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  • How do I get netcat to accept connections from outside the LAN?

    - by Chris
    I'm using netcat as a backend to shovel data back and forth for a program I'm making. I tested my program on the local network, and once it worked I thought it would be a matter of simply forwarding a port from my router to have my program work over the internet. Alas! This seems not to be the case. If I start netcat listening on port 6666 with: nc -vv -l -p 6666, then go to 127.0.0.1:6666 in a browser, as expected I see a HTTP GET request come through netcat (and my browser sits waiting in vain). If I go to my.external.ip.address:6666, however, nothing comes through at all and the browser displays 'could not connect to my.external.ip.address:6666'. I know that the port is correctly forwarded, as www.canyouseeme.org says port 6666 is open (and when netcat is not listening, that its closed). If I run netcat with -g my.adslmodem's.local.address to set the gateway address, I get the same behavior. Am I using this command line option correctly? Any insight as to what I'm doing wrong?

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  • auth component issue

    - by madphp
    Im trying to get my admin routing working with the auth component. I want the following routing to work. Router::connect('/admin', array('controller' => 'pages', 'action' => 'index', 'admin' => true)); but when i type in /admin it redirects to /admin/users/login and display this error. Create UsersController::admin_login() in file: cms.local/controllers/users_controller.php here is my app_controller code. class AppController extends Controller { var $components = array('DebugKit.Toolbar','Auth','Session'); function beforeFilter(){ //Set up Auth Component $this->Auth->loginAction = array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'login'); $this->Auth->loginRedirect = array('controller' => 'pages', 'action' => 'admin_index'); $this->Auth->allow('display'); } } users_controller <?php class UsersController extends AppController { var $name = 'Users'; function login(){ } function admin_logout(){ $this->Session->destroy(); $this->redirect($this->Auth->logout()); } } ?> If you require more information let me know. Thanks

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  • PHP APC and Pecl upload progress returning false/null.

    - by Keyo
    This is a long shot. I believe this might be suhosin patch issue. Here is my php from codeigniter: public function uploadprogress($id) { if ($id) { header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); echo json_encode(apc_fetch('upload_'.$id)); exit(); } } public function uploader() { $this->load->view('myid/' . $this->router->class . '_uploader'); //phpinfo(); } script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var progress_key = $('#progress_key').val(); // this sets up the progress bar $('#uploadform').submit(function() { setTimeout(beginUpload,1500); return; }); function beginUpload() { $("#progressbar").progressbar({ value:0}).fadeIn(); var i = setInterval(function() { $.getJSON("/myid/videos/uploadprogress/" + progress_key, function(data) { alert('data'); if (data == null) { clearInterval(i); location.reload(true); return; } var response; eval ("response = " + data); if (!response) return; var percentage = Math.floor(100 * parseInt(response['bytes_uploaded']) / parseInt(response['bytes_total'])); $("#progressbar").progressbar({value:percentage}); }, 1500); }); } }); </script> Has anyone had strange troubles with this before? The upload key is the same on the view and the uploadprogress method. I've Tried apc and pecl upload-progress both return false or null. I wondering if it's just suhosin patch messing up everything?

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  • cakephp secure link using html helper link method..

    - by Aaron
    What's the best way in cakephp to extend the html-link function so that I can tell it to output a secure(https) link? Right now, I've added my own secure_link function to app_helpers that's basically a copy of the link function but adding a https to the beginning. But it seems like there should be a better way of overriding the html-link method so that I can specify a secure option. http://groups.google.com/group/cake-php/browse%5Fthread/thread/e801b31cd3db809a I also started a thread on the google groups and someone suggested doing something like $html->link('my account', array('base' => 'https://', 'controller' => 'users')); but I couldn't get that working. Just to add, this is what is outputted when I have the above code. <a href="/users/index/base:https:/">my account</a> I think there's a bug in the cake/libs/router.php on line 850. There's a keyword 'bare' and I think it should be 'base' Though changing it to base doesn't seem to fix it. From what I gather, it's telling it to exclude those keys that are passed in so that they don't get included as parameters. But I'm puzzled as to why it's a 'bare' keyword and the only reason I can come up with is that it's a type.

