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  • WCF 3.5 - Remove SVC Extension - Special Case

    - by Brandon
    I have several RESTful endpoints like such: System.Security.Role.svc System.Security.User.svc etc. This is meant to be a namespace so our RESTful URL's would look like: /rest/{class namespace}/{actions} I have tried a few examples to get the SVC extension removed when my endpoint has multiple periods in it, however, nothing seems to work. I have tested with the WCF REST Contrib package (http://wcfrestcontrib.codeplex.com/), this example (http://www.west-wind.com/weblog/posts/570695.aspx), and another StackOverflow post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/355165/how-to-remove-thie-svc-extension-in-restful-wcf-service). This works great when my endpoint is something like this: Echo.svc It will properly remove the SVC extension. Any ideas on how to handle endpoints with multiple periods in the endpoint name? EDIT: After some further testing, I found out that it is failing because whenever you do: string path = HttpContext.Current.Request.AppRelativeCurrentExecutionFilePath; If the endpoint contains multiple periods, it strips off everything after the endpoint causing all of the standard IHttpModule's to fail. Example: If I call http://localhost/services/Echo/test, my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/echo/test However, if I make a call as http://localhost/services/System.Security.User/test, then my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/system.security.user I am missing the '/test' on the end in that situation.

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  • Created nested model setting a property on nested model before save

    - by CWitty
    I have two models a Company and a User the Company has_many :users and the User belongs_to :company. I have a form such as: <%= form_for @company, data: {toggle: :validator}, novalidate: "novalidate", html: {role: :form} do |f| %> company fields Then in there I have <%= f.fields_for :users, @company.users.build do |user_form| %> A bunch of user fields It posts the data with the nested attributes of users_attributes: {"0" => {name: "Chad"}} But it doesn't create the user only the company object. Company Model class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users, dependent: :destroy has_many :contacts, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :users accepts_nested_attributes_for :contacts attr_accessor :card_token, :users_attributes before_create :create_company_customer_token before_create :create_admin_user before_destroy :set_deleted_flag validates_presence_of :name, :phone_number private def create_admin_user self.users.first.admin = true end def set_deleted_flag self.deleted = true save users.each do |u| u.destroy end false end def create_company_customer_token begin customer = Stripe::Customer.create(description: "Company: #{self.name}", card: self.card_token, plan: self.plan) self.stripe_customer_id = customer['id'] rescue Stripe::StripeError => e self.errors.add(:stripe_customer_id, "Looks like we are having an issue at the moment, please try again shortly") @logger ||= Rails.logger @logger.error(e) end end end User Model class User < ActiveRecord::Base include Clearance::User has_many :messages belongs_to :company before_destroy :set_deleted_flag after_create :send_welcome_email validates_presence_of :first_name, :last_name validates_uniqueness_of :email, scope: :company_id, conditions: -> { where.not(deleted: true) } def name "#{first_name} #{last_name}" end private def set_deleted_flag self.deleted = true save end def send_welcome_email UserMailer.welcome_email(self).deliver end end

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  • Can I embed a custom font in an iPhone application?

    - by Airsource Ltd
    I would like to have an app include a custom font for rendering text, load it, and then use it with standard UIKit elements like UILabel. Is this possible? I found these links: http://discussions.apple.com/thread.jspa?messageID=8304744 http://forums.macrumors.com/showthread.php?t=569311 but these would require me to render each glyph myself, which is a bit too much like hard work, especially for multi-line text. I've also found posts that say straight out that it's not possible, but without justification, so I'm looking for a definitive answer. EDIT - failed -[UIFont fontWithName:size:] experiment I downloaded Harrowprint.tff (downloaded from here) and added it to my Resources directory and to the project. I then tried this code: UIFont* font = [UIFont fontWithName:@"Harrowprint" size:20]; which resulted in an exception being thrown. Looking at the TTF file in Finder confirmed that the font name was Harrowprint. EDIT - there have been a number of replies so far which tell me to read the documentation on X or Y. I've experimented extensively with all of these, and got nowhere. In one case, X turned out to be relevant only on OS X, not on iPhone. Consequently I am setting a bounty for this question, and I will award the bounty to the first person who provides an answer (using only documented APIs) who responds with sufficient information to get this working on the device. Working on the simulator too would be a bonus. EDIT - it appears that the bounty auto-awards to the answer with the highest nunber of votes. Interesting. No one actually provided an answer that solved the question as asked - the solution that involves coding your own UILabel subclass doesn't support word-wrap, which is an essential feature for me - though I guess I could extend it to do so.

