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• gethostbyname fails for local hostname after resuming from hibernate (Vista+7?)

  - by John

  Just wondering if anyone else has spotted this: On some user's machines running our software, occasionally the call to Win32 winsock gethostbyname fails with error code 11004. For the argument to gethostbyname, I'm passing in the result from gethostname. Now the docs say 11004 is WSANO_DATA. None of the descriptions seem to be relevant (it occurs if you pass in an IP6 address, but as I say, I'm passing in a hostname). Even more interesting is that the MSDN suggests that this combination (gethostname followed by gethostbyname) should never fail, not even if there is no IP address (in that case it would just return empty list of IPs). Here is the quote from the gethostname MSDN entry: ...it is guaranteed that the name returned will be successfully parsed by gethostbyname and WSAAsyncGetHostByName. It only ever happens after resuming from hibernate, in that short period when the network is restarting, and only on Vista/7 (well I've only seen it on Vista and 7). One theory I had was that it related to IP6. Maybe for a short period the network reports an IP6 address but not the corresponging IP4 address (I'm pretty sure that all the client machines are dual IP stack, but I could be wrong). I tried to reproduce by turning off my network card (to force no IP addresses) and couldn't reproduce. Anyone seen this before? Any ideas? John

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• Creating an SQL variable character column > 255 characters supporting multiple databases

  - by Piers

  I have an application that stores data through an ODBC data source of the user's choosing. So far it has worked well on a range of database systems (e.g. JET, Oracle, SQL Server), as the SQL syntax is fairly simple. Now I am running into a problem where I need to store more than 255 characters in my strings. Previously I created the table using column type VARCHAR (255). Now if I try to create a table using, e.g. VARCHAR (512) then it falls over on Access databases. I know that I can use the MEMO type for Access, but this is non-standard SQL and will thus likely fail on other database systems (e.g. Oracle). Is there any widely supported SQL standard for creating text columns wider than 255 characters, or do I need to find another solution? The alternatives seem to me to be: 1) Profile the database system and customise the SQL CREATE TABLE command based on the database system. I don't like this as it defeats the purpose of using ODBC. 2) Add extra columns of 255 chars as required (e.g. LONGSTRING1, LONGSTRING2, ...) and concatenate after reading. I don't like this because it means the number of columns can vary between tables and it complicates read/write. Are there any other viable alternatives to these two options? Or is it possible to have an SQL compliant CREATE TABLE command supported by the majority of database vendors, that supports strings longer than 255 chars?

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• Unable to ping server from client B but able to ping from client A. Please help

  - by Soundar Rajan

  This is not really a programming question, but I am at my wit's end ... I am trying to configure a IIS 6.0/Windows Server 2003 web server with a ASP.net application. When I try to ping the server from client computer A I get the following: PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping succeeds! From client computer B, BOTH the pings fail. PING 74.208.192.xxx ==> Ping fails PING 74.208.192.xxx:80 ==> Ping fails with a message "Ping request could not find host 74.208.192.xxx:80" Both clients A and B are on the same subnet. The server is outside (a virtual server hosted by an ISP) I have an ASP.NET application in a virtual directory on the server. In IE or firefox, if I enter http://74.208.192.xxx/subdir/subdir/../Default.aspx, it works from both the clients! The server has default firewall settings but web server enabled (Port 80 is open).

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• Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

  - by ccomet

  Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

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• How can I diagnose "Cannot determine peer address" in my Perl TCP script?

  - by MadBoy

  I've this little script which does it's job pretty well but sometimes it tends to fail. It fails in 2 cases: with error send: Cannot determine peer address at ./tcp-new.pl line 52 with no output or anything, it just fails to deliver what it got to connected Tcp Client. Usually it happens after I disconnect from server, go home and connect it again. To fix this restart is required and it starts working. Sometimes this problem is followed by problem mentioned in point 1. Note: it's not problem when I disconnect and reconnect to it again within short amount of time (unless error nr 1 happens). So can anyone help me make this code be a bit more stable so I don't have to restart it every day? #!/usr/bin/perl use strict; use warnings; use IO::Socket; use IO::Select; my $tcp_port = "10008"; my $udp_port = "2099"; my $tcp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( Listen => SOMAXCONN, LocalPort => $tcp_port, Proto => 'tcp', ReuseAddr => 1, ); my $udp_socket = IO::Socket::INET->new( LocalPort => $udp_port, Proto => 'udp', ); my $read_select = IO::Select->new(); my $write_select = IO::Select->new(); $read_select->add($tcp_socket); $read_select->add($udp_socket); while (1) { my @read = $read_select->can_read(); foreach my $read (@read) { if ($read == $tcp_socket) { my $new_tcp = $read->accept(); $write_select->add($new_tcp); } elsif ($read == $udp_socket) { my $recv_buffer; $udp_socket->recv($recv_buffer, 1024, undef); my @write = $write_select->can_write(); foreach my $write (@write) { $write->send($recv_buffer); } } } }