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  • PF, load balanced gateways, and Squid

    - by Santa
    Hi, So I have a FreeBSD router running PF and Squid, and it has three network interfaces: two connected to upstream providers (em0 and em1 respectively), and one for LAN (re0) that we serve. There is some load balancing configured with PF. Basically, it routes all traffic to ports 1-1024 through one interface (em0) and everything else through the other (em1). Now, I have a Squid proxy also running on the box that transparently redirects any HTTP request from LAN to port 3128 in 127.0.0.1. Since Squid redirects this request to HTTP outside, it should follow the load balancing rule through em0, no? The problem is, when we tested it out (by browsing from a computer in the LAN to http://whatismyip.com, it reports the external IP of the em1 interface! When we turn Squid off, the external IP of em0 is reported, as expected. How do I make Squid behave with the load balancing rule that we have set up? Here's the related settings in /etc/pf.conf that I have: ext_if1="em1" # DSL ext_if2="em0" # T1 int_if="re0" ext_gw1="x.x.x.1" ext_gw2="y.y.y.1" int_addr="10.0.0.1" int_net="10.0.0.0/16" dsl_ports = "1024:65535" t1_ports = "1:1023" ... squid=3128 rdr on $int_if inet proto tcp from $int_net \ to any port 80 -> 127.0.0.1 port $squid pass in quick on $int_if route-to lo0 inet proto tcp \ from $int_net to 127.0.0.1 port $squid keep state ... # load balancing pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports Thanks!

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  • Where are the real risks in network security?

    - by Barry Brown
    Anytime a username/password authentication is used, the common wisdom is to protect the transport of that data using encryption (SSL, HTTPS, etc). But that leaves the end points potentially vulnerable. Realistically, which is at greater risk of intrusion? Transport layer: Compromised via wireless packet sniffing, malicious wiretapping, etc. Transport devices: Risks include ISPs and Internet backbone operators sniffing data. End-user device: Vulnerable to spyware, key loggers, shoulder surfing, and so forth. Remote server: Many uncontrollable vulnerabilities including malicious operators, break-ins resulting in stolen data, physically heisting servers, backups kept in insecure places, and much more. My gut reaction is that although the transport layer is relatively easy to protect via SSL, the risks in the other areas are much, much greater, especially at the end points. For example, at home my computer connects directly to my router; from there it goes straight to my ISPs routers and onto the Internet. I would estimate the risks at the transport level (both software and hardware) at low to non-existant. But what security does the server I'm connected to have? Have they been hacked into? Is the operator collecting usernames and passwords, knowing that most people use the same information at other websites? Likewise, has my computer been compromised by malware? Those seem like much greater risks. What do you think?

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  • Zend Framework cleaning default routes when adding other

    - by Renato Aquino
    I have the following problem with Zend Framework. My project has several controllers like Video,Category and Post. The VideoController has an Action called categorylist, so the default URL/Route becomes /video/categorylist Since the action requires 3 parameters I whant to add one simple route: $router->addRoute( 'categorylist', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('categorylist/:category/:page/:per_page', array('controller' => 'video', 'action' => 'categorylist','page'=>1,'per_page'=>6,'category'=>1)) ); With this I got my URL like www.siteurl.com/categorylist/42/1/6 but, the View Helper URL got crazy, and every url for the other controllers I try to echo it´s redirected to the categorylist route. So when I try this: <?= $this->url(array("controller"=> "video", "action" =>"view",'category'=>1),null,true)?> The expected result its /video/view/category/1, but I got /categorylit only. I tryied to debug the default routes but I got an empty array. print_r($ctrl->getRouter()->getRoutes()); Does anyone have some clue about this wierd behavior? I´m using Zend Framework Version 1.9.7

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  • Apache - "dynamic" rewrite rule

