usercontrols:AddressDetails> --> <usercontrols:AddressDetails AddressRoad="{Binding Street}" AddressNumber="{Binding Number}" AddressPostCode="{Binding PostCode}" AddressCity="{Binding City}"> </usercontrols:AddressDetails> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox>

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  • Optional Member Objects

    - by David Relihan
    Okay, so you have a load of methods sprinkled around your systems main class. So you do the right thing and refactor by creating a new class and perform move method(s) into a new class. The new class has a single responsibility and all is right with the world again: class Feature { public: Feature(){}; void doSomething(); void doSomething1(); void doSomething2(); }; So now your original class has a member variable of type object: Feature _feature; Which you will call in the main class. Now if you do this many times, you will have many member-objects in your main class. Now these features may or not be required based on configuration so in a way it's costly having all these objects that may or not be needed. Can anyone suggest a way of improving this? At the moment I plan to test in the newly created class if the feature is enabled - so the when a call is made to method I will return if it is not enabled. I could have a pointer to the object and then only call new if feature is enabled - but this means I will have to test before I call a method on it which would be potentially dangerous and not very readable. Would having an auto_ptr to the object improve things: auto_ptr<Feature> feature; Or am I still paying the cost of object invokation even though the object may\or may not be required. BTW - I don't think this is premeature optimisation - I just want to consider the possibilites.

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  • Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

    - by vladimir
    I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

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