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• Serializing QGraphicsScene contents

  - by Rob

  I am using the Qt QGraphicsScene class, adding pre-defined items such as QGraphicsRectItem, QGraphicsLineItem, etc. and I want to serialize the scene contents to disk. However, the base QGraphicsItem class (that the other items I use derive from) doesn't support serialization so I need to roll my own code. The problem is that all access to these objects is via a base QGraphicsItem pointer, so the serialization code I have is horrible: QGraphicsScene* scene = new QGraphicsScene; scene->addRect(QRectF(0, 0, 100, 100)); scene->addLine(QLineF(0, 0, 100, 100)); ... QList<QGraphicsItem*> list = scene->items(); foreach (QGraphicsItem* item, items) { if (item->type() == QGraphicsRectItem::Type) { QGraphicsRectItem* rect = qgraphicsitem_cast<QGraphicsRectItem*>(item); // Access QGraphicsRectItem members here } else if (item->type() == QGraphicsLineItem::Type) { QGraphicsLineItem* line = qgraphicsitem_cast<QGraphicsLineItem*>(item); // Access QGraphicsLineItem members here } ... } This is not good code IMHO. So, instead I could create an ABC class like this: class Item { public: virtual void serialize(QDataStream& strm, int version) = 0; }; class Rect : public QGraphicsRectItem, public Item { public: void serialize(QDataStream& strm, int version) { // Serialize this object } ... }; I can then add Rect objects using QGraphicsScene::addItem(new Rect(,,,)); But this doesn't really help me as the following will crash: QList<QGraphicsItem*> list = scene->items(); foreach (QGraphicsItem* item, items) { Item* myitem = reinterpret_class<Item*>(item); myitem->serialize(...) // FAIL } Any way I can make this work?

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• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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• ruby/datamapper: Refactor class methods to module

  - by DeSchleib

  Hello, i've the following code and tried the whole day to refactor the class methods to a sperate module to share the functionality with all of my model classes. Code (http://pastie.org/974847): class Merchant include DataMapper::Resource property :id, Serial [...] class << self @allowed_properties = [:id,:vendor_id, :identifier] alias_method :old_get, :get def get *args [...] end def first_or_create_or_update attr_hash [...] end end end I'd like to archive something like: class Merchant include DataMapper::Resource include MyClassFunctions [...] end module MyClassFunctions def get [...] def first_or_create_or_update[...] end => Merchant.allowed_properties = [:id] => Merchant.get( :id=> 1 ) But unfortunately, my ruby skills are to bad. I read a lot of stuff (e.g. here) and now i'm even more confused. I stumbled over the following two points: alias_method will fail, because it will dynamically defined in the DataMapper::Resource module. How to get a class method allowed_properties due including a module? What's the ruby way to go? Many thanks in advance.

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• How to parse large xml files on google app engine?

  - by Alon Carmel

  Hey, I have fairly large xml file 1mb in size that i host on s3. I need to parse that xml file into my app engine datastore entirely. I have written a simple DOM parser that works fine locally but online it reaches the 30sec error and stops. I tried lowering the xml parsing by downloading the xml file into a BLOB at first before the parser then parse the xml file from blob. problem is that blobs are limited to 1mb. so it fails. I have multiple inserts to the datastore which cause it to fail on 30 sec. i saw somewhere that they recommend using the Mapper class and save some exception where the process stopped but as i am a python n00b i cant figure out how to implement it on a DOM parser or an SAX one (please provide an example?) on how to use it. i'm pretty much doing a bad thing right now and i parse the xml using php outside the app engine and push the data via HTTP post to the app engine using a proprietary API which works fine but is stupid and makes me maintain two codes. can you please help me out?

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• JBoss Clustered Service that sends emails from txt file

  - by michael lucas

  I need a little push in the right direction. Here's my problem: I have to create an ultra-reliable service that sends email messages to clients whose addresses are stored in txt file on FTP server. Single txt file may contain unlimited number of entries. Most often the file contains about 300,000 entries. Service exposes interface with just two simple methods: TaskHandle sendEmails(String ftpFilePath); ProcessStatus checkProcessStatus(TaskHandle taskHandle); Method sendEmails() returns TaskHandle by which we can ask for ProcessStatus. For such a service to be reliable clustering is necessary. Processing single txt file might take a long time. Restarting one node in a cluster should have no impact on sending emails. We use JBoss AS 4.2.0 which comes with a nice HASingletonController that ensure one instance of service is running at given time. But once a fail-over happens, the second service should continue work from where the first one stopped. How can I share state between nodes in a cluster in such a way that leaves no possibility of sending some emails twice?