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  • Problem with response.redirect sending incorrect HTTPMethod

    - by Andy Macnaughton-Jones
    Hi, I've got a strange problem with a Response.Redirect. I'm using VB.NET with the .NET 2 framework (so VS2005 & SP1). I've got a page that I do a form submit on (that's a proper form method="POST" hard-coded onto the page) and that properly posts me back the page data which is then processed. As part of that processing the system determines if we need to get sent to another URL after processing has been complete. So the request.httpmethod = "POST". So if the "GotoPage" parameter has a URL specified we then do a response.redirect(URL, false). (False as we want page processing to complete in order to write some timing logs etc). The page correctly redirects but instead of the response having a "GET" as the request.httpmethod it has a "POST" instead ! Now, we're using our own custom framework so that we use the HTTPRequest method to determine if a page has been posted back or is being "Getted" so the "IsPagePostBack" property doesn't work (that only works when you're using the normal .NET controls and form submissions). In all other instances our code works happily but what might be causing the Request.httpMethod to not be being set correctly ? I've tried doing a response.clear before the redirect in case headers are being written out before hand but to no avail. Any clues ?! thanks, Andy

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  • How can I get the post text to be beside the avatar and not below it?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to create a forum with avatars, but right now the text is going below the avatars and not beside them. How can I fix this? Here is the CSS: .postbox{ text-align: left; margin: auto; background-color: #dbfef8; border: 1px solid #82FFCD; width: 100%; margin-top: 10px; } .postfooter{ width: 100%; border-top: 1px solid #82FFCD; } .postheader{ width: 100%; border-bottom: 1px solid #82FFCD; } .posttext{ width: 70%; text-align: left; border: 1px solid #82FFCD; } .postavi{ width: 20%; text-align: left; border: 1px solid #82FFCD; } and here is the html: <div class="postbox"><div class="postheader"> <b><span>CyanPrime!!~::##Admin##::~</span></b> </div> <div class="postavi"><img src="http://prime.programming-designs.com/test_forum/images/avatars/hacker.png" alt="hacker"/></div><div class="posttext">Let's test the Hacker Avatar.</div> <div class="postfooter"> [<a href="http://prime.programming-designs.com/test_forum/viewthread.php?thread=25">Reply</a>] 0 posts omitted. </div> </div>

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  • Webdev.Webserver has stopped working

    - by Alexander
    When I execute the code saveXML below it generates the error above, why?? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.IO; /// <summary> /// Summary description for Post /// </summary> public class Post { private int postIDCounter = 0; private String DateCreated; public Post() { Author = "unknown"; Title = "unkown"; Content = ""; DateCreated = DateTime.Now.ToString(); ID = postIDCounter++; } public int ID { get { return ID; } set { if (ID != value) ID = value; } } public string Author { get { return Author; } set { if (Author != value) Author = value; } } public string Title { get { return Title; } set { if (Title != value) Title = value; } } public string Content { get { return Content; } set { if (Content != value) Content = value; } } public void saveXML() { XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Post)); Stream writer = new FileStream("..'\'App_Data'\'posts'\'" + new Guid(ID.ToString()).ToString() + ".xml", FileMode.Create); serializer.Serialize(writer, this); writer.Close(); } }

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  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

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  • ruby nl2br outside <code> ... </code>

