Search Results

Search found 556 results on 23 pages for 'newton falls'.

Page 16/23 | < Previous Page | 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23  | Next Page >

  • Linux RHEL : Making disk image efficiently

    - by TheProfoundGeek
    I have a linux box having RHEL. Its disk (hda1) is having free space of about 25GB. I have an another disk (hda2) which is of 250GB having another RHEL instance, it's partitioned for 200GB. Data on the disk occupies about 21GB of data. The image of hda2 needs to be taken and restored on other disk of same specs. What is the best way to make image file of the hda2? Ideally the images size should be around 25GBs as the actual data on the disk is just 21GB. I am aware about the following two methods. Method 1 : Raw Image dd if=/dev/hda2 of=/path/to/image dd if=/path/to/image of=/dev/hda3 Question 1 : Will the above method make a gigantic image of 250GBs? Is it efficient? Method 2 : Compressed Image. dd if=/dev/hda2 | gzip > /path/to/image.gz gzip -dc /path/to/image.gz | dd of=/dev/hda2 Question 2 : I tried the method 2, its taking too long. What are the pit falls of this methods? Which of the above method id efficient and why? Is there any other Linux utility which can do the job? Third party tools are no no.

    Read the article

  • Exception "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction" using TransactionScope

    - by Lanfear
    We have a web service on server #1 and a database on server #2. Web service uses transaction scope to produce distributed transaction. Everything is correct. And we have another database on server #3. We had some problems with this server and we reinstalled operation system and software. We configured MSDTC and tried to use web service from server #1 to communicate with database on this server. And now after first select statement within transaction scope we get: "The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction". This exception falls in every web service request if it is using transaction scope. Server #2 and Server #3 is almost similar. The difference can be only in settings. .NET framework 3.5 SP1 installed and SQL Server SP3 on all servers. Full stacktrace: System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) ? System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction t ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) ? System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) ? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() ? NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider.GetConnection() ? NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.OpenConnection() I searched this message but didn't found any appropriate solution. So what settings should I check and what exactly should I do to fix it?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 Code First and the new() Operator

    - by Eric J.
    I have a rather deep hierarchy of objects that I'm trying to persist with Entity Framework 4, POCO, PI (Persistence Ignorance) and Code First. Suddenly things started working pretty well when it dawned on me to not use the new() operator. As originally written, the objects frequently use new() to create child objects. Instead I'm using my take on the Repository Pattern to create all child objects as needed. For example, given: class Adam { List<Child> children; void AddChildGivenInput(string input) { children.Add(new Child(...)); } } class Child { List<GrandChild> grandchildren; void AddGrandChildGivenInput(string input) { grandchildren.Add(new GrandChild(...)); } } class GrandChild { } ("GivenInput" implies some processing not shown here) I define an AdamRepository like: class AdamRepository { Adam Add() { return objectContext.Create<Adam>(); } Child AddChildGivenInput(Adam adam, string input) { return adam.children.Add(new Child(...)); } GrandChild AddGrandchildGivenInput(Child child, string input) { return child.grandchildren.Add(new GrandChild(...)); } } Now, this works well enough. However, I'm no longer "ignorant" of my persistence mechanism as I have abandoned the new() operator. Additionally, I'm at risk of an anemic domain model since so much logic ends up in the repository rather than in the domain objects. After much adieu, a question: Or rather several questions... Is this pattern required to work with EF 4 Code First? Is there a way to retain use of new() and still work with EF 4 / POCO / Code First? Is there another pattern that would leave logic in the domain object and still work with EF 4 / POCO / Code First? Will this restriction be lifted in later versions of Code First support? Sometimes trying to go the POCO / Persistence Ignorance route feels like swimming upstream, other times it feels like swimming up Niagra Falls.

