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• Architecture Guidance Needed?

  - by vijay

  We are about to automate number of process for our reporting team. (The reports are like daily reports, weekly reports, monthly reports, etc..) Mostly the process is like pulling some data from the oracle and then fill them in particular excel template files. Each reports and so their templates are different from each other. Except the excel file manipulation, there are hardly any business logic behind these. Client wanted an integrated tool and all the automated processes are placed as menus/submenus. Right now roughly there are around 30 process waiting to be automated. And we are expecting more new reports in the next quarter. I am nowhere to near having any practical experience when comes to architecuring. Already i have been maintaining two or three systems(they are more than 4yrs old.) for this prestegious client.The possiblity of the above mentioned tool will be manintained for another 3 yrs is very likely. From my past experience i've been through the pain of implmenting change requests to the rigd & undocumented code base resulting in the break down of the system and then eventually myself. So My main and top most concern is the maintainablity. When i was searching for these i came across this link, Smart Clients Using CAB and SCSF is the above link appropriate for my requirement? Also Should i place each automated processes in separate forms under a single project, or place them in separate projects under a single solution.. Please correct me if have missed any other important information. Thx.

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• making my player sprite land on top of my platform sprite

  - by Stone

  Hi, in my XNA game(im fairly new to XNA by the way) i would like to have my player sprite land on top of a platform. i have a player sprite class that inherits from my regular sprite class, and the regular sprite class for basic non playable sprite stuff such as boxes, background stuff, and platforms. However, i am unsure how to implement a way to make my player sprite land on a platform. My player Sprite can jump and move around, but i dont know where and how to check to see if it is on top of my platform sprite. My player sprites jump method is here private void Jump() { if (mCurrentState != State.Jumping) { mCurrentState = State.Jumping; mStartingPosition = Position; mDirection.Y = MOVE_UP; mSpeed = new Vector2(jumpSpeed, jumpSpeed); } } mStartingPosition is player sprites starting position of the jump, and Position is the player sprites current position. I would think that my code for checking to see whether my player sprite is on top of my platform sprite. I am unsure how to reference my platform sprite inside of the playersprite class and inside of the jump method. i think it should be something like this //platformSprite.CollisonBox would be the rectangle around the platform, but im not //sure how to check to see if player.Position is touching any point //on platformSprite.CollisionBox if(player.Position == platformSprite.CollisionBox) { player.mDirection = 0; } Again im pretty new to programming and XNA, and some of this logic i dont quite understand so any help on any of it would be greatly appreciated:D Thanks

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• Toggle row visibility one at a time

  - by kuswantin

  I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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• jQuery Validation error...

  - by Povylas

  Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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• Bound checkbox does not update its datasource.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I have a checkbox who's checked value is bound to a binding source which is bound to a boolean data table column. When I click my save button to push my changes in my data table to my sql server the value in the data table is never changed. Designer code. this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges = new System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox(); this.preProductionBindingSource = new System.Windows.Forms.BindingSource(); // // cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges // this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.AutoSize = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Checked", this.preProductionBindingSource, "WEBINFINTY_CHANGES", true, System.Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged)); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(6, 98); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Name = "cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(152, 17); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.TabIndex = 30; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Text = "Keep WebInfinity Changes"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.UseVisualStyleBackColor = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.CheckedChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.CauseApplyChangesActivation); // // preProductionBindingSource // this.preProductionBindingSource.AllowNew = false; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataMember = "PreProduction"; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataSource = this.salesLogix; Save Code //the comments are the debugger values before the call in going from checked when loaded to unchecked when saved. private void btnApplyChanges_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { (...) // non related saving logic for other controls preProductionBindingSource.EndEdit(); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true preProductionTableAdapter.Update(salesLogix.PreProduction); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true } After the saving code the box rechecks itself. The same things happens when going from unchecked to checked. does not save the change and reverts to the old value. Other items I have bound to the same data-binding source (I have two combo boxes) are updating correctly.