    - by Julien P.
    Hi everyone, I've been struggling on this thing for a week without being able to find what I'm looking for. Here is what I'd like to do: I'm setting up a wiki where I can post all my knowledge to (yes, I know a couple things :p) but I can't render it the way I'd like to. The bodies of my posts are text fields. In order to render them the right way I run the following command: @post.body.gsub("\n", "<br />") I also have some tags with some code inside that looks like this < code my code < /code. Here come's the issue. Every line between the < code and < /code tags are changed to but it doesn'r render properly since I'm using a code render template. Therefore, I'd like to know if there is a way to change all \n to < br / except for those between < code and < /code Thank you everyone for reading this and helping me out. PS: Please do not consider the spaces after the < in each tag. I had to do this to "espace" them. Julien

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  • Rails RJS template displays code instead of the html page

    - by Anand
    After having Googled and hurting my brain for hours on this, I finally decided to post this question. Here's the code... view1.html.erb -------------- <%=link_to_remote_redbox "Link", :url => {:action => :action1, :id => @some.id} some_controller.rb ------------------ def action1 render :layout => false end def action2 do some processing end action1.html.erb -------------------- <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/some_controller/action2', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, onComplete:function(request){RedBox.close(); return false;}, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;}" method="post" action="/some_controller/action2"> <input type=text name='username'> <input type='submit' value='submit'> </form> action2.rjs ----------- page.replace_html("some_div", (render(:partial => "some_partial"))) with that code in place when action2.rjs kicks in it should display the html page instead I am getting this Element.update("some_div", "<style type=\"text/css\">\n\n.............. As suggested on other posts I read, they say its caused because of the ":update = some_div" in the link_to_remote_redbox function but clearly my code doesn't have that. Help is always appreciated. Many Thanks

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  • Help a C# developer understand: What is a monad?

    - by Charlie Flowers
    There is a lot of talk about monads these days. I have read a few articles / blog posts, but I can't go far enough with their examples to fully grasp the concept. The reason is that monads are a functional language concept, and thus the examples are in languages I haven't worked with (since I haven't used a functional language in depth). I can't grasp the syntax deeply enough to follow the articles fully ... but I can tell there's something worth understanding there. However, I know C# pretty well, including lambda expressions and other functional features. I know C# only has a subset of functional features, and so maybe monads can't be expressed in C#. However, surely it is possible to convey the concept? At least I hope so. Maybe you can present a C# example as a foundation, and then describe what a C# developer would wish he could do from there but can't because the language lacks functional programming features. This would be fantastic, because it would convey the intent and benefits of monads. So here's my question: What is the best explanation you can give of monads to a C# 3 developer? Thanks! (EDIT: By the way, I know there are at least 3 "what is a monad" questions already on SO. However, I face the same problem with them ... so this question is needed imo, because of the C#-developer focus. Thanks.)

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  • WPF animation/UI features performance and benchmarking

    - by Rich
    I'm working on a relatively small proof-of-concept for some line of business stuff with some fancy WPF UI work. Without even going too crazy, I'm already seeing some really poor performance when using a lot of the features that I thought were the main reason to consider WPF for UI building in the first place. I asked a question on here about why my animation was being stalled the first time it was run, and at the end what I found was that a very simple UserControl was taking almost half a second just to build its visual tree. I was able to get a work around to the symptom, but the fact that it takes that long to initialize a simple control really bothers me. Now, I'm testing my animation with and without the DropShadowEffect, and the result is night and day. A subtle drop shadow makes my control look so much nicer, but it completely ruins the smoothness of the animation. Let me not even start with the font rendering either. The calculation of my animations when the control has a bunch of gradient brushes and a drop shadow make the text blurry for about a full second and then slowly come into focus. So, I guess my question is if there are known studies, blog posts, or articles detailing which features are a hazard in the current version of WPF for business critical applications. Are things like Effects (ie. DropShadowEffect), gradient brushes, key frame animations, etc going to have too much of a negative effect on render quality (or maybe the combinations of these things)? Is the final version of WPF 4.0 going to correct some of these issues? I've read that VS2010 beta has some of these same issues and that they are supposed to be resolved by final release. Is that because of improvements to WPF itself or because half of the application will be rebuilt with the previous technology?