    Read the article

  • UISearchBar and UINavigationItem

    - by tbehunin
    I can't seem to get a UISearchBar to position itself from the far left to the far right in the navigation bar. In the -(void)viewDidLoad method, I have the following code: `UISearchBar *sb = [[UISearchBar alloc] initWithFrame:self.tableView.tableHeaderView.frame]; sb.delegate = self; self.navigationItem.titleView = sb; [sb sizeToFit]; [sb release];` When you build and run, it looks just fine at first glance. However, looking more closely, you can tell there is a margin/space on the left. This wouldn't be a big deal in the grand scheme of things, but when I tap the search bar to start a search, I animate the cancel button into view. Because the search bar is positioned slightly to the right, the animation is jerky and the cancel button falls off the end like so: link text It seems as if the UINavigationItem is like a table with three cells, where there is a padding on the first and last which I can't remove - nor does there seem to be a way to 'merge' it all together and then place the search bar there. I know this look is possible, because the AppStore search has a search bar in the navigation bar and it goes all the way to the edges. Anyone know how to get the search bar to go all the way to the edges so my slide-in cancel button animation will work properly?

    Read the article

  • Silverlight 4. Activator.CreateInstance uses a huge amount of memory

    - by Marco
    Hi, I have been playing a bit with Silverlight and try to port my Silverlight 3.0 application to Silverlight 4.0. My application loads different XAP files and upon a user request create an instance of a Xaml user control and adds it to the main container, in a sort of MEF approach in order I can have an extensible and pluggable application. The application is pretty huge and to keep acceptable the performances and the initial loading I have built up some helper classes to load in the background all pages and user controls that might be used later on. On Silverlight 3.0 everything was running smoothly without any problem so far. Switching to SL 4.0 I have noticed that when the process approaches to create the instances of the user controls using Activator.CreateInstance, the layout freezes unexpectedly for a minute and sometimes for more. Looking at the task manager the memory usage of IE jumps from 50MB to 400MB and sometimes to 1.5 GB. If the process won't take that much the layout is rendered properly and the memory falls back to 50 MB. Otherwise everything crashes due to out of memory exeption. Does anybody encountered the same problem? Or has anybody a solution about this tricky issue? Thans in advance Marco

    Read the article

  • Code Golf: 1x1 black pixel

    - by Joey Adams
    Recently, I used my favorite image editor to make a 1x1 black pixel (which can come in handy when you want to draw solid boxes in HTML cheaply). Even though I made it a monochrome PNG, it came out to be 120 bytes! I mean, that's kind of steep. 120 bytes. For one pixel. I then converted it to a GIF, which dropped the size down to 43 bytes. Much better, but still... Challenge The shortest image file or program that is or generates a 1x1 black pixel. A submission may be: An image file that represents a 1x1 black pixel. The format chosen must be able to represent larger images than 1x1, and cannot be ad-hoc (that is, it can't be an image format you just made up for code golf). Image files will be ranked by byte count. A program that generates such an image file. Programs will be ranked by character count, as usual in code golf. As long as an answer falls into one of these two categories, anything is fair game.

    Read the article

  • Tricky CSS Layout

    - by Meep3D
    So I am making a website with quite a problematic layout. There are four corner images TL, TR, BL and BR indicated by black blocks. The dark orange area is the main content (to a width of 960px), with the outside area denoted by the green arrow as the browser window. See diagram: The top image represents the site at its narrowest possible - it shouldn't be allowed to be narrower than this (960px) if it is larger than the defined area there should be no scrollbars. The bottom two images represent different widths of browser. The bottom left and right black blocks (images) should be at the bottom left and right of the screen at all times, unless the width falls to 960px, in which case the BL and BR images should poke into the main area slightly. If the site is shrunk to, say 200px, the BR image should not still be poking in the right corner. At this point I don't really care about it working exactly in IE6 (I can get it roughly working) but I can't even figure out how to do it fully without Javascript or extremely experimental CSS. Currently I am using absolutely positioned div's which sort of work, but don't work quite right. I think I'd be willing to accept a bit of JS if there is no other way but I'd rather not. Answer very appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Preserving Language across inline Calculated Members in SSAS

