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  • R: Why does read.table stop reading a file?

    - by Mike Dewar
    I have a file, called genes.txt, which I'd like to become a data.frame. It's got a lot of lines, each line has three, tab delimited fields: mike$ wc -l genes.txt 42476 genes.txt I'd like to read this file into a data.frame in R. I use the command read.table, like this: genes = read.table( genes_file, sep="\t", na.strings="-", fill=TRUE, col.names=c("GeneSymbol","synonyms","description") ) Which seems to work fine, where genes_file points at genes.txt. However, the number of lines in my data.frame is significantly less than the number of lines in my text file: > nrow(genes) [1] 27896 and things I can find in the text file: mike$ grep "SELL" genes.txt SELL CD62L|LAM1|LECAM1|LEU8|LNHR|LSEL|LYAM1|PLNHR|TQ1 selectin L don't seem to be in the data.frame > grep("SELL",genes$GeneSymbol) integer(0) it turns out that genes = read.delim( genes_file, header=FALSE, na.strings="-", fill=TRUE, col.names=c("GeneSymbol","synonyms","description"), ) works just fine. Why does read.delim work when read.table not? If it's of use, you can recreate genes.txt using the following commands which you should run from a command line curl -O ftp://ftp.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/gene/DATA/gene_info.gz gzip -cd gene_info.gz | awk -Ft '$1==9606{print $3 "\t" $5 "\t" $9}' > genes.txt be warned, though, that gene_info.gz is 101MBish.

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  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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  • Oracle why does creating trigger fail when there is a field called timestamp?

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I've just wasted the past two hours of my life trying to create a table with an auto incrementing primary key bases on this tutorial, The tutorial is great the issue I've been encountering is that the Create Target fails if I have a column which is a timestamp and a table that is called timestamp in the same table... Why doesn't oracle flag this as being an issue when I create the table? Here is the Sequence of commands I enter: Creating the Table: CREATE TABLE myTable (id NUMBER PRIMARY KEY, field1 TIMESTAMP(6), timeStamp NUMBER, ); Creating the Sequence: CREATE SEQUENCE test_sequence START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; Creating the trigger: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER test_trigger BEFORE INSERT ON myTable REFERENCING NEW AS NEW FOR EACH ROW BEGIN SELECT test_sequence.nextval INTO :NEW.ID FROM dual; END; / Here is the error message I get: ORA-06552: PL/SQL: Compilation unit analysis terminated ORA-06553: PLS-320: the declaration of the type of this expression is incomplete or malformed Any combination that does not have the two lines with a the word "timestamp" in them works fine. I would have thought the syntax would be enough to differentiate between the keyword and a column name. As I've said I don't understand why the table is created fine but oracle falls over when I try to create the trigger... CLARIFICATION I know that the issue is that there is a column called timestamp which may or may not be a keyword. MY issue is why it barfed when I tried to create a trigger and not when I created the table, I would have at least expected a warning. That said having used Oracle for a few hours, it seems a lot less verbose in it's error reporting, Maybe just because I'm using the express version though. If this is a bug in Oracle how would one who doesn't have a support contract go about reporting it? I'm just playing around with the express version because I have to migrate some code from MySQL to Oracle.

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  • SSH traffic over openvpn freezes under weird circumstances

    - by user289581
    I have an openvpn (version 2.1_rc15 at both ends) connection setup between two gentoo boxes using shared keys. it works fine for the most part. I use mysql, http, ftp, scp over the vpn with no problems. But when I ssh from the client to the server over the vpn, weird things happen. I can login, i can execute some commands. But if i try to run an ncurses application like top, or i try to cat a file, the connection will stall and I'll have to sever the ssh session. I can, for example, execute "echo blah; echo .; echo blah" and it will output the three lines of text over the ssh session fine. But if i execute "cat /etc/motd" the session will freeze the moment I press enter. While it seems like a terminal emulation problem it makes no sense why using the vpn would affect the ability for ssh to render things correctly. I am at a loss to explain why everything else works, including scp, but ssh just breaks over the vpn. Any thoughts ?

