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  • Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

    - by Memor-X
    in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

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  • Is there a way to programatically check dependencies of an EXE?

    - by Mason Wheeler
    I've got a certain project that I build and distribute to users. I have two build configurations, Debug and Release. Debug, obviously, is for my use in debugging, but there's an additional wrinkle: the Debug configuration uses a special debugging memory manager, with a dependency on an external DLL. There's been a few times when I've accidentally built and distributed an installer package with the Debug configuration, and it's then failed to run once installed because the users don't have the special DLL. I'd like to be able to keep that from happening in the future. I know I can get the dependencies in a program by running Dependency Walker, but I'm looking for a way to do it programatically. Specifically, I have a way to run scripts while creating the installer, and I want something I can put in the installer script to check the program and see if it has a dependency on this DLL, and if so, cause the installer-creation process to fail with an error. I know how to create a simple CLI program that would take two filenames as parameters, and could run a DependsOn function and create output based on the result of it, but I don't know what to put in the DependsOn function. Does anyone know how I'd go about writing it?

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  • Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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  • Python CGI Premature end of script error depending on script parameters.

    - by nickengland
    I have a python script which should parse a file and produce some output to disk, as well as returning a webpage linking to the outputted files. When run with a file posted from the HTML form I get no HTML output back, just a 500 error page and the error_log contains the line: [Mon Apr 19 15:03:23 2010] [error] [client xxx.xxx.121.79] Premature end of script headers: uploadcml.py, referer: http://xxx.ch.cam.ac.uk:9000/ However, the files which the script should be saving are indeed saved to disk. If I run it without any arguments, the script returns the correct HTML indicating no file was parsed. All the information I have found on the web about Premature end of script headers implies it is due to either a missing header, or lack of permissions on the python script but neither can apply to me. The first lines of the script are: #!/home/nwe23/bin/bin/python import cgitb; cgitb.enable() import cgi import pybel,openbabel import random print "Content-Type: text/html" print so when run, I can see no way for it to fail to output the header, and it DOES output the header when run without a file to parse, but when given a file produces the error(but still parsed the file and saves the output to disk!). Does anyone know how this is happening and what can be done to fix it? I have tried adding wrongly-indented gibberish (such as foobar) at various points in the file, and this results in adding an indent error to the error_log wherever it is, even if its the very last line in the script. The Premature script headers error remains though. Does this mean the script is executing all the way through?

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  • jQuery/ajax working on IIS5.1 but not IIS6

    - by Mikejh99
    I'm running a weird issue here. I have code that makes jquery ajax calls to a web service and dynamically adds controls using jquery. Everything works fine on my dev machine running IIS 5.1, but not when deployed to IIS 6. I'm using VS2010/ASP.Net 4.0, C#, jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1. I'm using the same browser for each. It partially works though. The code will add the controls to the page, but they aren't visible until I click them (they aren't visible though). I thought this was a css issue, but the styles are there too. The ajax calls look like this: $.ajax({ url: "/WebServices/AssetManager.asmx/Assets", type: "POST", datatype: "json", async: false, data: "{'q':'" + req.term + "', 'type':'Condition'}", contentType: "application/javascript; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { res($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: item.Name, value: item.Name, id: item.Id, datatype: item.DataType } })) } }) Changing the content-type makes the autocomplete fail. I've quadruple checked and all the paths are correct, there is no document footer enabled in IIS, and I'm not using IIS compression. Any idea why the page will display and work properly in IIS 5 but only partially in IIS 6? (If it failed completely, that'd make more sense!). Is it a jQuery or CSS issue?