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• Integrating Magento with SAP ECC 6.0 Backend

  - by ikarous

  I'm a freshly graduated (read: inexperienced) developer who's been tasked with determining the feasibility of integrating Magento with an SAP-based backend. No developer at our company has any experience working with either SAP or Magento, so I was hoping that the Stack Overflow community may be able to point me in the right direction with my research. We're a small company (four full-time developers) and the timeline on this project would be tight, so I'm trying to gather as much information as possible. The client has a tiered pricing structure, tax calculation logic, promotional deals, and automatic freight determination all implemented in an SAP ECC 6.0 system. They would like to migrate all their online stores over to Magento while continuing to utilize all existing functionality in SAP. The idea is to accomplish this by overriding certain modules in Magento to place remote calls to SAP BAPIs. I've investigated SAPRFC, which looks promising but relatively stale in terms of update frequency. Do any developers have experience using SAPRFC with SAP ECC 6.0 (with or without Magento integration)? If so, what were your experiences, and what were the biggest risk factors involved? Any comments, suggestions, or links to resources would be greatly appreciated.

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• How test that ASP.NET MVC route redirects to other site?

  - by Matt Lacey

  Due to a prinitng error in some promotional material I have a site that is receiving a lot of requests which should be for one site arriving at another. i.e. The valid sites are http://site1.com/abc & http://site2.com/def but people are being told to go to http://site1.com/def. I have control over site1 but not site2. site1 contains logic for checking that the first part of the route is valid in an actionfilter, like this: public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); if ((!filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey("id")) || (!manager.WhiteLabelExists(filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString()))) { if (filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString().ToLowerInvariant().Equals("def")) { filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect("http://site2.com/def", true); } filterContext.Result = new ViewResult { ViewName = "NoWhiteLabel" }; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } I'm not sure how to test the redirection to the other site though. I already have tests for redirecting to "NoWhiteLabel" using the MvcContrib Test Helpers, but these aren't able to handle (as far as I can see) this situation. How do I test the redirection to antoher site?

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• Ideas for a rudimentary software licensing implementation

  - by Ross

  I'm trying to decide how to implement a very basic licensing solution for some software I wrote. The software will run on my (hypothetical) clients' machines, with the idea being that the software will immediately quit (with a friendly message) if the client is running it on greater-than-n machines (n being the number of licenses they have purchased). Additionally, the clients are non-tech-savvy to the point where "basic" is good enough. Here is my current design, but given that I have little to no experience in the topic, I wanted to ask SO before I started any development on it: A remote server hosts a MySQL database with a table containing two columns: client-key and license quantity The client-side application connects to the MySQL database on startup, offering it's client-key that I've put into a properties file packaged into the distribution (I would create a new distribution for each new client) Chances are, I'll need a second table to store validation history, so that with some short logic, the software can decide if it can be run on a given machine (maybe a sliding window of n machines using the software per 24 hours) If the software cannot establish a connection to the MySQL database, or decides that it's over the n allowed machines per day, it closes The connection info for the remote server hosting the MySQL database should be hard-coded into the app? (That sounds like a bad idea, but otherwise they could point it to some other always-validates-to-success server) I think that about covers my initial design. The intent being that while it certainly isn't full-proof, I think I've made it at least somewhat difficult to create an easily-sharable cracking solution. Also, I can easily adjust the license amount for a given client/key pair. I gotta figure this has been done a million times before, so tell me about a better solution that's just as simple to implement and provides the same (low) amount of security. In the event that external libraries are used, I prefer Java, as that's what the software has been written in.

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• Best approach, Dynamic OpenXML in T-SQL

  - by Martin Ongtangco

  hello, i'm storing XML values to an entry in my database. Originally, i extract the xml datatype to my business logic then fill the XML data into a DataSet. I want to improve this process by loading the XML right into the T-SQL. Instead of getting the xml as string then converting it on the BL. My issue is this: each xml entry is dynamic, meaning it can be any column created by the user. I tried using this approach, but it's giving me an error: CREATE PROCEDURE spXMLtoDataSet @id uniqueidentifier, @columns varchar(max) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @name varchar(300); DECLARE @i int; DECLARE @xmlData xml; (SELECT @xmlData = data, @name = name FROM XmlTABLES WHERE (tableID = ISNULL(@id, tableID))); EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @i OUTPUT, @xmlData DECLARE @tag varchar(1000); SET @tag = '/NewDataSet/' + @name; DECLARE @statement varchar(max) SET @statement = 'SELECT * FROM OpenXML(@i, @tag, 2) WITH (' + @columns + ')'; EXEC (@statement); EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @i END where i pass a dynamically written @columns. For example: spXMLtoDataSet 'bda32dd7-0439-4f97-bc96-50cdacbb1518', 'ID int, TypeOfAccident int, Major bit, Number_of_Persons int, Notes varchar(max)' but it kept on throwing me this exception: Msg 137, Level 15, State 2, Line 1 Must declare the scalar variable "@i". Msg 319, Level 15, State 1, Line 1 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'with'. If this statement is a common table expression or an xmlnamespaces clause, the previous statement must be terminated with a semicolon.