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  • UIWebview does not show up into UINavigationController

    - by Pato
    Hi I have a tabBar application. In the first tab, I have a navigation bar. In this navigation bar I have a table view. When the user clicks a cell of the table, it goes to another table view, and when the user clicks a cell in that table, it goes to a webview to open a web page. Basically, it goes fine until opening the webview. In the webview, viewDidLoad is called and seems to work properly. However, webViewDidStartLoad is never called and the web page never shows up. I am not using IB. I build the UITabBarController in the AppDelegate, where I also assign an instance of my UINavigationController for each tab. I call the webview from the second UITableViewController as follows: rssWebViewController = [[webViews objectAtIndex: indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"controller"]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:rssWebViewController animated:YES]; I have checked that the navigationController is there and it seems just fine. The viewDidload of my webview is as follows: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *urlAddress = self.storyUrl; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [[self rssWebView] setDelegate: self]; [[self view] addSubview:[self rssWebView]]; [rssWebView loadRequest:requestObj]; self.rssWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; self.rssWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); } The web view controller interface is defined as follows: @interface RSSWebViewController : UIViewController <UIWebViewDelegate>{ IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; IBOutlet NSString *feedName; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *rssWebView; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *storyUrl; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSString *feedName; @end Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Shrinking the Transaction Log - Any way to automate?

    - by Albert
    I went in and checked my Transaction log the other day and it was something crazy like 15GB. I ran the following code: USE mydb GO BACKUP LOG mydb WITH TRUNCATE_ONLY GO DBCC SHRINKFILE(mydb_log,8) GO Which worked fine, shrank it down to 8MB...but the DB in question is a Log Shipping Publisher, and the log is already back up to some 500MB and growing quick. Is there any way to automate this log shrinking, outside of creating a custom "Execute T-SQL Statement Task" Maintenance Plan Task, and hooking it on to my log backup task? If that's the best way then fine...but I was just thinking that SQL Server would have a better way of dealing with this. I thought it was supposed to shrink automatically whenever you took a log backup, but that's not happening (perhaps because of my log shipping, I don't know). Here's my current backup plan: Full backups every night Transaction log backups once a day, late morning (maybe hook the Log shrinking onto this...doesn't need to be shrank every day though) Or maybe I just run it once a week, after I run a full backup task? What do you all think?

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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  • CSS styles are not applied to elements added to JavaFX component tree

    - by pazabo
    I have applied CSS style to JavaFX components and it looks like everything is working fine except one situation: when I add JavaFX components to component tree on-the-fly their CSS styles are not applied. For example following code: package test; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.util.Math; import javafx.scene.paint.Color; function getRect(): Rectangle { return Rectangle { x: 230 * Math.random() y: 60 * Math.random() width: 20, height: 20 styleClass: "abc" } } def stage: Stage = Stage { scene: Scene { width: 250, height: 80 stylesheets: "{__DIR__}main.css" content: [ Rectangle { x: 0, y: 0, width: 250, height: 80 fill: Color.WHITE onMouseClicked: function (evt: MouseEvent): Void { insert getRect() into stage.scene.content; } } getRect() ] } } with following stylesheet: .abc { fill: red; } in main.css file (both in test package) display red square on white background, but after clicking the main rectangle black (not red) squares are added to scene. I noticed that: Components added dynamically look just like style information was not applied. If you set their style in JavaFX code then everything works fine. After changing stylesheets property (so that it points to another valid stylesheet) the objects already added render properly. Does anyone know the solution to this problem? I could of course put all the properties into JavaFX code or provide another stylesheet (for every existing stylesheed) that would contain the same data and change stylesheet right after adding any component, but I would like to find some elegant solution. Thanks in advance.

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  • Where'd my sounds go?

    - by Dane Man
    In my Row class I have the initWithCoder method and everything restored in that method works fine, but only within the method. After the method is called I loose an array of sounds that is in my Row class. The sounds class also has the initWithCoder method, and the sound plays fine but only in the Row class initWithCoder method. After decoding the Row object, the sound array disappears completely and is unable to be called. Here's my source for the initWithCoder: - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)coder { ... soundArray = [coder decodeObjectForKey:@"soundArray"]; NSLog(@"%d",[soundArray count]); return self; } the log shows the count as 8 like it should (this is while unarchiving). Then the row object I create gets assigned. And the resulting row object no longer has a soundArray. [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:row toFile:@"DefaultRow"]; ... row = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"DefaultRow"]; So now whenever I call the soundArray it crashes. //ERROR IS HERE NSLog(@"%d",[[row soundArray] count]); Help please (soundArray is an NSMutableArray).