    - by Tullo
    Problem: I need to retrieve the language of a given cell from the cube. The cell is defined by code-generated MDX, which can have an arbitrary level of indirection as far as calculated members and sets go (defined in the WITH clause). SSAS appears to ignore the Language of the specified members when you declare a calculated member inline in the query. Example: The cube's default locale is 1033 (en-US) The cube contains a Calculated Measure called [Net Pounds] which is defined as [Net Amt], language=2057 (en-GB) The query requests this measure alongside an inline calculated measure which is simply an alias to the [Net Pounds] When used directly, the measure is formatted in the en-GB locale, but when aliased, the measure falls back to using the cube default of en-US. Here's what the query looks like: WITH MEMBER [Measures].[Pounds Indirect] AS [Measures].[Net Pounds] SELECT { [Measures].[Pounds Indirect], [Measures].[Net Pounds] } ON AXIS (0) FROM [Cube] CELL PROPERTIES language, value, formatted_value The query returns the expected two cells, but only uses the [Net Pounds] locale when used directly. Is there an option or switch somewhere in SSAS that will allow locale information to be visible in calculated members? I realise that it is possible to declare the inline calculated member in a particular locale, but this would involve extracting the locale from the tuple first, which (since the cube's member is isolated in the application's query schema) is unknown.

    Read the article

  • What is private bytes, virtual bytes, working set?

    - by Devil Jin
    I am using perfmon windows utility to debug memory leak in a process. Perfmon explaination: Working Set- Working Set is the current size, in bytes, of the Working Set of this process. The Working Set is the set of memory pages touched recently by the threads in the process. If free memory in the computer is above a threshold, pages are left in the Working Set of a process even if they are not in use. When free memory falls below a threshold, pages are trimmed from Working Sets. If they are needed they will then be soft-faulted back into the Working Set before leaving main memory. Virtual Bytes- Virtual Bytes is the current size, in bytes, of the virtual address space the process is using. Use of virtual address space does not necessarily imply corresponding use of either disk or main memory pages. Virtual space is finite, and the process can limit its ability to load libraries. Private Bytes- Private Bytes is the current size, in bytes, of memory that this process has allocated that cannot be shared with other processes. Q1. Is it the private byte should I measure to be sure if the process is having any leak as it does not involve any shared libraries and any leak if happening will be coming from the process itself? Q2. What is the total memory consumed by the process? Is it the Virtual byte size? or Is it the sum of Virtual Bytes and Working Set Q3. Is there any relation between private bytes, working set and virtual bytes. Q4. Any tool which gives a better idea memory information?

    Read the article

  • EF4 Generate Database

    - by shaneseaton
    Hi, I am trying my hardest to find the simplest way to create a basic "model first" entity framework example. However I am struggling with the actually generation of the database, particularly the running of the SQL against the database. Tools Visual Studio 2010 SQL Server 2008 Express Process Create a new class project Add a new Server-Database item (mdf) named "Database1.mdf" to the project Add an empty ADO.net Entity Model Create a simple entity (Person: Id, Name) Generate the Script selecting the Database1 connection created for me by visual studio Right click the script editor and select the "Execute SQL..." option Log in to SQLEXPRESS This is where is falls over saying it cant find a database name "Database1". The "problem" is that the SQL server has not had Database1 attached to it. I am 100% positive that Visual Studio use to attach a database to SQLExpress when it created a new database (Step 2). This appears to not be the case any more (even the beta of VS2010 did it). Can someone confirm this? or tell me how to get this to happen? Is there a way that I can modify the TSQL script to use an un-attached database. ie a file. I know I can use SQL Management Studio or sqlcmd to attach the database, but I would ideally like to avoid the solutions as I would like to see the cleanest method of just using visual studio. Ideal Solutions (in order of most prefered) Get visual studio to attach the newly created database Modify the generated SQL to point to file Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'