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • What are the advantages of a query using a derived table(s) over a query not using them?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    I know how derived tables are used, but I still can’t really see any real advantages of using them. For example, in the following article http://techahead.wordpress.com/2007/10/01/sql-derived-tables/ the author tried to show benefits of a query using derived table over a query without one with an example, where we want to generate a report that shows off the total number of orders each customer placed in 1996, and we want this result set to include all customers, including those that didn’t place any orders that year and those that have never placed any orders at all( he’s using Northwind database ). But when I compare the two queries, I fail to see any advantages of a query using a derived table ( if nothing else, use of a derived table doesn't appear to simplify our code, at least not in this example): Regular query: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(O.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders O ON C.CustomerID = O.CustomerID AND YEAR(O.OrderDate) = 1996 GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Query using a derived table: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(dOrders.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE YEAR(Orders.OrderDate) = 1996) AS dOrders ON C.CustomerID = dOrders.CustomerID GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Perhaps this just wasn’t a good example, so could you show me an example where benefits of derived table are more obvious? thanx

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  • Binding ComboBoxes to enums... in Silverlight!

    - by Domenic
    So, the web, and StackOverflow, have plenty of nice answers for how to bind a combobox to an enum property in WPF. But Silverlight is missing all of the features that make this possible :(. For example: You can't use a generic EnumDisplayer-style IValueConverter that accepts a type parameter, since Silverlight doesn't support x:Type. You can't use ObjectDataProvider, like in this approach, since it doesn't exist in Silverlight. You can't use a custom markup extension like in the comments on the link from #2, since markup extensions don't exist in Silverlight. You can't do a version of #1 using generics instead of Type properties of the object, since generics aren't supported in XAML (and the hacks to make them work all depend on markup extensions, not supported in Silverlight). Massive fail! As I see it, the only way to make this work is to either Cheat and bind to a string property in my ViewModel, whose setter/getter does the conversion, loading values into the ComboBox using code-behind in the View. Make a custom IValueConverter for every enum I want to bind to. Are there any alternatives that are more generic, i.e. don't involve writing the same code over and over for every enum I want? I suppose I could do solution #2 using a generic class accepting the enum as a type parameter, and then create new classes for every enum I want that are simply class MyEnumConverter : GenericEnumConverter<MyEnum> {} What are your thoughts, guys?

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  • Socket Read In Multi-Threaded Application Returns Zero Bytes or EINTR (-1)

    - by user309670
    Hi. Am a c-coder for a while now - neither a newbie nor an expert. Now, I have a certain daemoned application in C on a PPC Linux. I use PHP's socket_connect as a client to connect to this service locally. The server uses epoll for concurrent connections via a Unix socket. A user submitted string is parsed for certain characters/words using strstr() and if found, spawns 4 joinable threads to different websites simultaneously. I use socket, connect, write and read, to interact with the said webservers via TCP on port 80 in each thread. All connections and writes seems successful. Reads to the webserver sockets fail however, with either (A) all 3 threads seem to hang, and only one thread returns -1 and errno is set to 104. The responding thread takes like 10 minutes - an eternity long:-(. *I read somewhere that the 104 (is EINTR) suggests that ...'the connection was reset by peer', or (B) 0 bytes from 3 threads, and only 1 of the 4 threads actually returns some data. Isn't the socket read/write thread-safe? Otherwise, use thread-safe (and reentrant) libc functions such as strtok_r, gethostbyname_r, etc. *I doubt that the said webhosts are actually resetting the connection, because when I run a single-threaded standalone (everything else equal) all things works perfectly right. There's a second problem too (oops), I can't write back to the client who connect to my epoll-ed Unix socket. My daemon application will hang and hog CPU 100% for ever. Yet nothing is written to the clients end. Am sure the client (a very typical PHP socket application) hasn't closed the connection whenever this is happening - no error(s) detected either. I cannot figure-out whatever is wrong even with Valgrind or GDB

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  • Most efficient method of detecting/monitoring DOM changes?