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  • WPF data validation is overriding theme on the interface

    - by black sensei
    Hello! Good People I built a WPF application and manage to get the validation working thanks to posts on stackoverflow.The only probblem i'm having is that it's overriding the theme i'm using. example the theme makes the textboxes look like a round rectangle but after setting the binding it look like the default textboxes. here is my code : <Button.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Button}"> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="false" /> <Style.Triggers> <!-- Require the controls to be valid in order to press OK --> <MultiDataTrigger> <MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=txtEmail, Path=(Validation.HasError)}" Value="false" /> </MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="true" /> </MultiDataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Button.Style> code behind is : //Form loaded event code txtEmail.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty).UpdateSource(); I've tried to look into the theme file but i was quickly lost.i thought i could use that file like a web css file.Now i've disabled the data binding because of that.Is there any work around for this? thanks for reading this

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  • Choosing a Java Web Framework now?

    - by hbagchi
    we are in the planning stage of migrating a large website which is built on a custom developed mvc framework to a java based web framework which provides built-in support for ajax, rich media content, mashup, templates based layout, validation, maximum html/java code separation. Grails looked like a good choice, however, we do not want to use a scripting language. We want to continue using java. Template based layout is a primary concern as we intend to use this web application with multiple web sites with similar functionality but radically different look and feel. Is portal based solution a good fit to this problem? Any insights on using "Spring Roo" or "Play" will be very helpful. I did find similar posts like this, but it is more than a year old. Things have surely changed in the mean time! EDIT 1: Thanks for the great answers! This site is turning to be the best single source for in-the-trenches programmer info. However, I was expecting more info on using a portal-cms duo. Jahia looks goods. Anything similar?

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  • How do i write this jpql query?

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, Say i have 5 tables, tblBlogs tblBlogPosts tblBlogPostComment tblUser tblBlogMember BlogId BlogPostsId BlogPostCommentId UserId BlogMemberId BlogTitle BlogId CommentText FirstName UserId PostTitle BlogPostsId BlogId BlogMemberId Now i want to retrieve only those blogs and posts for which blogMember has actually commented. So in short, how do i write this plain old sql :- Select b.BlogTitle, bp.PostTitle, bpc.CommentText from tblBlogs b Inner join tblBlogPosts bp on b.BlogId = bp.BlogId Inner Join tblBlogPostComment bpc on bp.BlogPostsId = bpc.BlogPostsId Inner Join tblBlogMember bm On bpc.BlogMemberId = bm.BlogMemberId Where bm.UserId = 1; As you can see, everything is Inner join, so only that row will be retrieved for which the user has commented on some post of some blog. So, suppose he has joined 3 blogs whose ids are 1,2,3 (The blogs which user has joined are in tblBlogMembers) but the user has only commented in blog 2 (of say BlogPostId = 1). So that row will be retrieved and 1,3 won't as it is Inner Join. How do i write this kind of query in jpql? In jpql, we can only write simple queries like say :- Select bm.blogId from tblBlogMember Where bm.UserId = objUser; Where objUser is supplied using :- em.find(User.class,1); Thus once we get all blogs(Here blogId represents a blog object) which user has joined, we can loop through and do all fancy things. But i don't want to fall in this looping business and write all this things in my java code. Instead, i want to leave that for database engine to do. So, how do i write the above plain sql into jpql? and what type of object the jpql query will return? because i am only selecting few fields from all table. In which class should i typecast the result to? I think i posted my requirement correctly, if i am not clear please let me know. Thanks in advance :).

