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• SSRS 2008: is it possible to make a report parameter NOT query-based for some linked report?

  - by Stefan Mohr

  I suspect the answer is no, but here goes.. I'm using the WebForms Report Viewer on a public-facing website to allow users to report on themselves or their users (if the user is an admin user). A report has a parameter called Users where an admin can pick a user from the list and generate a report from it. Mundane users can also view this report, but I programmatically create a linked report for each user and set the UserID value to their ID so they can only view themselves. This works well except that the UserID parameter is query-based, and not every user is visible in the list using default settings (the user list is based off date range parameters can provide, and only users we consider 'active' during the date range are visible). This is blowing up for mundane users that are not active for the default date range (which is the previous month). I suspect the flow of execution is something like this: Report loads with default parameters The linked report rules are now applied and the value of the UserID is overridden with the ID in the linked report UserID field is now hidden to prevent the user from changing it SSRS can't find the UserID default value in the query results (that I didn't even want it to run) so it displays an error The 'UserID' parameter is missing a value Through some testing I've found a perfect correlation between users not inside the default date range and users who can't view the report. Can anyone suggest a way to make the report usable for those users that aren't in the default list? The reports are created programmatically so I do have a fair bit of control over the situation. I would love to simply be able to mark a parameter in a linked report as no longer being query-based, but those properties are all read-only. I really, really don't want to have to create duplicate reports to accommodate these users but I'm at a bit of a loss right now. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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• Git: Remove specific commit

  - by Joshua Cheek

  I was working with a friend on a project, and he edited a bunch of files that shouldn't have been edited. Somehow I merged his work into mine, either when I pulled it, or when I tried to just pick the specific files out that I wanted. I've been looking and playing for a long time, trying to figure out how to remove the commits that contain the edits to those files, it seems to be a toss up between revert and rebase, and there are no straightforward examples, and the docs assume I know more than I do. So here is a simplified version of the question: Given the following scenario, how do I remove commit 2? $ mkdir git_revert_test && cd git_revert_test $ git init Initialized empty Git repository in /Users/josh/deleteme/git_revert_test/.git/ $ echo "line 1" > myfile $ git add -A $ git commit -m "commit 1" [master (root-commit) 8230fa3] commit 1 1 files changed, 1 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) create mode 100644 myfile $ echo "line 2" >> myfile $ git commit -am "commit 2" [master 342f9bb] commit 2 1 files changed, 1 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) $ echo "line 3" >> myfile $ git commit -am "commit 3" [master 1bcb872] commit 3 1 files changed, 1 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) The expected result is $ cat myfile line 1 line 3 Here is an example of how I have been trying to revert $ git revert 342f9bb Automatic revert failed. After resolving the conflicts, mark the corrected paths with 'git add <paths>' or 'git rm <paths>' and commit the result.

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• How to detect the character encoding of a text file?

  - by Cédric Boivin

  I try to detect which character encoding is used in my file. I try with this code to get the standard encoding public static Encoding GetFileEncoding(string srcFile) { // *** Use Default of Encoding.Default (Ansi CodePage) Encoding enc = Encoding.Default; // *** Detect byte order mark if any - otherwise assume default byte[] buffer = new byte[5]; FileStream file = new FileStream(srcFile, FileMode.Open); file.Read(buffer, 0, 5); file.Close(); if (buffer[0] == 0xef && buffer[1] == 0xbb && buffer[2] == 0xbf) enc = Encoding.UTF8; else if (buffer[0] == 0xfe && buffer[1] == 0xff) enc = Encoding.Unicode; else if (buffer[0] == 0 && buffer[1] == 0 && buffer[2] == 0xfe && buffer[3] == 0xff) enc = Encoding.UTF32; else if (buffer[0] == 0x2b && buffer[1] == 0x2f && buffer[2] == 0x76) enc = Encoding.UTF7; else if (buffer[0] == 0xFE && buffer[1] == 0xFF) // 1201 unicodeFFFE Unicode (Big-Endian) enc = Encoding.GetEncoding(1201); else if (buffer[0] == 0xFF && buffer[1] == 0xFE) // 1200 utf-16 Unicode enc = Encoding.GetEncoding(1200); return enc; } My five first byte are 60, 118, 56, 46 and 49. Is there a chart that shows which encoding matches those five first bytes?