    - by Sk93
    Hi, I'm getting the following error whenever my code creates a DataTableReader from a valid DataTable Object: "DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'." The thing is, if I reboot my machine, it works fine for an undertimed amount of time, then dies with the above. The code that throws this error could have been working fine for hours and then: bang. you get this error. It's not limited to one line either; it's every single location that a DataTableReader is used. Also, this error does NOT occur on the production web server - ever. This is an example of one of the lines where it falls over: If I step over this line, I get this: However, if I do this in the immediate window: I get no problems. Same goes if I actually use that line in the code. This has been driving me nuts for the best part of a week, and I've failed to find anything on Google that could help (as I'm pretty positive this isn't a coding issue). Some technical info: DEV Box: Vista 32bit (with all current windows updates) Visual Studio 2008 v9.0.30729.1 SP dotNet Framework 3.5 SP1 SQL Server: Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition- 9.00.4035.00 (X64) Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) Web Server: Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) any help, ideas, or advice would be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Ian

    Read the article

  • Getting value from href using jQuery

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, I wonder if anyone can help with a jQuery problem I am having. I am using the tooltips from the Jquery Tools library to create a popup window when mousing over an hrefed image, this I want to use to cusomise the call to change the content in the DIV. The links I am using are in the form: <a href="/venue/1313.htm" class="quickView"><img src="/images/site/quickView83.png" alt="Quick View" width="83" height="20" /></a> The code I am using to trigger the tip is: $(".quickView").live('mouseover', function() { if (!$(this).data('init')) { $(this).data('init', true); ajax_quickView(); $(this).tooltip ({ /* tooltip configuration goes here */ tip: "#quickViewWindow", position: "right", offset: [0, -300], effect: 'slide' }); $(this).trigger('mouseover'); } }); I have tried the following function to grab the ID (in the example above, 1313) from the link: function ajax_quickView(){ var pageNum = $("a.quickView").attr("href").match(/venue/([0-9]+)/).htm[1]; $("#quickViewWindow").load("/quick-view/", function(){}) } However I think this is where it falls down, I think my regex is prob to blame... Once I get the var pageNum I presume I can just pass it into the .load as: $("#quickViewWindow").load("/quick-view/", {id : pageNum }, function(){}) Many thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript WebGL error

    - by Chris
    Hi I can load 400 textured cylinders using o3d webl, as soon as I push the test upto 600 cylinders I get the following.. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Could not convert JavaScript argument arg 0 [nsIDOMWebGLRenderingContext.getShaderInfoLog" nsresult: "0x80570009 (NS_ERROR_XPC_BAD_CONVERT-JS)" location: "JS frame :: file:///d:/o3d-webgl/effect.js :: :: line 181" data: no) This is the error from minefield, does anyone know what this means? This is the function: o3d.Effect.prototype.bindAttributesAndLinkIfReady = function() { if (this.vertexShaderLoaded_ && this.fragmentShaderLoaded_) { var semanticMap = o3d.Effect.semanticMap_; for (var name in semanticMap) { this.gl.bindAttribLocation( this.program_, semanticMap[name].gl_index, name); } this.gl.linkProgram(this.program_); if (!this.gl.getProgramParameter(this.program_, this.gl.LINK_STATUS)) { var log = this.gl.getShaderInfoLog(this.program_); this.gl.client.error_callback( 'Program link failed with error log:\n' + log); } this.getUniforms_(); this.getAttributes_(); } }; It falls over on ... var log = this.gl.getShaderInfoLog(this.program_);

    Read the article

  • How can I work around "Xcode could not locate source file"