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  • Excel Automation Addin UDFs not accesible

    - by Eric
    I created the following automation addin: namespace AutomationAddin { [Guid("6652EC43-B48C-428a-A32A-5F2E89B9F305")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.AutoDual)] [ComVisible(true)] public class MyFunctions { public MyFunctions() { } #region UDFs public string ToUpperCase(string input) { return input.ToUpper(); } #endregion [ComRegisterFunctionAttribute] public static void RegisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.CreateSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable")); RegistryKey key = Registry.ClassesRoot.OpenSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "InprocServer32"), true); key.SetValue("", System.Environment.SystemDirectory + @"\mscoree.dll", RegistryValueKind.String); } [ComUnregisterFunctionAttribute] public static void UnregisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.DeleteSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable"), false); } private static string GetSubKeyName(Type type, string subKeyName) { System.Text.StringBuilder s = new System.Text.StringBuilder(); s.Append(@"CLSID\{"); s.Append(type.GUID.ToString().ToUpper()); s.Append(@"}\"); s.Append(subKeyName); return s.ToString(); } } } I build it and it registers just fine. I open excel 2003, go to tools-Add-ins, click on the automation button and the addin appears in the list. I add it and it shows up in the addins list. but, the functions themselves don't appear. If I type it in it doesn't work and if I look in the function wizard, my addin doesn't show up as a category and the functions are not in the list. I am using excel 2003 on windows 7 x86. I built the project with visual studio 2010. This addin worked fine on windows xp built with visual studio 2008.

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  • CrystalDecisions.Web reference version changes suddenly when run the webapp

    - by Somebody
    I'm breaking my head with this issue, I have a webapp that has a report using crystal report, in the development pc it works fine, but when copy the same project to another pc, when I load the project (VS 2003) the following msg appears: One or more projects in solution need to be updated to use Crystal Reports XI Release 2. If you choose "Yes", the update will be applied permanently... I choose "Yes" and after that I can see that CrystalDecisions.Web reference has the correct version, and location according to the develpment machine, in this case: 11.5.3300.0. But when run the webapp, I can see when the version and path suddenly changes to: 11.0.3300.0. And when trying to see the report the following error appears: Parser Error Message: The base class includes the field 'CrystalReportViewer1', but its type (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer) is not compatible with the type of control (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer). the asp.net has the following: <%@ Register TagPrefix="cr" Namespace="CrystalDecisions.Web" Assembly="CrystalDecisions.Web, Version=11.5.3300.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=692fbea5521e1304" %> How is this possible? what's happening here? EDIT This is what I did: the wrong version (11.0.3300.0) was located at: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Business Objects\3.0\managed and the right version (11.5.3300.0) is located at: C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Common\3.5\managed So I just deleted the files of the wrong solution, and I made it work in my new computer, no more errors when running the webapp, the report shows fine. But when try to do the same thing in production server, a different error came out, now an exception: This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: The type initializer for 'CrystalDecisions.CristalReports.Engine.ReportDocument' threw an exception. Any idea what could be causing this error now? Here is the code: Try Dim cr As New ReportDocument cr.Load(strpath) cr.SetDatabaseLogon("usring", "pwding") Select Case rt Case 1 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "RMA Ticket" Case 2 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "Service Ticket" End Select 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = tt cr.SetParameterValue("TicketNo", tn) 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportComments = comment CrystalReportViewer1.PrintMode = CrystalDecisions.Web.PrintMode.ActiveX CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = cr CrystalReportViewer1.ShowFirstPage() 'cr.Close() 'cr.Dispose() Catch ex As Exception MsgBox1.alert("This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: " & ex.Message) End Try

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  • PHP Single Sign On (SSO) generating new session id