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• Using PSExec from within CruiseControl .NET

  - by JayRu

  Hi All, I'm trying to call a PSExec task from CC.NET and running into some difficulties. Here's the CC project <project name="Test"> <tasks> <exec> <executable>C:\Utilities\psexec.exe</executable> <buildArgs>-u [UNAME] -p [PWD] "C:\Utilities\Joel.bat"</buildArgs> </exec> </tasks> </project> Here's the source of Joel.bat CLS @ECHO OFF What happens is that the first time I force the project to build, it runs successfully. The PSExec task is kicked off and the Joel.bat file is executed. I get some information in the build log about exit codes, but the task is successful. Here's the build log output. PsExec v1.97 - Execute processes remotely Copyright (C) 2001-2009 Mark Russinovich Sysinternals - www.sysinternals.com C:\Utilities\Joel.bat exited with error code 0. The second time I force the build I get the dreaded "The Application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142)" error message. I can't ever run the build more than once More so, if I try to shut down the cruise control .net service from within the services MSC, it can't. It's like there's a lock somewhere that is taken and not released. The only way I can kill the service is by killing the ccservices.exe process. I've tried the exact same thing using an nant task and gotten the exact same results. It works the first time, and fails the second and I can't shutdown the process. I'm not sure if this is an issue with CC.NET or with PSEXEC (or me of course). Anybody got any ideas? I'm posting to the CC.NET forums as well. I'm using the latest and greatest of PSExec and 1.4.4 of CC.NET. Thx, Joel

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• iPhone Device 3.1 SDK Breaks vertical alignment of UITableViewCellStyleValue1 textLabel

  - by user171089

  Can anyone provide an explanation for the following phenomenon? As of the iPhone Device 3.1 SDK, I've found that if a UITableViewCell is of style UITableViewCellStyleValue1 and its detailTextLabel.text is unassigned, then the textLabel does not display in the center of the cell as would be expected. One notable caveat is that this only happens for me when I'm testing on the Device – the iPhone Simulator 3.1 SDK displays the cells correctly. Also, this is not a problem when using the iPhone Device 3.0 SDK. Below is a simple UITableView subclass implementation that demonstrates the problem. @implementation BuggyTableViewController #pragma mark Table view methods // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleValue1 reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text unassigned"; break; case 1: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @""; break; case 2: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"A\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @"A"; break; default: break; } return cell; } @end

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• Handling multiple column data with Java

  - by Ender

  I am writing an application that reads in a large number of basic user details in the following format; once read in it then allows the user to search for a user's details using their email: NAME ROLE EMAIL --------------------------------------------------- Joe Bloggs Manager [email protected] John Smith Consultant [email protected] Alan Wright Tester [email protected] ... The problem I am suffering is that I need to store a large number of details of all people that have worked at the company. The file containing these details will be written on a yearly basis simply for reporting purposes, but the program will need to be able to access these details quickly. The way I aim to access these files is to have a program that asks the user for the name of the unique email of the member of staff and for the program to then return the name and the role from that line of the file. I've played around with text files, but am struggling with how I would handle multiple columns of data when it comes to searching this large file. What is the best format to store such data in? A text file? XML? The size doesn't bother me, but I'd like to be able to search it as quickly as possible. The file will need to contain a lot of entries, probably over the 10K mark over time.

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• Spring 3 DI using generic DAO interface