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• Is it important to dispose SolidBrush and Pen?

  - by Joe

  I recently came across this VerticalLabel control on CodeProject. I notice that the OnPaint method creates but doesn't dispose Pen and SolidBrush objects. Does this matter, and if so how can I demonstrate whatever problems it can cause? EDIT This isn't a question about the IDisposable pattern in general. I understand that callers should normally call Dispose on any class that implements IDisposable. What I want to know is what problems (if any) can be expected when GDI+ object are not disposed as in the above example. It's clear that, in the linked example, OnPaint may be called many times before the garbage collector kicks in, so there's the potential to run out of handles. However I suspect that GDI+ internally reuses handles in some circumstances (for example if you use a pen of a specific color from the Pens class, it is cached and reused). What I'm trying to understand is whether code like that in the linked example will be able to get away with neglecting to call Dispose. And if not, to see a sample that demonstrated what problems it can cause. I should add that I have very often (including the OnPaint documentation on MSDN) seen WinForms code samples that fail to dispose GDI+ objects.

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• Starting and stopping firefox from c#

  - by Lucas Meijer

  When I start /Applications/Firefox.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox-bin on MacOSX using Process.Start() using Mono, the id of the process that gets returned does not match the process that firefox ends up running under. It looks like firefox quickly decides to start another process, and kill the current one. This makes it difficult to stop firefox, and to detect if it is still running. I've tried starting firefox using the -no-remote flag, to no avail. Is there a way to start firefox in such a way that it doesn't do this "I'll quickly make a new process for you" dance? The situation can somewhat be detected by making sure Firefox keeps on running for at least 3 seconds after its start, and when it does not, scan for other firefox processes. However, this technique is shaky at best, as on slow days it might take a bit more than 3 seconds, and then all tests depending on this behaviour fail. It turns out, that this behaviour only happens when asking firefox to start a specific profile using -P MyProfile. (Which I need to do, as I need to start firefox with specific proxyserver settings) If I start firefox "normally" it does stick to its process.

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• Looking for all-in-one drm/installer/CD creation kit.

  - by user30997

  The company I work for has a download manager in place that handles distribution, DRM, installation of our products - when a user gets them off our website. However, we're using an clunky system for packaging and protecting our products when we do press releases or make retail CDs. Part of the antiquation problem is the fact that the automated system that works with the installer- and DRM-creation software we have is a disaster that needs to be put out of my misery. The list of products that we currently produce, that I would like a new system MUST be capable of producing: Retail CDs, with a certain level of obfuscation to make copying difficult. Downloadable installers that time out after a few hours of use of the product. After the time has expired, removing and reinstalling the product will leave you still blocked from use. Installers that will fail to work after a certain date. I'd love to be able to just feed a tool the directory where a complete product resides and have the installer generated with a couple command-line operations. (The command-line issue is non-negotiable this well be called by an automated tool.) A single-solution package would be far preferable. Software with royalty-based or per-unit based licensing is not an option.

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• How to genrate a monochrome bit mask for a 32bit bitmap

  - by Mordachai

  Under Win32, it is a common technique to generate a monochrome bitmask from a bitmap for transparency use by doing the following: SetBkColor(hdcSource, clrTransparency); VERIFY(BitBlt(hdcMask, 0, 0, bm.bmWidth, bm.bmHeight, hdcSource, 0, 0, SRCCOPY)); This assumes that hdcSource is a memory DC holding the source image, and hdcMask is a memory DC holding a monochrome bitmap of the same size (so both are 32x32, but the source is 4 bit color, while the target is 1bit monochrome). However, this seems to fail for me when the source is 32 bit color + alpha. Instead of getting a monochrome bitmap in hdcMask, I get a mask that is all black. No bits get set to white (1). Whereas this works for the 4bit color source. My search-foo is failing, as I cannot seem to find any references to this particular problem. I have isolated that this is indeed the issue in my code: i.e. if I use a source bitmap that is 16 color (4bit), it works; if I use a 32 bit image, it produces the all-black mask. Is there an alternate method I should be using in the case of 32 bit color images? Is there an issue with the alpha channel that overrides the normal behavior of the above technique? Thanks for any help you may have to offer! ADDENDUM: I am still unable to find a technique that creates a valid monochrome bitmap for my GDI+ produced source bitmap. I have somewhat alleviated my particular issue by simply not generating a monochrome bitmask at all, and instead I'm using TransparentBlt(), which seems to get it right (but I don't know what they're doing internally that's any different that allows them to correctly mask the image). It might be useful to have a really good, working function: HBITMAP CreateTransparencyMask(HDC hdc, HBITMAP hSource, COLORREF crTransparency); Where it always creates a valid transparency mask, regardless of the color depth of hSource. Ideas?