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the ID3 framework in Xcode (which has since disappeared off the face of the web - including google cache!). I'm testing out an import mp3 feature which allows them to edit the tags as they import them. One of the test cases is a corrupt or invalid mp3 with no proper id3 header. The problem I'm having is that when updating the tags of the invalid mp3 (updateFile:), the ID3 framework attempts to use id3V1Tag.m (I assume it falls back to this if it can't find the v2 tag) and this is where I get the Xcode error (whilst running the program, not building): Xcode could not locate source file: id3V1Tag.m (line: 299) Even in a release build this crashes the program, so it's not something I can really ignore. I've tried putting a try/catch block around it but it's not treated as an exception so doesn't get caught. The function to load the tag data for the file returns a BOOL but it appears this only returns false if the given file doesn't exist, so this doesn't help either. Current code: [tagData release]; tagData = [[TagAPI alloc] initWithGenreList:nil]; tagsLoaded = [tagData examineFile:exportPath]; if(tagsLoaded) { [tagData setTitle:title]; [tagData setArtist:artist]; [tagData setComments:comments]; @try { [tagData updateFile]; } @catch (id e){ NSLog(@"h"); } }

    Read the article

  • Weak event handler model for use with lambdas

    - by Benjol
    OK, so this is more of an answer than a question, but after asking this question, and pulling together the various bits from Dustin Campbell, Egor, and also one last tip from the 'IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework', I think I've worked out a workable solution for this particular problem. It may be completely superseded by IObservable/Rx/Reactive framework, but only experience will show that. I've deliberately created a new question, to give me space to explain how I got to this solution, as it may not be immediately obvious. There are many related questions, most telling you you can't use inline lambdas if you want to be able to detach them later: Weak events in .Net? Unhooking events with lambdas in C# Can using lambdas as event handlers cause a memory leak? How to unsubscribe from an event which uses a lambda expression? Unsubscribe anonymous method in C# And it is true that if YOU want to be able to detach them later, you need to keep a reference to your lambda. However, if you just want the event handler to detach itself when your subscriber falls out of scope, this answer is for you.

    Read the article

  • Daylight Savings Handling in DateDiff() in MS Access?

    - by PowerUser
    I am fully aware of DateDiff()'s inability to handle daylight savings issues. Since I often use it to compare the number of hours or days between 2 datetimes several months apart, I need to write up a solution to handle DST. This is what I came up with, a function that first subtracts 60 minutes from a datetime value if it falls within the date ranges specified in a local table (LU_DST). Thus, the usage would be: datediff("n",Conv_DST_to_Local([date1]),Conv_DST_to_Local([date2])) My question is: Is there a better way to handle this? I'm going to make a wild guess that I'm not the first person with this question. This seems like the kind of thing that should have been added to one of the core reference libraries. Is there a way for me to access my system clock to ask it if DST was in effect at a certain date & time? Function Conv_DST_to_Local(X As Date) As Date Dim rst As DAO.Recordset Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("LU_DST") Conv_DST_to_Local = X While rst.EOF = False If X > rst.Fields(0) And X < rst.Fields(1) Then Conv_DST_to_Local = DateAdd("n", -60, X) rst.MoveNext Wend End Function Notes I have visited and imported the BAS file of http://www.cpearson.com/excel/TimeZoneAndDaylightTime.aspx. I spent at least an hour by now reading through it and, while it may do its job well, I can't figure out how to modify it to my needs. But if you have an answer using his data structures, I'll take a look. Timezones are not an issue since this is all local time.

    Read the article

  • Custom Repeater with hiractial Databinding

    - by Dooie
    Im using a Custom NestedRepeater Control for ASP.NET which can be found on code project The source is in c# which i have converted to vb and plugged into my solution, so far so good. The problem, im having is databinding to the repeater, my code behind looks like this... '' get all pages Dim navPages As DataSet = Navigation.getMenuStructure() navPages.Relations.Add(navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ID"), navPages.Tables(0).Columns("ParentID")) NestedRepeaterNavigation.RelationName = RelationName NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataSource = navPages NestedRepeaterNavigation.RowFilterTop = "ParentID is null" NestedRepeaterNavigation.DataBind() Then in the item template of my custom repeater im trying the following... <ItemTemplate> <img src="/pix.gif" height="10" width="<%#(Container.Depth * 10)%>"> <%# (Container.DataItem as DataRow)["DESCRIPTION"]%> <%# (Container.NbChildren != 0 ? "<small><i>(" + Container.NbChildren.ToString() +")</i></small>" "") %><small><i></i></small> </ItemTemplate> The databinding falls over; firstly that 'as DataRow' says it was expecting an ')'. And secondly that '!=' identifier expected. Is this due to the translation from c#, should the databinding be different?