  - by Peders

  I'm trying to use @Autowired annotation with my generic Dao interface like this: public interface DaoContainer<E extends DomainObject> { public int numberOfItems(); // Other methods omitted for brevity } I use this interface in my Controller in following fashion: @Configurable public class HelloWorld { @Autowired private DaoContainer<Notification> notificationContainer; @Autowired private DaoContainer<User> userContainer; // Implementation omitted for brevity } I've configured my application context with following configuration <context:spring-configured /> <context:component-scan base-package="com.organization.sample"> <context:exclude-filter expression="org.springframework.stereotype.Controller" type="annotation" /> </context:component-scan> <tx:annotation-driven /> This works only partially, since Spring creates and injects only one instance of my DaoContainer, namely DaoContainer. In other words, if I ask userContainer.numberOfItems(); I get the number of notificationContainer.numberOfItems() I've tried to use strongly typed interfaces to mark the correct implementation like this: public interface NotificationContainer extends DaoContainer<Notification> { } public interface UserContainer extends DaoContainer<User> { } And then used these interfaces like this: @Configurable public class HelloWorld { @Autowired private NotificationContainer notificationContainer; @Autowired private UserContainer userContainer; // Implementation omitted... } Sadly this fails to BeanCreationException: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Could not autowire field: private com.organization.sample.dao.NotificationContainer com.organization.sample.HelloWorld.notificationContainer; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type [com.organization.sample.NotificationContainer] found for dependency: expected at least 1 bean which qualifies as autowire candidate for this dependency. Dependency annotations: {@org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.Autowired(required=true)} Now, I'm a little confused how should I proceed or is using multiple Dao's even possible. Any help would be greatly appreciated :)

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• When programatically creating a new IIS web site, how can I add it to an existing application pool?

  - by Ian Robinson

  I have successfully automated the process of creating a new IIS website, however the code I've written doesn't care about application pools, it just gets added to DefaultAppPool. However I'd like to add this newly created site to an existing application pool. Here is the code I'm using to create the new website. var w3Svc = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/w3svc", webserver)); var newsite = new object[] { serverComment, new object[] { serverBindings }, homeDirectory }; var websiteId = w3Svc.Invoke("CreateNewSite", newsite); site.Invoke("Start", null); site.CommitChanges(); <update Although this is not directly related to the question, here are some sample values being used above. This might help someone understand exactly what the code above is doing more easily. webServer: "localhost" serverComment: "testing.dev" serverBindings: ":80:testing.dev" homeDirectory: "c:\inetpub\wwwroot\testing\" </update If I know the name of the application pool that I'd like this web site to be in, how can I find it and add this site to it? <update 2 I've added the following based on Mark's answer below. var appPool = new DirectoryEntry(string.Format("IIS://{0}/w3svc/AppPools/{1}", webServer, appPoolName)); site.Properties["AppPoolId"].Value = appPool; I seem to have moved passed the "RPC" error message I was initially receiving. Now this is the error message I'm receiving: Error: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x8000500C): Exception from HRESULT: 0x8000500C at System.DirectoryServices.Interop.UnsafeNativeMethods.IAds.PutEx(Int32 lnControlCode, String bstrName, Object vProp) at System.DirectoryServices.PropertyValueCollection.set_Value(Object value) at ProvisionIISWebsite.Query.CreateWebsite(String webServer, String serverComment, String serverBindings, String homeDirectory, String appPoolName) in C:\Users\irobinson\My Projects\ProvisionIISWebsite\Query.cs:line 104 at ProvisionIISWebsite.Query.Handle_GetData(EngineBase& caller, Boolean isSubQuery, String query, String filterField, String filterText, Debugger& debugWriter, Boolean isRendered, Int32 timeout, String customConnection) in C:\Users\irobinson\My Projects\ProvisionIISWebsite\Query.cs:line 36 </update 2

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• Client Certificate installed in IE8 on Windows 7 doesn't work - 403.7

  - by mlauter

  We have configured IIS 6 to accept client certificates and have installed the certificate services on our server. When we go to http://[our site]/CertSrv and request a Web Browser Certificate (client certificate) from IE7/8 on Windows XP and Vista and Windows 7, then issue the cert on the server certificate authority manager, all combinations of the client/OS seem to install the client certificate properly in the personal certificate store. When we visit our test application that requires client certificates, all IE versions installed in Windows XP propmt for the client certificate and then properly display the page. Uhfortunately, all IE versions installed on Vista and Windows 7 do not prompt for the cert, nor do they automatically send the cert. It's like IE on these operating systems is unaware of the client certificate and it doesn't prompt for it, nor does it send it to the site. Since everything works as expected, at least on the XP configurations, we assume that IIS6 is correctly configured. It's been 8 hours with two of us trying to figure this out and we're ready to throw a laptop through a window and "the google" has let us down. Thanks for anyone who can help. Mark

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• Show Add button after Edit button is clicked?