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• MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

  - by Kate

  I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

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• Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

  - by Jason Williams

  I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

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• Java swing app can't find image

  - by KáGé

  Hello, I'm making a torpedo game for school in java with swing gui, please see the zipped source HERE. I use custom button icons and mouse cursors of images stored in the /bin/resource/graphics/default folder's subfolders, where the root folder is the program's root folder (it will be the root in the final .jar as well I suppose) which apart from "bin" contains a "main" folder with all the classes. The relative path of the resources is stored in MapStruct.java's shipPath and mapPath variables. Now Battlefield.java's PutPanel class finds them all right and sets up its buttons' icons fine, but every other class fail to get their icons, e.g. Table.java's setCursor, which should set the mouse cursor for all its elements for the selected ship's image or Field.java's this.button.setIcon(icon); in the constructor, which should set the icon for the buttons of the "water". I watched with debug what happens, and the images stay null after loading, though the paths seem to be correct. I've also tried to write a test file in the image folder but the method returns a filenotfound exception. I've tried to get the path of the class to see if it runs from the supposed place and it seems it does, so I really can't find the problem now. Could anyone please help me? Thank you.

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• Are finalizers ever allowed to call other managed classes' methods?

  - by romkyns

  I used to be pretty sure the answer is "no", as explained in Overriding the Finalize method and Object.Finalize documentation. However, while randomly browsing through FileStream in Reflector, I found that it can actually call just such a method from a finalizer: private SafeFileHandle _handle; ~FileStream() { if (this._handle != null) { this.Dispose(false); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { try { ... } finally { if ((this._handle != null) && !this._handle.IsClosed) // <=== HERE { this._handle.Dispose(); // <=== AND HERE } [...] } } I started wondering whether this will always work due to the exact way in which it's written, and hence whether the "do not touch managed classes from finalizers" is just a guideline that can be broken given a good reason and the necessary knowledge to do it right. I dug a bit deeper and found out that the worst that can happen when the "rule" is broken is that the managed object being accessed had already been finalized, or may be getting finalized in parallel on a separate thread. So if the SafeFileHandle's finalizer didn't do anything that would cause a subsequent call to Dispose fail then the above should be fine... right? Question: so there might after all be situations in which a method on another managed class may be called reliably from a finalizer? I've always believed this to be false, but this code suggests that it's possible and that there can be good enough reasons to do it. Bonus: Observe that the SafeFileHandle will not even know it's being called from a finalizer, since this is just a normal call to Dispose(). The base class, SafeHandle, actually has two private methods, InternalDispose and InternalFinalize, and in this case InternalDispose will be called. Isn't this a problem? Why not?...

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• Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

  - by nomemory

  Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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• Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

  - by Thomas Herrmann

  I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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• SWT - Table Row - Changing font color

  - by jkteater

  Is it possible to change the font color for a row based on a value in one of the columns? My table has a column that displays a status. The value of the column is going to either be Failed or Success. If it is Success I would like for that rows font be green. If the status equals Failed, I want that rows font be red. Is this possible, if so where would I put the logic. EDIT Here is my Table Viewer code, I am not going to show all the columns, just a couple private void createColumns() { String[] titles = { "ItemId", "RevId", "PRL", "Dataset Name", "Printer/Profile" , "Success/Fail" }; int[] bounds = { 100, 75, 75, 150, 200, 100 }; TableViewerColumn col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[0], bounds[0], 0); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getItemId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); col = createTableViewerColumn(titles[1], bounds[1], 1); col.setLabelProvider(new ColumnLabelProvider() { public String getText(Object element) { if(element instanceof AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData) { return ((AplotResultsDataModel.ResultsData)element).getRevId(); } return super.getText(element); } }); --ETC

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• Paypal Error - IPN Validation Failed.