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  • How to get all active parameters in ASP.NET MVC (2)

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I was wondering whether there is a way to create an ActionLink or similar, that changes only a few parameters of the actual query, and keeps all the other parameters intact. For example if I'm on an URL like http://example.com/Posts/Index?Page=5&OrderBy=Name&OrderDesc=True I want to change only the Page, or OrderBy parameter and keep all other parameters the same, even those I don't yet know of (like when I want to add a Search parameter or something similar too). The header of my current action looks like this: public ActionResult Index(int? Page, string OrderBy, bool? Desc) and I'm only interested in the values that this controller "eats". I want however that when I extend this action (for example with a string Search parameter) the links should work the same way as before. Here is what I did already: Create a new RouteValueDictionary and fill it with everything from RouteData.Values Problem: This only fills the parameters that are used in the Routing, so all other optional parameters (like Page) to the controller are lost Add everything from HttpContext.Request.QueryString to the previous dictionary This is what I am currently using Problem: It might have some junk stuff, that the Controller didn`t ask for, and it doesn't work if the page was loaded using POST. You also don't have any ModelBindings (but this isn't much of a problem, because we are re-sending everything anyway) Use HttpContext.Request.Params Problem: this has too much junk data which imho one shouldn't add to a RouteValueDictionary that is passed to an ActionLink So the questions: Is there an RVD that has all the data that was passed to the Controller and was used by it? Is this solution good, or are there any caveats I didn't think about (mainly in the context of changing a few query parameters while keeping the others intact)? Is there a way to filter out the "junk" data from the Params object?

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  • Unable to download .apk via webbrowser from drupal site

    - by ggrell
    I have a drupal-based website where people can log in and see private discussion forums. This is where I want to have my beta testers for my Android application download the beta .apk files. I tested this thoroughly on my Android 1.6 based myTouch 3G, and was able to log in, and download files attached to forum posts without problems. Now comes the interesting part: my testers on Droids and Nexus Ones (Android 2.0.1 and 2.1) were complaining that their downloads are failing. Since I don't have an 2.0 phone, I tried it out in a 2.0 emulator, and lo-and-behold, it didn't work. The download shows the indeterminate progress for a second or two, then shows "Download unsuccessful". Based on what I see in the logs, it is apparent that the server is returning a 404 for the download request from 2.0 browsers. I can download to my desktop and 1.6 phone no problem. The only reason I can think of that the server would return a 404 for a request is that for some reason the credentials or cookies aren't being passed by the download process. Logcat shows: http error 404 for download x Some background: I added the mime type to my .htaccess like this: AddType application/vnd.android.package-archive apk I checked the server logs and see the following for failed downloads: xx.xx.xx.224 - - [28/Jan/2010:20:39:00 -0500] "GET /system/files/grandmajong-beta090.apk HTTP/1.1" 404 - "http://trickybits.com/forums/beta-testing/grandma-jong/latest-version-090-b1" "Mozilla/5.0 (Linux; U; Android 1.6; en-us; sdk Build/Donut) AppleWebKit/528.5+ (KHTML, like Gecko) Version/3.1.2 Mobile Safari/525.20.1"

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  • setAttribute, onClick and cross browser compatability...

    - by Nicholas Kreidberg
    I have read a number of posts about this but none with any solid answer. Here is my code: // button creation onew = document.createElement('input'); onew.setAttribute("type", "button"); onew.setAttribute("value", "hosts"); onew.onclick = function(){fnDisplay_Computers("'" + alines[i] + "'"); }; // ie onew.setAttribute("onclick", "fnDisplay_Computers('" + alines[i] + "')"); // mozilla odiv.appendChild(onew); Now, the setAttribute() method (with the mozilla comment) works fine in mozilla but only if it comes AFTER the line above it. So in other words it seems to just default to whichever gets set last. The .onclick method (with the ie comment) does not work in either case, am I using it incorrectly? Either way I can't find a way to make this work at all in IE, let alone in both. I did change the function call when using the .onclick method and it worked fine using just a simple call to an alert function which is why I believe my syntax is incorrect. Long story short, I can't get the onclick parameter to work consistently between IE/Mozilla. -- Nicholas