  - by David.Chu.ca

  I have a view with navigation bar control on the top. The view is in the second level with a "back" button is displayed on the left by default. In my view class, I added a default navigation edit button on the right: self.navigationbarItem.rightButtonItem = self.editButtonItem; with this line of code, an edit button is on the right side, and when it is clicked, the view (table view) becomes editable with delete mark on the left for each row. After that, the edit button's caption becomes "done". All those are done by the default edit button built in the navigation control, I think. I would like to add an add button the left, or replace "back" button when edit is clicked. I guess I have to implement some kind of delegate in my view class. This would provide a place to plug in my code to add the add button on the left when edit button is clicked, and to restore "back" button back when the done button is clicked. If so, what's the delegate? Or is there any other way to achieve it?

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• UIViewerTableViewController.m:15: error: expected identifier before '*' token

  - by Aaron Levin

  I am new to objective-c programming. I come from a C# background. I am having problems with the following code I am writing for a proof of concept for an iPhone App: I am getting a number of compile errors but I think they are all due to the first error (could be wrong) - error: expected identifier before '*' token (@synthesize *lists; in the .m file) I'm not sure why my code is showing up the way it is in the view below the editor..hmm any way, any help would be appreciated. .m file // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import "UIViewerTableViewController.h" @implementation UIViewerTableViewController @synthesize *lists; @synthesize *icon; (void)dealloc { [Lists release]; [super dealloc]; } pragma mark Table View Methods //Customize number of rows in table view (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *) tableView numberOfRowsInSection: (NSInteger) section{ return self.Lists.Count; } //Customize the appearence of table view cells (UITableViewCell *) tableView(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *) indexPath{ static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableView *Cell = [tablevView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if(cell == nil){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [[self.Lists objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] retain]; cell.imageView = self.Icon; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } @end .h file // // UIMyCardsTableViewController.h // MCS ProtoType v0.1 // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import @interface UIViewerTableViewController : UITableViewController { NSArray *lists; UIImage *icon; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSArray *lists; @property (nonatomic,retain) UIImage *icon; @end

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• Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find?

  - by williamjones

  I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible, however, if that is the only way I would also appreciate if anyone can point me in the right direction to a regex that is unlikely to be missing anything. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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• HttpUtility does not exist in the current context

  - by Shaihi

  I get this error when compiling a C# application. Looks like a trivial error, but I can't get around it. My setup is Windows 7 64 bit. Visual-Studio 2010 C# express B2Rel. I added a reference to System.Web.dll located at C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0, but it has a yellow exclamation symbol and I still get the above error. I also have the using System.Web declaration. What am I doing wrong? Update: After getting the prompt answer pointing me at the root cause, I searched a bit in Google to where it states that System.Web.dll is for the full framework. I did not find such a reference. For newbies like me, this blog summarizes the difference between the frameworks (client and full) nicely. I could not find a spot that says whether a certain Dll is supported in the client framework or not. I guess the exclamation mark in Visual Studio should be the first signal...

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• How to keep relative position of WPF elements on background image

  - by Masterfu

  Hi folks, I am new to WPF, so the answer to the following question might be obvious, however it isn't to me. I need to display an image where users can set markers on (As an example: You might want to mark a person's face on a photograph with a rectangle), however the markers need to keep their relative position when scaling the image. Currently I am doing this by using a Canvas and setting an ImageBrush as Background. This displays the image and I can add elements like a Label (as replacement for a rectangle) on top of the image. But when I set a label like this, it's position is absolute and so when the underlying picture is scaled (because the user drags the window larger) the Label stays at it's absolute position (say, 100,100) instead of moving to the new position that keeps it "in sync" with the underlying image. To cut the matter short: When I set a marker on a person's eye, it shouldn't be on the person's ear after scaling the window. Any suggestions on how to do that in WPF? Maybe Canvas is the wrong approach in the first place? I could keep a collection of markers in code and recalculate their position every time the window gets resized, but I hope there is a way to let WPF do that work for me :-) I am interested in hearing your opinions on this. Thanks

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• Scheme Depth-first search of a graph function