  - by user504178

  Hello , I am getting below error. [12/26/2010 5:48 AM] - FAIL: IPN Validation Failed. IPN POST Vars from Paypal: auth=A76zglTH7sCSLAVjZISTEp38SYXWAoNlO1uurxDvnlFy40uy-mlrvqkp_S5q3bFhVBbO2GwpJRvdYDvfQuM0581EYkEITS1SnDzfWV-ju60OZm_VzHsc8o2Q8K7mmZuDs9ANFwW9iIP2Ig8fGPSwZN8APK2PtCMIda28rBnNMJ2FWaeNKgmzTCuG5HnpzLD7ZtTCElp4MC05kyx9Ro-9ggqzVx7OU1zleJ_c1W, form_charset=UTF-8, IPN Response from Paypal Server: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sun, 26 Dec 2010 10:48:50 GMT Server: Apache Set-Cookie: c9MWDuvPtT9GIMyPc3jwol1VSlO=Ejohjh-kFgFpKAeNiYlgG8LwsLOi5Sir4Ut7tXINWaRmWM2eNXfFkJRQmO09WqBbXWIpXd0ydzrS7JMWO0sHZMg0Wfdd4gt6UcpSswiiUl2EfiP_ykxKJOFOzcjMrn_6xzc8GG%7c5mvwkJOzeFg-vpKR1fovKAVDyvmzI5sFbPatUC6gbf9Wk4Llel4btOJa7uQbYSLhuprHVG%7c537g5xvn4Hns8l-HE1pnyQ2GUAxcSINm-oVJENMuU6yS_bYa4IAw4QlGP-0zq80pjZa5j0%7c1293360531; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: cookie_check=yes; expires=Wed, 23-Dec-2020 10:48:51 GMT; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: navcmd=_notify-validate; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: navlns=0.0; expires=Sat, 21-Dec-2030 10:48:51 GMT; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: Apache=10.191.196.11.222161293360530699; path=/; expires=Sat, 12-Nov-04 04:20:34 GMT Connection: close Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 7 INVALID 0 Can anyone please let me know whats wrong over here. Regards, Atul

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• Blackberry application works in simulator but not device

  - by Kai

  I read some of the similar posts on this site that deal with what seems to be the same issue and the responses didn't really seem to clarify things for me. My application works fine in the simulator. I believe I'm on Bold 9000 with OS 4.6. The app is signed. My app makes an HTTP call via 3G to fetch an XML result. type is application/xhtml+xml. In the device, it gives no error. it makes no visual sign of error. I tell the try catch to print the results to the screen and I get nothing. HttpConnection was taken right out of the demos and works fine in sim. Since it gives no error, I begin to reflect back on things I recall reading back when the project began. deviceside=true? Something like that? My request is simply HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); where url is just a standard url, no get vars. Based on the amount of time I see the connection arrows in the corner of the screen, I assume the app is launching the initial communication to my server, then either getting a bad result, or it gets results and the persistent store is not functioning as expected. I have no idea where to begin with this. Posting code would be ridiculous since it would be basically my whole app. I guess my question is if anyone knows of any major differences with device versus simulator that could cause something like http connection or persistent store to fail? A build setting? An OS restriction? Any standard procedure I may have just not known about that everyone should do before beginning device testing? Thanks

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• Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

  - by Brian McCleary

  We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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• Put together tiles in android sdk and use as background

  - by Jon

  In a feeble attempt to learn some Android development am I stuck at graphics. My aim here is pretty simple: Take n small images and build a random image, larger than the screen with possibility to scroll around. Have an animated object move around on it I have looked at the SDK examples, Lunar Lander especially but there are a few things I utterly fail to wrap my head around. I've got a birds view plan (which in my head seems reasonably sane): How do I merge the tiles into one large image? The background is static so I figure I should do like this: Make a 2d array with refs to the tiles Make a large Drawable and draw the tiles on it At init draw this big image as the background At each onDraw redraw the background of the previous spot of the moving object, and the moving object at its new location The problem is the hands on things. I load the small images with "Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1)", but then what? Should I make a canvas and draw the images on it with "canvas.drawBitmap (img1, x, y, null);"? If so how to get a Drawable/Bitmap from that? I'm totally lost here, and would really appreciate some hands on help (I would of course be grateful for general hints as well, but I'm primarily trying to understand the Graphics objects). To make you, dear reader, see my level of confusion will I add my last desperate try: Drawable drawable; Canvas canvas = new Canvas (); Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1); // 50 x 100 px image Bitmap img2 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img2); // 50 x 100 px image canvas.drawBitmap (img1, 0, 0, null); canvas.drawBitmap (img2, 50, 0, null); drawable.draw (canvas); // obviously wrong as draw == null this.setBackground (drawable); Thanks in advance

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