    - by Christian A. Rasmussen
    Hi there. I'm working on a Zend Framework project where I've stumbled across a bit of a problem. The problem originates from the fact that modules are 2nd class citizens in Zend Framework. In my project, I'd like for each module to have a folder containing files which are to be accessed from the outside - files such as stylesheets, javascripts and images. Now, how is this to be done. With a Zend Framework project I have a folder structure which looks like this: application/ modules/ moduleOne/ public/ stylesheet.css moduleTwo/ moduleThree/ public/ index.php The standard .htaccess file located in the public/ folder holds this: SetEnv APPLICATION_ENV development RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -s [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -l [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^.*$ - [NC,L] RewriteRule ^.*$ index.php [NC,L] The way it works, is that the project's apache DocumentRoot is the public/ folder. All requests gets redirected through the index.php file where Zend Framework's router component takes over. Now, I'm by no means an expert with Apache nor mod_rewrite so pardon me if this is just silly. I imagine that I implement an extra step in the existing rewrite rule so that if I request http://project/public/moduleOne/stylesheet.css it will for instance resolve to /var/www/project/application/modules/moduleOne/public/stylesheet.css. So the steps which need to be done is to check if the first element in the URI is public/ if it is, we take the next segment as the modules name and use that in the path we're trying to resolve to and attempt to serve the file. Is this at all possible or does anyone have a better suggestion? Thank you for your time Christian Rasmussen

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  • Ember model is gone when I use the renderTemplate hook

    - by Mickael Caruso
    I have a single template - editPerson.hbs <form role="form"> FirstName: {{input type="text" value=model.firstName }} <br/> LastName: {{input type="text" value=model.lastName }} </form> I want to render this template when the user wants to edit an existing person or create a new person. So, I set up routes: App.Router.map(function(){ this.route("createPerson", { path: "/person/new" }); this.route("editPerson", { path: "/person/:id}); // other routes not show for brevity }); So, I define two routes - one for create and one for edit: App.CreatePersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ renderTemplate: function(){ this.render("editPerson", { controller: "editPerson" }); }, model: function(){ return {firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" }; } }); App.EditPersonRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(id){ return {firstName: "John Existing", lastName: "Smith Existing" }; } }); So, I hard-code the models. I'm concerned about the createPerson route. I'm telling it to render the editPersonTemplate and to use the editPerson controller (which I don't show because I don't think it matters - but I made one, though.) When I use renderTemplate, I lose the model John Smith, which in turn, won't display on the editTemplate on the web page. Why? I "fixed" this by creating a separate and identical (to editPerson.hbs) createPerson.hbs, and removing the renderTemplate hook in the CreatePerson. It works as expected, but I find it somewhat troubling to have a separate and identical template for the edit and create cases. I looked everywhere for how to properly do this, and I found no answers.

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  • Same route nested in multiple resources ember.js

    - by Daniel Upton
    I'm building an ember.js app which has a model called "Programme". A user can drill down to a programme by going: Genre > Subgenre > Programme or Folder > List > Programme Here's my router: this.resource('mylists', { path: '/' }, function() { this.resource('folder', { path: '/folder/:folder_id' }, function() { this.resource('list', { path: '/list/:list_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); this.resource('catalogue', function() { this.resource('genre', { path: '/genre/:genre_id' }, function() { this.resource('subgenre', { path: '/subgenre/:subgenre_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); The UI needs to be deeply nested (the genre view renders in the outlet of the catalogue template, the subgenre in the outlet of the genre template... and so forth). The problem I have is as both generated routes are called ProgrammeRoute when I linkTo the programme route inside the list template, it actually goes to the programme route nested in the subgenre route. What should I be doing here? To work around it I've named one route ListProgrammeRoute and SubgenreProgrammeRoute but that leads to some duplication.

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  • backbone.js Model.get() returns undefined, scope using coffeescript + coffee toaster?