    - by bigstylee
    I am trying to create a single sign on process. The method I have implemented makes use of storing session data in a database. When a new user comes to the website (www.example2.com) a table of authentication is checked. As this is their first visit to the website, there will be no match. The browser is redicted to the authentication server www.example1.com/authenticate.php?session_id=ABC123 where ABC123 represents the session id created on www.example2.com. THe session id which is then generated on www.example1.com is stored along side the session id using the parameter set in the URL. The user is then redirected back to the www.example2.com and a match of session ids should be found. This WAS working fine in FireFox but when I tried it in Chrome I noticed that the session id being generated when the browser is redirected back to www.example2.com is a new session id. As a result an infinite loop is created. This behaviour has not manifested itself in FireFox aswell. What is causing the new session id to be generated? More importantly, what can I do to stop it? Thanks in advance! EDIT I had a logically error that was causing an infinite loop. This now works fine again in FireFox but the infinite loop is still occuring in Chrome and Internet Explorer.

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  • User control always crashes Visual Studio

    - by NickAldwin
    I'm trying to open a user control in one of our projects. It was created, I believe, in VS 2003, and the project has been converted to VS2008. I can view the code fine, but when I try to load the designer view, VS stops responding and I have to close it with the task manager. I have tried leaving it running for several minutes, but it does not do anything. I ran "devenv /log" but didn't see anything unusual in the log. I can't find a specific error message anywhere. Any idea what the problem might be? Is there a lightweight editing mode I might be able to use or something? The reason I need to have a look at the visual representation of this control is to decide where to insert some new components. I've tried googling it and searching SO, but either I don't know what to search or there is nothing out there about this. Any help is appreciated. (The strangest thing is that the user control seems to load fine in another project which references, but VS crashes as soon as I even so much as click on it in that project.)

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  • error on connecting to the server : socket io is not defined

    - by max
    i know there's been couple of question about the same problem , i've already check them . i have very simple node.js chat app i have a server running on 8000 port and it works fine my client pages are html , they are running on apache and i'm using socket.io to connect them to the server and it works fine on the local host but when i upload the app on the server i keep on getting this error in the firebug io is not defined var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); or sometimes it doesn't show that but when i try to broadcast message from cliend i get this error : socket is undefined socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); the only difference is i've changed the localhost with atenak.com ! here is my html code var socket = io.connect('http://atenak.com:8000/'); var user = 'jack'; socket.on('newmsg', function (data) { if(data.user == user ) { $('#container').html(data.data); } }); function brodcast(){ var msg = $('#fild').val(); socket.emit('msg', { data: msg , user:'max' }); } </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> </div> <input id="fild" type="text"> <input name="" type="button" onClick="brodcast();"> </body> i have included the sockt.io.js and server is running ok which means socket.io is installed on the server here is the live page http://atenak.com/client.html

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  • Every subsequent call to an Axis webservice fails

    - by cudiaco
    I've been having a strange issue with an Axis webservice which is called through the https protocol. Basically, when an invocation is made, the call goes through just fine. If the call is made again, the web service fails, returning me with the following message: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <soapenv:Body> <soapenv:Fault> <faultcode>soapenv:Server.userException</faultcode> <faultstring>org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: Unexpected end of file after null</faultstring> <detail> <ns1:hostname xmlns:ns1="http://xml.apache.org/axis/">f0s0</ns1:hostname> </detail> </soapenv:Fault> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> When tested locally (through http), the service works perfectly fine. Has anyone encountered an issue like this before? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Rails routing problem

    - by Steve
    I am new to Rails routing and I currently have a problem and hope someone can explain it to me. I am using Rails 2.3.5 Firstly, let me describe my working-fine code: I have a text example, which has a controller (cars_controller) with an update action (along with some other actions). The update action needs the :id parameter. The edit.html.erb has a form: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' } % ... # rest of the form content. In the configuration/routes.rb, I have a self-defined routing rule for update: map.connect 'car/update/:id', :controller = 'cars', :action = 'update' This works fine. Secondly, I change the code. All I change is the self-defined routing rule to map.connect 'car/:action/:id, :controller = 'cars' To me, this rule covers the self-written routing rule. Of course, this rule is also used by other actions such as edit. But the edit.html.erb doesn't work. It complains that update action misses the :id parameter. I have to change the form_for helper to: <% form_for :car, :url = {:controller = 'cars', :action = 'update', :id = @car }% ... # @car is the instance passed to edit view. I know that if missing the :id parameter, update action will complain. What I don't understand is why my first code works (with my self-defined routing rule) but my second code fails. It seems to me that I didn't provide :id parameter in my self-defined routing rule. Anyone has an idea?