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• Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

  - by Matthew

  I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

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• Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

  - by Jon

  I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

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• What is the difference between cubes and the Unified Dimensional Model (if any)?

  - by ngm

  I'm currently researching SQL Server 2008 as a business intelligence solution, and currently looking at Analysis Services (and I'm pretty new to business intelligence as a whole...) I'm a bit confused by some of the terms in SSAS, particularly the conceptual differences between cubes and MS's Unified Dimensional Model. I believe that a cube in SSAS is basically an OLAP cube -- dimensions, measures, something that sits between the underlying data source and a business user. But then that's kind of what I understand UDM to be as well. The docs for SQL Server 2005 seem to suggest as much: "A cube is essentially synonymous with a Unified Dimensional Model (UDM)". But then the SQL Server 2008 pages sort of suggest that UDM is a wrapper for both multidimensional data (cubes) and relational data: "Use the Unified Dimensional Model to provide one consolidated business view for relational and multidimensional data that includes business entities, business logic, calculations, and metrics." This blog post suggests similarly: "UDM provides a single dimensional model for all OLAP analysis and relational reporting needs. So you can use either MDX or SQL" Is UDM something that sits above cubes? Or are they the same thing? I presume I would develop cubes with the Cube Designer application; what would I develop a UDM with?

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• C# Inheritence: Choosing what repository based on type of inherited class

  - by Oskar Kjellin

  I have been making a program that downloads information about movies from the internet. I have a base class Title, which represents all titles. Movie, Serie and Episode are inherited from that class. To save them to the database I have 2 services, MovieService and SerieService. They in turn call repositories, but that is not important here. I have a method Save(Title title) which I am not very happy with. I check for what type the title is and then call the correct service. I would like to perhaps write like this: ITitleService service = title.GetService(); title.GetSavedBy(service); So I have an abstract method on Title that returns an ITitleSaver, which will return the correct service for the instance. My question is how should I implement ITitleSaver? If I make it accept Title I will have to cast it to the correct type before calling the correct overload. Which will lead to having to deal with casting once again. What is the best approach to dealing with this? I would like to have the saving logic in the corresponding class.

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• Unit testing and mocking email sender in Python with Google AppEngine

  - by CVertex

  I'm a newbie to python and the app engine. I have this code that sends an email based on request params after some auth logic. in my Unit tests (i'm using GAEUnit), how do I confirm an email with specific contents were sent? - i.e. how do I mock the emailer with a fake emailer to verify send was called? class EmailHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def bad_input(self): self.response.set_status(400) self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>bad input </body></html>") def get(self): to_addr = self.request.get("to") subj = self.request.get("subject") msg = self.request.get("body") if not mail.is_email_valid(to_addr): # Return an error message... # self.bad_input() pass # authenticate here message = mail.EmailMessage() message.sender = "[email protected]" message.to = to_addr message.subject = subj message.body = msg message.send() self.response.headers['Content-Type'] = 'text/plain' self.response.out.write("<html><body>success!</body></html>") And the unit tests, import unittest from webtest import TestApp from google.appengine.ext import webapp from email import EmailHandler class SendingEmails(unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.application = webapp.WSGIApplication([('/', EmailHandler)], debug=True) def test_success(self): app = TestApp(self.application) response = app.get('http://localhost:8080/[email protected]&body=blah_blah_blah&subject=mySubject') self.assertEqual('200 OK', response.status) self.assertTrue('success' in response) # somehow, assert email was sent

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• Override ActiveRecord#save, Method Alias? Trying to mixin functionality into save method...

  - by viatropos

  Here's the situation: I have a User model, and two modules for authentication: Oauth and Openid. Both of them override ActiveRecord#save, and have a fair share of implementation logic. Given that I can tell when the user is trying to login via Oauth vs. Openid, but that both of them have overridden save, how do "finally" override save such that I can conditionally call one of the modules' implementations of it? Here is the base structure of what I'm describing: module UsesOauth def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with Oauth!" end def save_with_oauth save end end end end module UsesOpenid def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with OpenID!" end def save_with_openid save end end end end module Sequencer def save if using_oauth? save_with_oauth elsif using_openid? save_with_openid else super end end end class User < ActiveRecord::Base include UsesOauth include UsesOpenid include Sequencer end I was thinking about using alias_method like so, but that got too complicated, because I might have 1 or 2 more similar modules. I also tried using those save_with_oauth methods (shown above), which almost works. The only thing that's missing is that I also need to call ActiveRecord::Base#save (the super method), so something like this: def save_with_oauth # do this and that super.save # the rest end But I'm not allowed to do that in ruby. Any ideas for a clever solution to this?