  - by John Retallack

  This is a homework question,I'm trying to do a Depth-first search function in Scheme,Here's the code I've written so far: (define explore (?(node visited) (let* ([neighbors (force (cdr node))] [next (nextNode visited neighbors)] [is-visited (member? node visited)]) (cond ;if I have no unvisited neighbours print current node and go up one level [(equal? next #f) (begin (display (car node)) (display " "))] ;if current node is not visited and I have unvisited neighbors ;print current node,mark as visited and visit it's neighbors [(and (equal? is-visited #f) (not (equal? next #f))) (begin (display (car node)) (display " ") (explore next (cons node visited)))]) ;go and visit the next neighbor (if (not (equal? (nextNode (cons next visited) neighbors) #f )) (explore (nextNode (cons next visited) neighbors) (cons node visited)))))) 'node' is the current node 'visited' is a list in witch I keep track of the nodes I visited 'nextNode' is a function that returns the first unvisited neighbor if any or #f otherwise 'member?' test's if a node is in the visited list The Graph representation is using adjacent made using references to nodes with letrec so that's why I use force in 'neighbors': Eg: (letrec ([node1 (list "NY" (delay (list node2 node3)))],where node2 and node3 are defined as node1 The problem witch I'm dealing with is that my visited lists looses track of some of the nodes I visited when I come out of recursion,How can I fix this ?

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• improve my code for collapsing a list of data.frames

  - by romunov

  Dear StackOverFlowers (flowers in short), I have a list of data.frames (walk.sample) that I would like to collapse into a single (giant) data.frame. While collapsing, I would like to mark (adding another column) which rows have came from which element of the list. This is what I've got so far. This is the data.frame that needs to be collapsed/stacked. > walk.sample [[1]] walker x y 1073 3 228.8756 -726.9198 1086 3 226.7393 -722.5561 1081 3 219.8005 -728.3990 1089 3 225.2239 -727.7422 1032 3 233.1753 -731.5526 [[2]] walker x y 1008 3 205.9104 -775.7488 1022 3 208.3638 -723.8616 1072 3 233.8807 -718.0974 1064 3 217.0028 -689.7917 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 [[3]] [1] 3 [[4]] walker x y 546 2 629.9041 831.0852 524 2 627.8698 873.3774 578 2 572.3312 838.7587 513 2 633.0598 871.7559 538 2 636.3088 836.6325 1079 3 206.3683 -729.6257 1095 3 239.9884 -748.2637 1005 3 197.2960 -780.4704 1045 3 245.1900 -694.3566 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 I have written a function to add a column that denote from which element the rows came followed by appending it to an existing data.frame. collapseToDataFrame <- function(x) { # collapse list to a dataframe with a twist walk.df <- data.frame() for (i in 1:length(x)) { n.rows <- nrow(x[[i]]) if (length(x[[i]])>1) { temp.df <- cbind(x[[i]], rep(i, n.rows)) names(temp.df) <- c("walker", "x", "y", "session") walk.df <- rbind(walk.df, temp.df) } else { cat("Empty list", "\n") } } return(walk.df) } > collapseToDataFrame(walk.sample) Empty list Empty list walker x y session 3 1 -604.5055 -123.18759 1 60 1 -562.0078 -61.24912 1 84 1 -594.4661 -57.20730 1 9 1 -604.2893 -110.09168 1 43 1 -632.2491 -54.52548 1 1028 3 240.3905 -724.67284 1 1040 3 232.5545 -681.61225 1 1073 3 228.8756 -726.91980 1 1091 3 209.0373 -740.96173 1 1036 3 248.7123 -694.47380 1 I'm curious whether this can be done more elegantly, with perhaps do.call() or some other more generic function?

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• Ericsson f3507g WWAN (3G Broadband) and AT commands

  - by JD

  I have a lenovo x200t tablet with WWAN built into it. I'm trying to connect to the internet using AT commands and a C# program which I am making so that the program can connect to the net and upload information on demand. I don't want to use Lenovo's "Access Connections" as it is too complicated for the end user. So far I have been able to use terminal to turn the card on and off, ring landlines and send SMS messages. However I can't seem to access the internet using it. I could access the net through it before I removed "Access Connections" software/bloatware. The commands I am using to try and access the net are: Connect on COM7 to the modem Send initialisation string "AT+CFUN=1" Send AT*ENAP=1,1 as suggested here (http://www.thinkwiki.org/wiki/Ericsson%5FF3507g%5FMobile%5FBroadband%5FModule) Windows says it is "Identifying" the network and a yellow exclamation mark appears on the networking icon in the task bar, but the connection fails and drops off. An IP is assigned to the "Local Area Connection 2" of 169.254.1.192 with a subnet of 255.255.0.0 - no gateway or DNS. Definately no net connection... Anyone got any ideas?