    - by benipsen
    I'm writing an app using coffeescript with coffee toaster (an awesome NPM module for stitching) that builds my app.js file. Lots of my application classes and templates require info about the current user so I have an instance of class User (extends Backbone.Model) stored as a property of my main Application class (extends Backbone.Router). As part of the initialization routine I grab the user from the server (which takes care of authentication, roles, account switching etc.). Here's that coffeescript: @user = new models.User @user.fetch() console.log(@user) console.log(@user.get('email')) The first logging statement outputs the correct Backbone.Model attributes object in the console just as it should: User _changing: false _escapedAttributes: Object _pending: Object _previousAttributes: Object _silent: Object attributes: Object account: Object created_on: "1983-12-13 00:00:00" email: "[email protected]" icon: "0" id: "1" last_login: "2012-06-07 02:31:38" name: "Ben Ipsen" roles: Object __proto__: Object changed: Object cid: "c0" id: "1" __proto__: ctor app.js:228 However, the second returns undefined despite the model attributes clearly being there in the console when logged. And just to make things even more interesting, typing "window.app.user.get('email')" into the console manually returns the expected value of "[email protected]"... ? Just for reference, here's how the initialize method compiles into my app.js file: Application.prototype.initialize = function() { var isMobile; isMobile = navigator.userAgent.match(/(iPhone|iPod|iPad|Android|BlackBerry)/); this.helpers = new views.DOMHelpers().initialize().setup_viewport(isMobile); this.user = new models.User(); this.user.fetch(); console.log(this.user); console.log(this.user.get('email')); return this; }; I initialize the Application controller in my static HTML like so: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ window.app = new controllers.Application(); }); Suggestions please and thank you!

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  • What's a way for a client to automatically resolve the ip address of a server?

    - by zooropa
    The project I am working on is a client/server architecture. In a LAN environment, I want the client's to be able to automatically determine the server's address. I want to avoid having to manually configure each client with the ip address of the server. What is the best way to do this? Some alternatives I have thought about doing are: The server could listen for broadcast packets from the clients. The message from the client would be a request for the IP address of the server. The server would respond with its address. The machine running my project's server could also have a bind server running. The LAN's router could be configured to use it as one of its DNS servers. I think I saw that there is a bind library. Does that mean I can build the bind service into my server so that bind doesn't have to be installed on the server? Any other ideas? What have you done in the past? What are the pros/cons of these approaches and others that might be suggested? Thanks for your help!

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  • C socket programming: client send() but server select() doesn't see it

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hey all, I have a server and a client running on two different machines where the client send()s but the server doesn't seem to receive the message. The server employs select() to monitor sockets for any incoming connections/messages. I can see that when the server accepts a new connection, it updates the fd_set array but always returns 0 despite the client send() messages. The connection is TCP and the machines are separated by like one router so dropping packets are highly unlikely. I have a feeling that it's not select() but perhaps send()/sendto() from client that may be the problem but I'm not sure how to go about localizing the problem area. while(1) { readset = info->read_set; ready = select(info->max_fd+1, &readset, NULL, NULL, &timeout); } above is the server side code where the server has a thread that runs select() indefinitely. rv = connect(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *) &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); printf("rv = %i\n", rv); if (rv < 0) { printf("MAIN: ERROR connect() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); exit(1); } else printf("connected\n"); sleep(3); char * somemsg = "is this working yet?\0"; rv = send(sockfd, somemsg, sizeof(somemsg), NULL); if (rv < 0) printf("MAIN: ERROR send() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); printf("MAIN: rv is %i\n", rv); rv = sendto(sockfd, somemsg, sizeof(somemsg), NULL, &server_address, sizeof(server_address)); if (rv < 0) printf("MAIN: ERROR sendto() %i: %s\n", errno, strerror(errno)); printf("MAIN: rv is %i\n", rv); and this is the client side where it connects and sends messages and returns connected MAIN: rv is 4 MAIN: rv is 4 any comments or insightful insights are appreciated.