    - by Graza
    I need an efficient mechanism for detecting changes to the DOM. Preferably cross-browser, but if there's any efficient means which are not cross browser, I can implement these with a fail-safe cross browser method. In particular, I need to detect changes that would affect the text on a page, so any new, removed or modified elements, or changes to inner text (innerHTML) would be required. I don't have control over the changes being made (they could be due to 3rd party javascript includes, etc), so it can't be approached from this angle - I need to "monitor" for changes somehow. Currently I've implemented a "quick'n'dirty" method which checks body.innerHTML.length at intervals. This won't of course detect changes which result in the same length being returned, but in this case is "good enough" - the chances of this happening are extremely slim, and in this project, failing to detect a change won't result in lost data. The problem with body.innerHTML.length is that it's expensive. It can take between 1 and 5 milliseconds on a fast browser, and this can bog things down a lot - I'm also dealing with a large-ish number of iframes and it all adds up. I'm pretty sure the expensiveness of doing this is because the innerHTML text is not stored statically by browsers, and needs to be calculated from the DOM every time it is read. The types of answers I am looking for are anything from the "precise" (for example event) to the "good enough" - perhaps something as "quick'n'dirty" as the innerHTML.length method, but that executes faster.

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  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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  • Java: Embedding Soundbank file in JAR

    - by Pyroclastic
    If I have a soundbank stored in a JAR, how would I load that soundbank into my application using resource loading...? I'm trying to consolidate as much of a MIDI program into the jar file as I can, and the last thing I have to add is the soundbank file I'm using, as users won't have the soundbanks installed. I'm trying to put it into my jar file, and then load it with getResource() in the Class class, but I'm getting an InvalidMidiDataException on a soundbank that I know is valid. Here's the code, it's in the constructor for my synthesizer object: try { synth = MidiSystem.getSynthesizer(); channels = synth.getChannels(); instrument = MidiSystem.getSoundbank(this.getClass().getResource("img/soundbank-mid.gm")).getInstruments(); currentInstrument = instrument[0]; synth.loadInstrument(currentInstrument); synth.open(); } catch (InvalidMidiDataException ex) { System.out.println("FAIL"); instrument = synth.getAvailableInstruments(); currentInstrument = instrument[0]; synth.loadInstrument(currentInstrument); try { synth.open(); } catch (MidiUnavailableException ex1) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex1); } } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (MidiUnavailableException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MIDISynth.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); }

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  • If a nonblocking recv with MSG_PEEK succeeds, will a subsequent recv without MSG_PEEK also succeed?

    - by Michael Wolf
    Here's a simplified version of some code I'm working on: void stuff(int fd) { int ret1, ret2; char buffer[32]; ret1 = recv(fd, buffer, 32, MSG_PEEK | MSG_DONTWAIT); /* Error handling -- and EAGAIN handling -- would go here. Bail if necessary. Otherwise, keep going. */ /* Can this call to recv fail, setting errno to EAGAIN? */ ret2 = recv(fd, buffer, ret1, 0); } If we assume that the first call to recv succeeds, returning a value between 1 and 32, is it safe to assume that the second call will also succeed? Can ret2 ever be less than ret1? In which cases? (For clarity's sake, assume that there are no other error conditions during the second call to recv: that no signal is delivered, that it won't set ENOMEM, etc. Also assume that no other threads will look at fd. I'm on Linux, but MSG_DONTWAIT is, I believe, the only Linux-specific thing here. Assume that the right fnctl was set previously on other platforms.)

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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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  • Should the code being tested compile to a DLL or an executable file?

    - by uriDium
    I have a solution with two projects. One for project for the production code and another project for the unit tests. I did this as per the suggestions I got here from SO. I noticed that in the Debug Folder that it includes the production code in executable form. I used NUnit to run the tests after removing the executable and they all fail trying to find the executable. So it definitely is trying to find it. I then did a quick read to find out which is better, a DLL or an executable. It seems that an DLL is much faster as they share memory space where communication between executables is slower. Unforunately our production code needs to be an exectuable. So the unit tests will be slightly slower. I am not too worried about that. But the project does rely on code written in another library which is also in executable format at the moment. Should the projects that expose some sort of SDK rather be compiled to an DLL and then the projects that use the SDK be compiled to executable?