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• Reusing service proxies

  - by Hadi Eskandari

  I have a set of webservices that I connect to using Silverlight Client. I use proxies generated by "Add service reference" or SLSVCUTIL.exe tool to connect to this service. So far, I have only used one single service. Now I want to use another service on the same server. The problem is that, first service generated set of proxy classes for me, and second service will reuse the same set of classes (plus extra services/classes), e.g. CustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer); OrderService.CheckCustomerLevel(Customer customer); The problem is when I add reference to the second service, I can not reuse the same namespace for the second one (VS error), and when I use a different namespace, the generated classes, although are essentially the same, reside in different namespace, hence different and I end up with two Customer classes in two different namespaces. Anyway around this? I just neeed to have two set of services, reusing the Customer class. I have already tried "reuse types in assembly / all assemblies" check mark when generating proxy classes, but it seems to have no effect. any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Multilingual spellcheck on WPF richtextbox

  - by sub-jp

  I need to turn spellcheck on for a richtextbox, and set the language to one the user has picked from a drop down. For now, I'm just testing it by building the richtextbox in xaml and providing a language to the xaml language attribute. I've read two different resources and one says I need to set the language attribute, and the other says I need to set the xml:lang attribute. Neither seems to work. I've tried setting either one to "es" for Spanish, and I've also tried setting both to "es". I've also tried french by setting them to "fr-FR", without success. The only thing that happens is that english words aren't marked, but the other language words are marked as misspelled. I also read that I need to change the keyboard language. This would be a problem for my application as the language within the application needs to be switched on the fly, so having the end user go to their keyboard settings just so spellcheck will work is a problem. However, I've changed my keyboard settings, and spell check still does not work properly. This time it doesn't mark anything as misspelled, even misspelled english words. What am I missing? Edit: some links to my references above http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.controls.spellcheck(v=VS.100).aspx http://www.dev102.com/2008/03/25/customize-spellcheck-on-wpf-text-controls/ http://books.google.com/books?id=clLc5BBHqRMC&pg=PA121&lpg=PA121&dq=C%23+wpf+enable+spellcheck&source=bl&ots=_r59pZRDjP&sig=yHMBc39EHKK5gaRMzxlBaEsY890&hl=en&ei=oXnIS8zWH4G88gaq48yGBw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6&ved=0CBMQ6AEwBQ#v=onepage&q&f=false

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• ASP.NET with MS Chart disable the vertical line

  - by Bayonian

  Hi, I have a graph created with MS Chart like the following picture. As you can see the vertical lines are messed up with value of the top of each bar. Here's the mark-up for the graph: <asp:Chart ID="chtNBAChampionships" runat="server"> <Series> <asp:Series Name="Championships" YValueType="Int32" ChartType="Column" ChartArea="MainChartArea" IsValueShownAsLabel="true"> <Points> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Celtics" YValues="17" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Lakers" YValues="15" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Bulls" YValues="6" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Spurs" YValues="4" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="76ers" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Pistons" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Warriors" YValues="3" /> </Points> </asp:Series> </Series> <ChartAreas> <asp:ChartArea Name="MainChartArea"> </asp:ChartArea> </ChartAreas> </asp:Chart> I don't want the display the vertical line because it's messed up with the value on top of the each bar. How can I disable the vertical line? Thank you.

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• How to implement Priority Queues in Python?