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  • Can an application affect TCP retransmits

    - by sipwiz
    I'm troubleshooting some communications issues and in the network traces I am occasionally coming across TCP sequence errors. One example I've got is: Server to Client: Seq=3174, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3224, Len=50 Client to Server: Ack=3224 Server to Client: Seq=3274, Len=10 Client to Server: Ack=3224, SLE=3274, SRE=3284 Packets 4 & 5 are recorded in the trace (which is from a router in between the client and server) at almost exactly the same time so they most likely crossed in transit. The TCP session has got out of sync with the client missing the last two transmissions from the server. Those two packets should have been retransmitted but they weren't, the next log in the trace is a RST packet from the Client 24 seconds after packet 6. My question is related to what could be responsible for the failure to retransmit the server data from packets 3 & 5? I would assume that the retransmit would be at the operating system level but is there anyway the application could influence it and stop it being sent? A thread blocking or put to sleep or something like that?

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  • Pushing a local mercurial repository to a remote server or cloning at server from local

    - by Samaursa
    I have a local repository that I have now decided to push to a remote server (for example, I have a host that allows mercurial repositories and I am also trying to push to bitbucket). The repository has a lot of files and is a little more than 200mb. Locally, I am able to clone the repository without problems. Now I have a lot of changes in this repository, and I have wasted a couple of days trying to figure out how to get the remote server to clone my repository. I cannot get hg serve to work outside of the LAN. I have tried everything. So instead, I created a new repository at the remote servers (both at the host and bitbucket) with nothing in it. Now I am pushing the complete repository that I have locally to these remote locations. So far it has been unsuccessful, as the push operation is stuck on searching for changes and does not give me any other useful output. I have let it go for about an hour with no change. Now my questions is, what am I doing wrong as far as hg serve is concerned? I can access it locally but not remotely (through DynDns - I have configured it properly and the router forwards the ports correctly) so that I can get the server to clone the repository the first time after which I will be pushing to it. My second question is, assuming the clone at server does not work (for example, if I was to push my current repository to bitbucket), is creating an empty repository at the server and then pushing a local repository to the new remote repository ok? Is that the source of the searching for changes problem? Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

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  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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  • logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • Local Network - Windows 7 and Vista can't see each other

    - by ca8msm
    I've got a strange issue at home that has been bugging me for weeks, but I really need to get it sorted now so I'll detail as much as I can and hopefully someone can spot what might might be wrong. I have a wireless router connected to the internet and 3 devices connected to it. They are: Name OS Network IPv4 PC1 Windows 7 WORKGROUP 192.168.2.2 LAPTOP1 Vista WORKGROUP 192.168.2.3 PS3 192.168.2.4 and they all get their IP addresses dynamically. Both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping PS3 and get a response. PC1 and LAPTOP1 are unable to ping each other by ip address unless I ping by their name (which bizarrely shows that it is pinging via the IPv6 address). Also, to confirm this both PC1 and LAPTOP1 can ping each other via the long IPv6 address that they both have so they can obviously see each other just not via IPv4. I've disabled the firewalls on both machines as well to rule that out. I don't really know what IPv6 is used for and I've tried disabling it on both machines but all that happens then is that neither machine can see each other at all then. Does anyone have any idea of what may be stopping them seeing each other, any ways I can look at fixing this, or any network tools that may help identify where it is failing? Thanks, Mark

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  • Fast path cache generation for a connected node graph

    - by Sukasa
    I'm trying to get a faster pathfinding mechanism in place in a game I'm working on for a connected node graph. The nodes are classed into two types, "Networks" and "Routers." In this picture, the blue circles represent routers and the grey rectangles networks. Each network keeps a list of which routers it is connected to, and vice-versa. Routers cannot connect directly to other routers, and networks cannot connect directly to other networks. Networks list which routers they're connected to Routers do the same I need to get an algorithm that will map out a path, measured in the number of networks crossed, for each possible source and destination network excluding paths where the source and destination are the same network. I have one right now, however it is unusably slow, taking about two seconds to map the paths, which becomes incredibly noticeable for all connected players. The current algorithm is a depth-first brute-force search (It was thrown together in about an hour to just get the path caching working) which returns an array of networks in the order they are traversed, which explains why it's so slow. Are there any algorithms that are more efficient? As a side note, while these example graphs have four networks, the in-practice graphs have 55 networks and about 20 routers in use. Paths which are not possible also can occur, and as well at any time the network/router graph topography can change, requiring the path cache to be rebuilt. What approach/algorithm would likely provide the best results for this type of a graph?