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  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

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  • jQuery crashing Internet Explorer

    - by Bradley Bell
    Hello. Okay basically, I'm designing and developing a fairly complicated website which revolves around the use of jQuery.. My knowlege of jQuery is really poor and this is the first time I've properly used it. I posted a question here before about the script and apparently its awful, but I didn't show you exactly what I was actually writing it for, which I can now.. Because I've uploaded it onto a test directory. It now works fine in every browser other than IE. The CSS styling is getting there and it should be close to finish soon! However, Internet Explorer is showing bad problems.. In IE 7,8 it looks fine but when you go to hover over a link, it immediately crashes. IE 6, the display doesn't seem to be working properly at all. But IE 6 is a lesser problem. If you could take just 5 or 10 minutes to potentially rewrite a simple script which would potentially take me 10 hours, I would be so so grateful! Heres the site - http://openyourheart.org.uk/test/index.html I can send all the files zipped if required. Thankyou in advance. Bradley

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  • RavenDB Ids and ASP.NET MVC3 Routes

    - by goober
    Hey all, Just building a quick, simple site with MVC 3 RC2 and RavenDB to test some things out. I've been able to make a bunch of projects, but I'm curious as to how Html.ActionLink() handles a raven DB ID. My example: I have a Document called "reasons" (a reason for something, just text mostly), which has reason text and a list of links. I can add, remove, and do everything else fine via my repository. Below is the part of my razor view that lists each reason in a bulleted list, with an Edit link as the first text: @foreach(var Reason in ViewBag.ReasonsList) { <li>@Html.ActionLink("Edit", "Reasons", "Edit", new { id = Reason.Id }, null) @Reason.ReasonText</li> <ul> @foreach (var reasonlink in Reason.ReasonLinks) { <li><a href="@reasonlink.URL">@reasonlink.URL</a></li> } </ul> } The Problem This works fine, except for the edit link. While the values and code here appear to work directly (i.e the link is firing directly), RavenDB saves my document's ID as "reasons/1". So, when the URL happens and it passes the ID, the resulting route is "http://localhost:4976/Reasons/Edit/reasons/2". So, the ID is appended correctly, but MVC is interpreting it as its own route. Any suggestions on how I might be able to get around this? Do I need to create a special route to handle it or is there something else I can do?

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  • OpenCV and iPhone

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • Undefined method `add' on a cucumber step that usually works.

    - by Josiah Kiehl
    I have a path defined: when /the admin home\s?page/ "/admin/" I have scenario that is passing: Scenario: Let admins see the admin homepage Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" And I am on the admin home page Then I should see "Hi there." And I have a scenario that is failing: Scenario: Review flagged photo Given "pojo" is logged in And "pojo" is an "admin" ...bunch of steps that create stuff in the database... And I am on the admin home page Then ... the rest of the steps The step that fails in the second one is "And I am on the admin home page" which passes just fine in the first scenario. Here's the error I get: And I am on the admin home page # features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:18 undefined method `add' for {}:Hash (NoMethodError) ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:13:in `index' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `each' ./app/controllers/admin_controller.rb:11:in `index' /usr/lib/ruby/1.8/benchmark.rb:308:in `realtime' ./features/step_definitions/web_steps.rb:19:in `/^(?:|I )am on (.+)$/' features/admin.feature:52:in `And I am on the admin home page' This is very odd... why would it be fine in the first case, and not in the second where the only difference are a bunch of steps that create records in the db? [edit] Here's the add stuff to database step: Given /^there is a "([^\"]*)" with the following:$/ do |model, table| model.constantize.create!(table.rows_hash) end

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  • call addsubview again causes slowdown