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  • AppDomain.Unload doesn't release the assembly I loaded up with Reflection

    Hi All, I am struggling with an issue while loading an assembly up in a temporary AppDomain to read its GetUsedReferences property. Once I do that, I call AppDomain.Unload(tempDomain) and then I try to clean up my mess by deleting the files. That fails because the file is locked. I Unloaded the temporary domain though! Any thoughts or suggestions would be greately appreciated. Here is some of my code: //I already have btyes for the .dll and the .pdb from the actual files AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = Environment.CurrentDirectory; domainSetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; domainSetup.CachePath = Environment.CurrentDirectory; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, domainSetup); //Load up the temp assembly and do stuff Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer, symbolsFileBuffer); //Then I'm trying to clean up AppDomain.Unload(tempAppDomain); tempAppDomain = null; File.Delete(tempAssemblyFile); //I even try to force GC File.Delete(tempSymbolsFile); Anyway, the Deletes fail because the files are locked still. Shouldn't they be released because I Unloaded the temporary AppDomain?!?!?! Thanks in advance, Dan

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  • How to associate application with existing file types using WiX installer?

    - by Marek
    related to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138550/how-to-register-file-types-extensions-with-a-wix-installer but not a duplicate. I need to handle existing file types (.jpg files). I do not want to be the default handler for .jpg, I would just like to extend the "Open with" menu with a link to my app. I see HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithList\ and HKCR\.jpg\OpenWithProgIds\ in the registry but I am not sure whether to write to these and how to do it correctly with WiX. Should I use something like this? <ProgId Id='??what here?' Description='Jpeg handled by my App'> <Extension Id='jpg' ContentType='image/jpeg'> <Verb Id='openwithmyapp' Sequence='10' Command='OpenWithMyApp' Target='[!FileId]' Argument='"%1"' /> </Extension> </ProgId> There are many ways how to fail here (like Photo Mechanics did, the HKCR for image file types is a real mess after I have installed this software) How to do this correctly with WiX?

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  • Full Text Search like Google

    - by Eduardo
    I would like to implement full-text-search in my off-line (android) application to search the user generated list of notes. I would like it to behave just like Google (since most people are already used to querying to Google) My initial requirements are: Fast: like Google or as fast as possible, having 100000 documents with 200 hundred words each. Searching for two words should only return documents that contain both words (not just one word) (unless the OR operator is used) Case insensitive (aka: normalization): If I have the word 'Hello' and I search for 'hello' it should match. Diacritical mark insensitive: If I have the word 'así' a search for 'asi' should match. In Spanish, many people, incorrectly, either do not put diacritical marks or fail in correctly putting them. Stop word elimination: To not have a huge index meaningless words like 'and', 'the' or 'for' should not be indexed at all. Dictionary substitution (aka: stem words): Similar words should be indexed as one. For example, instances of 'hungrily' and 'hungry' should be replaced with 'hunger'. Phrase search: If I have the text 'Hello world!' a search of '"world hello"' should not match it but a search of '"hello world"' should match. Search all fields (in multifield documents) if no field specified (not just a default field) Auto-completion in search results while typing to give popular searches. (just like Google Suggest) How may I configure a full-text-search engine to behave as much as possible as Google? (I am mostly interested in Open Source, Java and in particular Lucene)

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  • Object Oriented Programming Problem

    - by Danny Love
    I'm designing a little CMS using PHP whilst putting OOP into practice. I've hit a problem though. I have a page class, whos constructor accepts a UID and a slug. This is then used to set the properties (unless the page don't exist in which case it would fail). Anyway, I wanted to implement a function to create a page, and I thought ... what's the best way to do this without overloading the constructor. What would the correct way, or more conventional method, of doing this be? My code is below: <?php class Page { private $dbc; private $title; private $description; private $image; private $tags; private $owner; private $timestamp; private $views; public function __construct($uid, $slug) { } public function getTitle() { return $this->title; } public function getDescription() { if($this->description != NULL) { return $this->description; } else { return false; } } public function getImage() { if($this->image != NULL) { return $this->image; } else { return false; } } public function getTags() { if($this->tags != NULL) { return $this->tags; } else { return false; } } public function getOwner() { return $this->owner; } public function getTimestamp() { return $this->timestamp; } public function getViews() { return $this->views; } public function createPage() { // Stuck? } }