    Read the article

  • If I wanted to make a Pac-Man Game?

    - by SoulBeaver
    I am immediately placing this as a community wiki thing. I don't want to ask for help in programming yet or have even a specific question about programming, but rather the process and the resources needed to make such a game. To put it simply: My college friend and I decided to give ourselves a really big challenge to further our skills in programming. In six months time we want to show ourselves a Pac-Man game. Pac-Man will be AI-controlled like the Ghosts and whichever Pac-Man lives the longest after a set of tries wins. This isn't like anything we've done so far. The goal here, for me, isn't to create a perfect game, but to try and complete it, learn a whole bunch in the process. Even if I don't finish in the time, which is a good possibility, I would want to have at least tried this. So my question is this: How should I start preparing myself? I already have started vector math, matrices, all that fun stuff. My desired platform would be DirectX 9.0c; is that advisable? Keep in mind that this is not a preference just for this project, but I wish to have some kind of future in graphics develepment, so I want to pick a platform that is future-safe. As for the game development in general, what should I take into consideration? I have never done a real game before, so any and all advise to development of mid-scale projects( if this would be a mid-scale project ) is greatly appreciated. My main concerns are the pit-falls and demotivators. Sorry if the question is so vague. If it doesn't belong here, then I will remove it. Otherwise, any and all advise regarding making larger projects is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • style problem with jQueryUI Autocomplete widget (using remote datasource)

    - by blee
    <input class="ui-autocomplete-input"/> represents the text field to be autocompleted. <ul>...</ul> contains the list of matching items from the text field input. It is added to the document by remote call as you type. <ul>...</ul> is added just inside the closing </body> tag. I was expecting the <ul>...</ul> to be placed just after the <input class="ui-autocomplete-input"/>. Because this does not happen, the <ul>...</ul> falls outside of the containing div and the resulting style is broken. Suggestions? Can I specify where the <ul>...</ul> gets placed in the document? Thanks in advance for your time.

    Read the article

  • CAScrollLayer doesn't scroll!

    - by Cliff
    Maybe it's because it's late. Whatever the reason I can't figure out why I'm having trouble with a simple CSScrollLayer example I'm trying. I add a 50 pixel Eclipse icon to a view based project and in my initialize method (called from initWithNibName:bundle:) I have this: -(void) initialize { CAScrollLayer *scrollLayer = [CAScrollLayer layer]; scrollLayer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; CGRect bounds = self.view.bounds; scrollLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width, bounds.size.height); scrollLayer.contentsRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, bounds.size.width + 800, bounds.size.height + 800); scrollLayer.borderWidth = 2.5; scrollLayer.borderColor = [[UIColor redColor] CGColor]; scrollLayer.position = CGPointMake(self.view.center.x, self.view.center.y - 20); scrollLayer.scrollMode = kCAScrollBoth; [self.view.layer addSublayer:scrollLayer]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"eclipse32.gif"]; for(int i=0; i<6; i++) { layer = [CALayer layer]; layer.backgroundColor = [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]; layer.bounds = CGRectMake(0, 0, 100, 100); layer.contents = (id)[image CGImage]; layer.position = CGPointMake(layer.bounds.size.width * i, self.view.center.y); [scrollLayer addSublayer:layer]; } // [button removeFromSuperview]; // [self.view addSubview:button]; // self.view.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [image release]; } The scroll layer shows, the icon is repeated on the layer I have a border around the edge of the screen. Everything is lovely except I can't scroll the icons. I've tried with/without setting scroll mode. I've tried with a single stretched icon that falls off screen. I've tried everything. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Keeping track of leading zeros with BitSet in Java