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• Turing Machine & Modern Computer

  - by smwikipedia

  I heard a lot that modern computers are based on Turing machine. I'd like to share my understanding and hear your comments. I think the computer is a big general-purpose Turing machine. Each program we write is a small specific-purpose Turing machine. The classical Turing machine do its job based on the input and its current state inside and so do our programs. Let's take a running program (a process) as an example. We know that in the process's address space, there's areas for stack, heap, and code. A classical Turing machine doesn't have the ability to remember many things, so we borrow the concept of stack from the push-down automaton. The heap and stack areas contains the state of our specific-purpose Turing machine (our program). The code area represents the logic of this small Turing machine. And various I/O devices supply input to this Turing machine. The above is my naive understanding about the working paradigm of modern computer. I couln't wait to hear your comments. Thanks very much.

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• Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

  - by Chris

  Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

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• getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

  - by Nir

  I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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• Why is VB6 still so widely used?

  - by Uri

  Note that this question is not meant to start an argument, I am genuinely curious: Back in the 90s I used to work for a large CPU maker and we were building some debuggers. All our core logic was in C++, but the GUI was made in VB6. We couldn't figure out MFC and it was too much a hassle. We glued together VB6 and C++ using COM which we created via ATL. Fast forward to 2009, having been mostly in the Java world I am looking at job boards and seeing more VB6 jobs than I expected. I genuinely thought that VB6 was extinct, especially since VB.NET supposedly solved a lot of the problems with the VB6 which at the time felt a lot like a scripting language than a true OOP language. So what happened? Why is new code still written in it? Isn't there a better way to glue C++ and VB.NET? Note that I haven't used VB.NET, I just understand that it is a much more "stricter" language than VB6 was. Even with Option Explicit or whatever it was.

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• Calculate total batch upload transfer percent with limited information

  - by GONeale

  Hi there, I have a system which uploads to a server file by file and displays a progress bar on file upload progress, then underneath a second progress bar which I want to indicate percentage of batch complete across all files queued to upload. Information and algorithms I can work out are: Bytes Sent / Total Bytes To Send = First progress bar (eg. 512KB of 1024KB (50%)) That works fine. However supposing I have two other files left to upload, but both file sizes are unknown (as this is only known once the file is about to commence upload, at which point it is compressed and file size is determined) how would I go about making my third progress bar? I didn't think this would be possible as I would need "Total Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send", to replicate the logic of my first progress bar on a larger scale, however I did get a version working: "Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send" returning the percentage through the batch, however obviously will not incrementally update and it's pretty crude. So on further thinking I thought if I could incorporate the current file % with this algorithm I could perhaps get the correct progress percentage of my batch's current point. I tried this algorithm, but alas to no such avail (sorry to any math heads, it's probably quite apparent why it won't work) ("Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send") * ("Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send") For example I thought I was on the right track when testing with this example: 2/3 (2nd of 3rd file) = 66% (this is right so far) but then when I added * 0.20 (for indicating only 20% of 2nd file has uploaded) we went back to 13%. What I need is only a little over 33%! I did try the inverse at 0.80 and a (2/3 * (2/3 * 0.2)) Can this be done without knowing entire bytes in batch to upload? Please help! Thank you!

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• TCP: Address already in use exception - possible causes for client port? NO PORT EXHAUSTION