  - by dragosrsupercool

  Sorry for such a silly question but Python docs are confusing.. . Link 1: Queue Implementation http://docs.python.org/library/queue.html It says thats Queue has a contruct for priority queue. But I could not find how to implement it. class Queue.PriorityQueue(maxsize=0) Link 2: Heap Implementation http://docs.python.org/library/heapq.html Here they says that we can implement priority queues indirectly using heapq pq = [] # list of entries arranged in a heap entry_finder = {} # mapping of tasks to entries REMOVED = '<removed-task>' # placeholder for a removed task counter = itertools.count() # unique sequence count def add_task(task, priority=0): 'Add a new task or update the priority of an existing task' if task in entry_finder: remove_task(task) count = next(counter) entry = [priority, count, task] entry_finder[task] = entry heappush(pq, entry) def remove_task(task): 'Mark an existing task as REMOVED. Raise KeyError if not found.' entry = entry_finder.pop(task) entry[-1] = REMOVED def pop_task(): 'Remove and return the lowest priority task. Raise KeyError if empty.' while pq: priority, count, task = heappop(pq) if task is not REMOVED: del entry_finder[task] return task raise KeyError('pop from an empty priority queue' Which is the most efficient priority queue implementation in python? And how to implement it?

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• Data Binding to an object in C#

  - by Allen

  Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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• .NET custom property attribute?

  - by ropstah

  EDIT: I'd better rephrase: How can I shift the GET-implementation of a Class property to a / using a custom attribute? (I've added instantation vars (classname, propertyname) to the attribute, however I'd rather have these automatically fetched ofcourse.) Public Class CustomClass <CustomAttributeClass(ClassName:="CustomClass", PropertyName = "SomeProperty")> _ Public Property SomeProperty() as String Get() as String //This implementation should be handled by the attribute class End Get Set(Byval value as String) Me._someProperty = value End Set End Property End Class Old question: I want to create a custom property attribute for classes. I can create a class derived from Attribute, and 'mark' the property with the attribute, but where to go from here? I have a repository where I can quickly get data based on the attributes values. I would like to generalize the behaviour of the property in the attribute but I don't know how to go from here... Any help would be greatly accepted! Public Class CustomDataAttribute : Inherits Attribute Private _name As String Public Sub New(ByVal name As String) Me.Name = name End Sub Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) Me._name = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class CustomClass <CustomDataAttribute(Name:="CustomField")> _ Public Property CustomField() End Property End Class

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• g++ C++0x enum class Compiler Warnings

  - by Travis G

  I've been refactoring my horrible mess of C++ type-safe psuedo-enums to the new C++0x type-safe enums because they're way more readable. Anyway, I use them in exported classes, so I explicitly mark them to be exported: enum class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyEnum : unsigned int { One = 1, Two = 2 }; Compiling this with g++ yields the following warning: type attributes ignored after type is already defined This seems very strange, since, as far as I know, that warning is meant to prevent actual mistakes like: class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyClass { }; class __attribute__((visibility("hidden"))) MyClass; Of course, I'm clearly not doing that, since I have only marked the visibility attributes at the definition of the enum class and I'm not re-defining or declaring it anywhere else (I can duplicate this error with a single file). Ultimately, I can't make this bit of code actually cause a problem, save for the fact that, if I change a value and re-compile the consumer without re-compiling the shared library, the consumer passes the new values and the shared library has no idea what to do with them (although I wouldn't expect that to work in the first place). Am I being way too pedantic? Can this be safely ignored? I suspect so, but at the same time, having this error prevents me from compiling with Werror, which makes me uncomfortable. I would really like to see this problem go away.

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• Debugger ignores me.

  - by atch

  Having code: Date::Date(const char* day, const char* month, const char* year):is_leap__(false) { my_day_ = lexical_cast<int>(day); my_month_ = static_cast<Month>(lexical_cast<int>(month)); /*Have to check month here, other ctor assumes month is correct*/ if (my_month_ < 1 || my_month_ > 12) { throw std::exception("Incorrect month."); } my_year_ = lexical_cast<int>(year); if (!check_range_year_(my_year_)) { throw std::exception("Year out of range."); } if (check_leap_year_(my_year_))//SKIPS THIS LINE { is_leap__ = true; } if (!check_range_day_(my_day_, my_month_)) { throw std::exception("Day out of range."); } } bool Date::check_leap_year_(int year)const//IF I MARK THIS LINE WITH BREAKPOINT I'M GETTING MSG THAT THERE IS NO EXECUTABLE CODE IS ASSOSIATED WITH THIS LINE { if (!(year%400) || (year%100 && !(year%4))) { return true; } else { return false; } } Which is very strange in my opinion. There is call to this fnc in my code, why compiler ignores that. P.S. I'm trying to debug in release.

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