    - by Tom
    hi guys, i am writing a little music-game for the iphone. I am almost done, this is the only issue which keeps me from rolling it out. any help to solve this is much appreciated. this is what i do: at my appDelegate I add my menu-view-screen to the window. the menu-view-screen acts as a container and controls which view gets presented to the user. means, on the menu-view-screen I got 4 buttons (new game, options, faq, highscore). when the user clicks on a button something as this happens: if (self.gameViewController == nil) { GameViewController *viewController = [[GameViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"GameViewController" bundle:nil]; self.gameViewController = viewController; [viewController release]; } [self.view addSubview:self.gameViewController.view]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(handleSwitchViewNotificationFromGameView:) name:@"SwitchView" object:gameViewController]; when the user returns to the menu, this piece of code gets executed: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self]; [self.gameViewController viewWillDisappear:YES]; [self.gameViewController.view removeFromSuperview]; this works fine for all screens but not for the gamescreen(well this is the only one with heaps of user-interaction) means the responsiveness of the iphone(when playing tones) gets really slow. The performance is fine when I display the gameview for the first time. it starts getting slower as soon as I add it to the menu-views-container-subviews again (addsubview) (basically open up a new game) any ideas what causes(or to get around) this? thanks heaps Best regards Tom

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  • eclipse django using wrong settings.py in pythonpath

    - by user1290264
    I have pydev/django installed in eclipse, and it runs fine. However, after adding a second django project to eclipse and running the server ('http://127.0.0.1:8000') the pythonpath seems to be stuck on project2 even when I run project1. As a summary, I have two django projects: project1, project2. When I run the django server for project1 I get: Validating models... 0 errors found Django version 1.5, using settings 'project1.settings' Development server is running at 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/' Quit the server with CTRL-BREAK. The above seems to suggest that django is using the correct settings file; however, when I go to 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/' it displays the urls from project2. Also, if I go to 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/admin' the models are getting pulled from the sqlite.db file in project2 as well. I've even tried removing project2 from eclipse entirely and now at 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/admin' I get this error: Python Path: ['C:\Users\Brad\workspaces\In Progress\project2', 'C:\Users\Brad\workspaces\In Progress\project2', 'C:\Python27\DLLs', 'C:\Python27\lib', 'C:\Python27\lib\plat-win', 'C:\Python27\lib\lib-tk', 'C:\Python27', 'C:\Python27\lib\site-packages', 'C:\Windows\system32\python27.zip'] If I run the server on a different port with project1 the path seems to be fine: runserver 7000 --noreload Then 'http://127.0.0.1:7000/' uses project1's paths, but it doesn't seem like I should have to do this. Note: I have setup the run configurations as correctly as I know how. In the main tab, the project and main module both point to the correct project (project1), and the "PYTHONPATH that will be used in the run:" includes project1. Also, I have cleared my browser history, cookies, and everything that chrome would let me delete.

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  • Image Grabbing with False Referer

    - by Mr Carl
    Hey guys, I'm struggling with grabbing an image at the moment... sounds silly, but check out this link :P http://manga.justcarl.co.uk/A/Oishii_Kankei/31/1 If you get the image URL, the image loads. Go back, it looks like it's working fine, but that's just the browser loading up the cached image. The application was working fine before, I'm thinking they implemented some kind of Referer check on their images. So I found some code and came up with the following... $ref = 'http://www.thesite.com/'; $file = 'theimage.jpg'; $hdrs = array( 'http' = array( 'method' = "GET", 'header'= "accept-language: en\r\n" . "Accept:application/xml,application/xhtml+xml,text/html;q=0.9,text/plain;q=0.8,image/png,*\/*;q=0.5\r\n" . "Referer: $ref\r\n" . // Setting the http-referer "Content-Type: image/jpeg\r\n" ) ); // get the requested page from the server // with our header as a request-header $context = stream_context_create($hdrs); $fp = fopen($imgChapterPath.$file, 'rb', false, $context); fpassthru($fp); fclose($fp); Essentially it's making up a false referrer. All I'm getting back though is a bunch of gibberish (thanks to fpassthru) so I think it's getting the image, but I'm afraid to say I have no idea how to output/display the collected image. Cheers, Carl

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