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  • Maven doesn't compile target/hibernate3/generated-sources

    - by mmm
    Can someone tell me how to configure maven for it also to compile sources from the target/hibernate3/generated-sources directory? I have already read this and other posts but they don't seem to solve my problem (which indeed seems trivial). I have used the bottom-up approach hibernate configuration for cfg.xml, hbm.xml and POJO generation (i.e. auto-generated the complete hibernate configuration out of an existing database schema). I'm also only using standard maven and hibernate3-plugin directory layouts. Yet, when executing mvn compile in the command-line while my sources are in the src/main/java and the generated sources in /target/hibernate3/generated-sources only the ones from src/main/java get compiled and copied into target/classes. I wouldn't like to generate sources into src/main/java as I'd like mvn clean to clean them. I'd like to solve the problem using command-line, plugins and pom.xml only. Is there a way to configure maven-compiler-plugin to do so? Or is there another way? Regards and thanks for any help.

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  • Scrolling screen upward to expose TextView above keyboard

    - by Matt Winters
    I think I'm missing something obvious and would appreciate an answer. I have a view with a 2-section grouped tableView, each section having one row and a textView, the heights of the rows 335 and 140. This allows for a box with nicely rounded corners to type text into when the keyboard appears (140 height section) and when the keyboard is dismissed, a nice box to read more text (notes); most of the time, use is without the keyboard. I also added a toolbar at the bottom of the screen to scroll up above the keyboard. A button on the toolbar dismisses the keyboard. This last part works fine with the keyboard going up and down using a notification and the following code in a keyboardWillShow method: [UIView beginAnimations:@"showKeyboardAnimation" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; self.view.frame = CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height - 216); [UIView commitAnimations]; But with the above code, the 2 sections of the tableView remain unscrolled, only the toolbar and the keyboard move. With the following code (found both in previous posts), both the toolbar and the tableView sections move. [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.50]; CGRect rect = self.view.frame; rect.origin.y -= 216; self.view.frame = rect; [UIView commitAnimations]; Now I know that I have to tweak the numbers to get the everything as I want it but my first question is what is substantively different between the 2 sets of code that the sections move in the 2nd but not in the 1st? The toolbar also moves with the 2nd code. The second question is, am I going to be able to scroll the smaller height section from off the screen to above the keyboard while at the same time moving the toolbar up just 216? Thanks

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  • Beginning 3.2+ iPhone development

    - by Dinah
    I'm interested in learning Objective C for iPhone development. This is a topic which I realize has been covered to death. The qualifying difference is: I'd like to start learning beginning with the latest version (the most recent iPhone OS as of May, 2010 is ver. 3.2 and 4 beta is also out). I'd like to not have to wade through or unlearn legacy information. Using the links I've found throughout related topics on Stack Overflow, I'll read a blog post or tutorial which will say one thing, but then the comments will say, "this is different now in version xyz." For example, I've found this a few times regarding memory management/garbage collection. I assume that Apple's "getting started" doc.s will have the most recent info but many SO posts have said that those are not the most clear. The Stanford iPhone course looks great, but how do I know if it still applies to the most recent versions? Where should one start learning Objective C for iPhone development starting with version 3.2 or later without having as much exposure to legacy information?