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  • Snow Leopard mounted directory changes permissions sporadically

    - by Galen
    I have a smb mounted directory: /Volumes/myshare This was mounted via Finder "Connect to Server..." with smb://myservername/myshare Everything good so far. However, when I try to access the directory via PHP (running under Apache), it fails with permission denied about 10% of the time. By this I mean that repeated accesses to my page sometimes result in a failure. My PHP page looks like: <?php $cmd = "ls -la /Volumes/ 2>&1"; exec($cmd, $execOut, $exitCode); echo "<PRE>EXIT CODE = $exitCode<BR/>"; foreach($execOut as $line) { echo "$line <BR/>"; } echo "</PRE>"; ?> When it succeeds it looks like: EXIT CODE = 0 total 40 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. drwx------ 1 galen staff 16384 Jun 14 09:28 myshare lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / When it fails it looks like: EXIT CODE = 1 ls: myshare: Permission denied total 8 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / OTHER INFO: I'm working with the PHP (5.3.1), and Apache server that comes out of the box with Snow Leopard. Also, if I write a PHP script that loops and retries the "ls -la.." from the command-line, it doesn't seem to fail. Nothing is changing about the code and/or filesystem between succeeds and fails, so this appears to be a truly intermittent failure. This is driving me crazy. Anyone have any idea what might be going on? Thanks, Galen

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  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Castle windsor security exception

    - by Sunil
    I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

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  • Good way to identify similar images?

    - by Nick
    I've developed a simple and fast algorithm in PHP to compare images for similarity. Its fast (~40 per second for 800x600 images) to hash and a unoptimised search algorithm can go through 3,000 images in 22 mins comparing each one against the others (3/sec). The basic overview is you get a image, rescale it to 8x8 and then convert those pixels for HSV. The Hue, Saturation and Value are then truncated to 4 bits and it becomes one big hex string. Comparing images basically walks along two strings, and then adds the differences it finds. If the total number is below 64 then its the same image. Different images are usually around 600 - 800. Below 20 and extremely similar. Are there any improvements upon this model I can use? I havent looked at how relevant the different components (hue, saturation and value) are to the comparison. Hue is probably quite important but the others? To speed up searches I could probably split the 4 bits from each part in half, and put the most significant bits first so if they fail the check then the lsb doesnt need to be checked at all. I dont know a efficient way to store bits like that yet still allow them to be searched and compared easily. I've been using a dataset of 3,000 photos (mostly unique) and there havent been any false positives. Its completely immune to resizes and fairly resistant to brightness and contrast changes.

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • How to avoid user keep trying login using Ruby on Rails?

    - by Tattat
    I want to create a login page, it can easy implement using Ruby on Rails. But the login is very simple, but I want more security. I want to stop the user keep trying the password. So, I have some ideas on that. First, stop login feature if the user keep trying the password for 15 mins. After the user login fail 5 times in 15 mins, the system should not allow the user login again in next 15 mins, ever his/her password is correct. Second, I want to add a human verification, after the user tried 5 times. After the user wait for 15 mins to login, I want to add an addition verification to the user. I want the user click the password, and the CAPTCHA image. If one of them is failed, they still can't login the system. He/She have 5 times to try, if he / she failed again, he/she need to want another 15 mins. Third, After the user tried 15 times, and still can't get into the system. I want to lock the user account, the user will receive an email, with a link to assign the password again. So, the question is "Is there any library to implement such authorization easily?" I know it can be implemented using code, but using library is much convenient. Also, I want to ask is there any security suggestion for that? thank u.

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