  - by TomTom

  Hello, stupid problem. I get those from a client connecting to a server. Sadly, the setup is complicated making debugging complex - and we run out of options. The environment: *Client/Server system, both running on the same machine. The client is actually a service doing some database manipulation at specific times. * The cnonection comes from C# going through OleDb to an EasySoft JDBC driver to a custom written JDBC server that then hosts logic in C++. Yeah, compelx - but the third party supplier decided to expose the extension mechanisms for their server through a JDBC interface. Not a lot can be done here ;) The Symptom: At (ir)regular intervals we get a "Address already in use: connect" told from the JDBC driver. They seem to come from one particular service we run. Now, I did read all the stuff about port exhaustion. This is why we have a little tool running now that counts ports and their states every minute. Last time this happened, we had an astonishing 370 ports in use, with the count rising to about 900 AFTER the error. We aleady patched the registry (it is a windows machine) to allow more than the 5000 client ports standard, but even then, we are far far from that limit to start with. Which is why I am asking here. Ayneone an ide what ELSE could cause this? It is a Windows 2003 Server machine, 64 bit. The only other thing I can see that may cause it (but this functionality is supposedly disabled) is Symantec Endpoint Protection that is installed on the server - and being capable of actinc as a firewall, it could possibly intercept network traffic. I dont want to open a can of worms by pointing to Symantec prematurely (if pointing to Symantec can ever be seen as such). So, anyone an idea what else may be the cause? Thanks

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• vb.net, How can I limit a textchanged event for a textbox to keyboard input only?

  - by Luay

  Hi everyone, Please allow me to explain what I have and what I am trying to achieve. I have a textbox (called txtb1) and a button under it (called btn_browse) on a winform in a vb.net project. When the user clicks the button a folder browser dialog appears. The user selects his desired folder and when he/she clicks 'ok' the dialog closes and the path of the folder selected appears in the textbox. I also want to store that value in a variable to be used somewhere else(the value will be copied to an xml file when the user clicks 'apply' on the form, but this has no effect nor is related to my problem). To achieve that I have the following code: Public myVar As String Private Sub btn_browse_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btn_browse.Click Dim f As New FolderBrowserDialog If f.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then txtb1.Text = f.SelectedPath End If myVar = txtb1.text f.Dispose() End Sub This part works with no problems. Now, what if the user either: 1- decides to enter the path manually rather than use the browse button. or, 2- after using the browse button and selecting the folder they decide to manually change the location In trying to solve this I added a textchanged event to the textbox as follows: Private Sub txtb1_TextChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles txtb1.TextChanged myVar = txtb1.Text End Sub However, this is not working. Apparently, and I don't know if this is relevant, when the user selects the desired folder using the browse button the textchanged event is also triggered. and when I click on the textbox (to give it focus) and press any keyboard key the application simply stops responding. So my questions are: am I going about this the right way? if my logic is flawed, could someone point me to how usually such a thing could be achieved? is it possible to limit the triggering events to only keyboard input as a way around this? I tried the keydown and keypress events but I am getting the freeze. I would be grateful for your help. Thanks

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• Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

  - by Hirvox

  I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

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• Correct Interactive Website System Design Concepts / Methods?

  - by Xandel

  Hi all, I hope this question isn't too open ended, but a nudge in the right direction is all I need! I am currently building an online accounting system - the idea is that users can register, log in, and then create customers, generate invoices and other documents and eventually print / email those documents out. I am a Java programmer but unfortunately haven't had too much experience in web projects and their design concepts... This is what I have got thus far - A Tomcat web server which loads Spring. Spring handles my DAO's and required classes for the business logic. Tomcat serves JSP's containing the pages which make up the website. To make it interactive I have used JavaScript in the pages (jQuery and its AJAX calls) to send and receive JSON data (this is done by posting to a page which calls a handleAction() method in one of my classes). My question is, am I tackling this project in the right way? Am I using the right tools and methods? I understand there are literally countless ways of tackling any project but I would really love to get feedback with regards to tried and tested methods, general practices etc. Thanks in advance! Xandel

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• NSOutlineView/NSTreeController - calculate sum of column

  - by matei

  I have a NSOutlineView bound to a NSTreeController. My data items are a custom class , let's call them "Row", and suppose a Row contains a "name" and a numeric field called "number" . All these "Rows" are found in let's say a "RowContainer" which has a "rows" mutable array holding the parent (level 0) rows. Each row also has a "children" NSMutableArray member which holds it's children. I have this working, and I want to display under the outlineview a textfield with the sum of all the "number" values of the rows. I bound this textfield to a "total" property of the "RowContainer". Now the problem is how or from where to trigger the recalculation of the "total" property, since this involves a recursive walk on the tree of rows, and I always get a "Collection was mutated while being enumerated" error. I've tried making a method "recalculateTotal", and calling it from the "setNumber" method of the "Row" class , but same error occurs. If I put the recalculation logic in the "total" getter, I can't trigger it to do the math. I'm sure the solution is simple but I can't see it

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