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  • glitchy stuttery iphone game loop

    - by Adam
    This is a problem I've been trying to solve for a few days now, and I've looked at the various solutions on stackoverflow and nothing has really seemed to work for me. I'm making an iPhone game with OpenGLES graphics and accelerometer input, at this point it's very simple, but the rendering is already pretty bad... it stutters and seems to jump back or forward in time. It doesn't happen a lot, but it happens enough to be a problem. I mean, who wants to play a game where a bullet gets magically transported into the player, and then it's game over? No one. I've tried using NSTimer for the game loop, I've tried using a separate thread (with a frame rate and continuously) I've tried using different frame rates, from 30FPS to 60FPS (It seems to have a max frame rate around 45FPS, but no problems at 30FPS) I've tried using timeIntervalSince1970 and CFGetAbsoluteTime to measure loop time, with no noticeable diffence Anyone have any ideas on what is the best way to get this looking better? One of the posts I've read suggested running the simulation at a fixed frame rate and then just render as fast as possible, does that seem like a good idea?

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  • Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

    - by Tal Kanel
    I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

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  • How to create a rails habtm that deletes/destroys without error?

    - by Bradley
    I created a simple example as a sanity check and still can not seem to destroy an item on either side of a has_and_belongs_to_many relationship in rails. Whenever I try to delete an object from either table, I get the dreaded NameError / "uninitialized constant" error message. To demonstrate, I created a sample rails app with a Boy class and Dog class. I used the basic scaffold for each and created a linking table called boys_dogs. I then added a simple before_save routine to create a new 'dog' any time a boy was created and establish a relationship, just to get things setup easily. dog.rb class Dog < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Boys end boy.rb class Boy < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Dogs def before_save self.Dogs.build( :name => "Rover" ) end end schema.rb ActiveRecord::Schema.define(:version => 20100118034401) do create_table "boys", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "boys_dogs", :id => false, :force => true do |t| t.integer "boy_id" t.integer "dog_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "dogs", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end end I've seen lots of posts here and elsewhere about similar problems, but the solutions are normally using belongs_to and the plural/singular class names being confused. I don't think that is the case here, but I tried switching the habtm statement to use the singular name just to see if it helped (with no luck). I seem to be missing something simple here. The actual error message is: NameError in BoysController#destroy uninitialized constant Boy::Dogs The trace looks like: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:105:in const_missing' (eval):3:indestroy_without_callbacks' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:337:in destroy_without_transactions' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:229:insend' ... Thanks.

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  • Authlogic Current User Question - hiding admin links...

    - by bgadoci
    I think I am missing something while using the Authlogic gem w/ Rails. To set the stage I have multiple users and each user can create posts and comments. Upon the display of a post or comment I would like to give the user who created them the option to edit or destroy. I am successfully using the following code to hide and show elements based on if a user is logged in or not but can't seem to find out how to only show these links to the actual user who created them...not any user that is logged in. <% if current_user %> <%= link_to 'Edit', edit_question_path(question) %> | <%= link_to 'Destroy', question, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %> <% else %> <p>nothing to see here</p> <% end %> Here is the def of current_user located in the application controller in case I need to change something here. class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base helper :all # include all helpers, all the time protect_from_forgery # See ActionController::RequestForgeryProtection for details# helper_method :current_user private def current_user_session return @current_user_session if defined?(@current_user_session) @current_user_session = UserSession.find end def current_user return @current_user if defined?(@current_user) @current_user = current_user_session && current_user_session.record end end

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  • Comparing developer productivity tools

    - by Jacob
    I am getting ready to test developer productivity tools for our team (Coderush, Resharper, JustCode, etc). We're planning to roll the tool out the same time as we deploy Visual Studio 2010 and TFS. I've seen several posts discussing the merits of one tool versus another. However, I haven't been able to find any discussion of a methodology self evaluating. One approach I've seen is to use each tool for a month or so and decide which one you like best. This seems completely reasonable if I were evaluating it for myself, but since I'm evaluating for others as well, I'd like to do something more rigorous. I'm hoping to collect some ideas on how to do that. As a starting point, my thinking was to come up a list of 10-20 crucial features to compare, then prepare a matrix where I can compare the relative strengths of each product. Once the matrix is complete, we can make a well informed decision about which product aligns with out needs. Since I'm not a user of any product now, it's been difficult to figure out which features are critical and which are less so. Thank you!

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