    - by Ryan
    So, according to this question there are two ways to look at the size of a BitSet. size(), which is legacy and not really useful. I agree with this. The size is 64 after doing: BitSet b = new BitSet(8); length(), which returns the index of the highest set bit. In the above example, length() will return 0. This is somewhat useful, but doesn't accurately reflect the number of bits the BitSet is supposed to be representing in the event you have leading zeros. The information I'm dealing with rarely(if ever) falls evenly into 8-bit bytes, and the leading 0s are just as important to me as the 1s. I have some data fields that are 333 bits long, some that are 20, etc. Is there a better way to deal with bit-level details in Java that will keep track of leading zeros? Otherwise, I'm going to have to 'roll my own', so to speak. To which I have a few ideas already, but I'd prefer not to reinvent the wheel if possible.

    Read the article

  • problem parsing with XMLReader (using ReadSubTree)

    - by no9
    Hello. Im trying to build a simple XML to Controls parser in my CF application. In the code below the string im trying to parse looks like this: "<Panel><Label>Text1</Label><Label>Text2</Label></Panel>" The result i want with this code would be a Panel with two labels. But the problem is when the first Label is parsed the subreader.Read() returns false in the ParsePanelElementh method, and so it falls out of while statement. Since im new into XMLReader i must be missing something very simple. Any help would be apreciated ! peace. static class XMLParser { public static Control Parse(string aXmlString) { XmlReader reader = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(aXmlString)); return ParseXML(reader); } public static Control ParseXML(XmlReader reader) { using (reader) { while (reader.Read()) { if (reader.NodeType == XmlNodeType.Element) { if (reader.LocalName == "Panel") { return ParsePanelElement(reader); } if (reader.LocalName == "Label") { return ParseLabelElement(reader); } } } } return null; } private static Control ParsePanelElement(XmlReader reader) { var myPanel = new Panel(); XmlReader subReader = reader.ReadSubtree(); while (subReader.Read()) { Control subControl = ParseXML(subReader); if (subControl != null) { myPanel.Controls.Add(subControl); }; } return myPanel; } private static Control ParseLabelElement(XmlReader reader) { reader.Read(); var myString = reader.Value as string; var myLabel = new Label(); myLabel.Text = myString; return myLabel; } }

    Read the article

  • How can I set drawable to a ListView in android

    - by sxingfeng
    I am writing a app for android 1.5. I want to use a complex listview to display my data. I want to show a ImageView of a drawable object in my List item. I learned from a demo: ------> listData.put("Img", listData.put("Img", R.drawable.XXX)); listData.put("Time", "100"); listItems.add(listData); It can display correctly, however, I want to change Img at runtime, The image maybe generated at run-time, so I change the code as follow, but it falls. Can anyone help me ? many thanks! protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.item_list); itemListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.listview); ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> listItems = new ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>>(); for(int i = 0;i <XXX.size(); ++i) { HashMap<String, Object> listData = new HashMap<String, Object>(); ---------> 1) listData.put("Img", new Drawable(XXX)); 2) listData.put("Time", "100"); 3) listItems.add(listData); } SimpleAdapter listItemAdapter = new SimpleAdapter(this, listItems, R.layout.listitem, new String[] { "Img", "Time"}, new int[] { R.id.listitem_img, R.id.listitem_time }); itemListView.setAdapter(listItemAdapter); listitem.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout android:layout_width="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:paddingBottom="4dip" android:paddingLeft="12dip" android:paddingRight="12dip"> <ImageView android:paddingTop="12dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_img" /> <TextView android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textSize="20dip" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/listitem_time" /> </LinearLayout>

    Read the article

  • Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

    - by Richard
    Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

    Read the article

  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23  | Next Page >