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  • SQL Server: String Manipulation, Unpivoting

    - by OMG Ponies
    I have a column called body, which contains body content for our CMS. The data looks like: ...{cloak:id=1.1.1}...{cloak}...{cloak:id=1.1.2}...{cloak}...{cloak:id=1.1.3}...{cloak}... A moderately tweaked for readability example: ## h5. A formal process for approving and testing all external network connections and changes to the firewall and router configurations? {toggle-cloak:id=1.1.1}{tree-plus-icon} *Compliance:* {color:red}{*}Partial{*}{color} (?) {cloak:id=1.1.1} || Date: | 2010-03-15 || || Owner: | Brian || || Researched by: | || || Narrative: | Jira tickets are normally used to approve and track network changes\\ || || Artifacts: | Jira.bccampus.ca\\ || || Recommendation: | Need to update policy that no Jira = no change\\ || || Proposed Remedy(ies): | || || Approved Remedy(ies): | || || Date: | || || Reviewed by: | || || Remarks/comments: | || {cloak}## h5. Current network diagrams with all connections to cardholder data, including any wireless networks? {toggle-cloak:id=1.1.2}{tree-plus-icon} *Compliance:* {color:red}{*}TBD{*}{color} (?) {cloak:id=1.1.2} I'd like to get the cloak values out in the following format: requirement_num ----------------- 1.1.1 1.1.2 1.1.3 I'm looking at using UNIONs - does anyone have a better recommendation? Forgot to mention: I can't use regex, because CLR isn't enabled on the database. The numbers aren't sequencial. The current record jumps from 1.1.6 to 1.2.1

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  • Python/Sqlite app for web or desktop?

    - by ChrisC
    I am in the planning stages of rewriting an Access db I wrote several years ago in a full fledged program. I have very slight experience coding, but not enough to call myself a programmer by far. I'll definitely be learning as I go, so I'd like to keep everything as simple as possible. I've decided on Python and SQLite for my program, but I need help on my next decision. Here is my situation 1) It'll be a desktop program, run locally on each machine, all Windows 2) I want a nice looking GUI with colors, different shaped buttons, nice menus, lists, etc, etc 3) I'm thinking about using a browser interface because (a) from what I've read, browser apps can look really great, and (b) I understand there are lots of free tools to assist in setting up the GUI/GUI code with drag and drop tools, so that helps my "keep it simple" goal. 4) I want the program to be totally portable so it runs completely from one single folder on a user's PC. If I do go the browser app router, a major concern I have is the possibility that a user's browser settings could affect or break the app. How likely is this? What other pros and cons are there for my situation?

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  • How often should network traffic/collisions cause SNMP Sets to fail?

    - by A. Levy
    My team has a situation where an SNMP SET will fail once every two weeks or so. Since this set happens automatically, we don't necessarily notice it immediately when it fails, and this can result in an inconsistent configuration and associated wailing and gnashing of teeth. The plan is to fix this by having our software automatically retry the SET when it fails. The problem is, we aren't sure why the failure is happening. My (extremely limited) knowledge of SNMP isn't particularly helpful in diagnosing this problem, so I thought I'd ask StackOverflow for some advice. We think that every so often a spike in network traffic will cause the SET to fail. Since SNMP uses UDP for communication, I would think it would be relatively easy for a command to be drowned out if traffic was high for a short period of time. However, I have no idea how common this is. We have a small network with a single cisco router and there are less than a dozen SNMP controlled devices on that network. In addition to the SNMP traffic, there are some status web pages being loaded from the various devices. In case it makes a difference, I believe we are using the AdventNet SNMP API version 4.0.4 for Java. Does it sound reasonable that there will be some SET commands dropped occasionally, or should we be looking for other causes?

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  • [MVC] logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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