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  • Cross-domain data access in JavaScript

    - by vit
    We have an ASP.Net application hosted on our network and exposed to a specific client. This client wants to be able to import data from their own server into our application. The data is retrieved with an HTTP request and is CSV formatted. The problem is that they do not want to expose their server to our network and are requesting the import to be done on the client side (all clients are from the same network as their server). So, what needs to be done is: They request an import page from our server The client script on the page issues a request to their server to get CSV formatted data The data is sent back to our application This is not a challenge when both servers are on the same domain: a simple hidden iframe or something similar will do the trick, but here what I'm getting is a cross-domain "access denied" error. They also refuse to change the data format to return JSON or XML formatted data. What I tried and learned so far is: Hidden iframe -- "access denied" XMLHttpRequest -- behaviour depends on the browser security settings: may work, may work while nagging a user with security warnings, or may not work at all Dynamic script tags -- would have worked if they could have returned data in JSON format IE client data binding -- the same "access denied" error Is there anything else I can try before giving up and saying that it will not be possible without exposing their server to our application, changing their data format or changing their browser security settings? (DNS trick is not an option, by the way).

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  • Unpredictable CCK field name in returned View data

    - by AK
    I'm using views_get_view_result to directly access the data in a view. I've stumbled upon this odd behavior where cck fields are prefixed with the first field name as a query optimization. Explained here. What's bizarre though is that fields are named differently depending on whether I retrieve that data as Anonymous or as Admin. I'm pretty sure all my permissions are set up, and the view itself has no restrictions. What is going on here? This is a big problem since I can't know how to retrieve a field. Here's a dump of the two view results. Notice that node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value != node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value. // View as Admin stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 ) // View as Anonymous stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 )

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • Chrome targeted CSS

    - by Chris
    I have some CSS code that hides the cursor on a web page (it is a client facing static screen with no interaction). The code I use to do this is below: *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } Blank.cur is a totally blank cursor file. This code works perfectly well in all browsers when I host the web files on my local server but when I upload to a Windows CE webserver (our production unit) the cursor represents itself as a black box. Odd. After some testing it seems that chrome only has a problem with totally blank cursor files when served from WinCE web server, so I created a blank cursor with one pixel as white, specifically for chrome. How do I then target this CSS rule to chrome specifically? i.e. *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blank.cur'), pointer; } <!--[if CHROME]> *, html { cursor: url('/web/resources/graphics/blankChrome.cur'), pointer; } <![endif]-->

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  • gwtQuery's outerWidth(true) and IE8 not working without putting a delay

    - by Christopher
    I recently came across an odd behavior when trying to calculate the width (with margins) of an element using gwtQuery. The goal is to get the width (including padding, borders and margins) of a given element as a child of a certain parent. This parent may define specific CSS rules for some children so I clone it, add my element to this parent, call .outerWidth(true) to get the width and finally remove the clone from the parent. It works fine on Chrome, Firefox and IE 10, but randomly fails (outputs 0) on IE 8. However I noticed that if I put a "sleep" between the moment I add the element to the DOM and the moment I get the outer width, it always succeeds. I obviously don't want to keep that sleep. So my question is does anyone has any insights on how to work around this behavior or even a better way of achieving the same goal? Thank you! Here's a code snippet private Integer computeTabWidth(IsWidget tab) { GQuery $tab = $("<li></li>").append($(tab).clone()); $(containerPanel).append($tab); // IE 8 debug. sleep(100); Integer tabWidth = $tab.outerWidth(true); $tab.remove(); return tabWidth; } private void sleep(int i) { long time = new Date().getTime() + i; while (time > new Date().getTime()); }

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  • How do I create rows with alternating colors for a UITableView on iPhone?

    - by Mat
    Hi all, i would to have alternate 2 colors of rows, like the first black, the second white, the third black, etc, etc... my approach is like a basic exercise of programming to calculate if a number is odd number or not: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; cell = ((MainCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]); if (cell==nil) { NSArray *topLevelObjects=[[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"MainCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id currentObject in topLevelObjects){ if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[UITableViewCell class]]){ if ((indexPath.row % 2)==0) { [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor purpleColor]]; }else{ [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor whiteColor]]; } cell = (MainCell *) currentObject; break; } } }else { AsyncImageView* oldImage = (AsyncImageView*) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:999]; [oldImage removeFromSuperview]; }return cell; The problem is that when i do a rapid scroll, the background of cells become like the last 2 cell black, the first 2 cell white or something like this, but if i scroll slow works fine. I think the problem is the cache of reusableCell. Any ideas? TIA

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • PHP OOP: Avoid Singleton/Static Methods in Domain Model Pattern

    - by sunwukung
    I understand the importance of Dependency Injection and its role in Unit testing, which is why the following issue is giving me pause: One area where I struggle not to use the Singleton is the Identity Map/Unit of Work pattern (Which keeps tabs on Domain Object state). //Not actual code, but it should demonstrate the point class Monitor{//singleton construction omitted for brevity static $members = array();//keeps record of all objects static $dirty = array();//keeps record of all modified objects static $clean = array();//keeps record of all clean objects } class Mapper{//queries database, maps values to object fields public function find($id){ if(isset(Monitor::members[$id]){ return Monitor::members[$id]; } $values = $this->selectStmt($id); //field mapping process omitted for brevity $Object = new Object($values); Monitor::new[$id]=$Object return $Object; } $User = $UserMapper->find(1);//domain object is registered in Id Map $User->changePropertyX();//object is marked "dirty" in UoW // at this point, I can save by passing the Domain Object back to the Mapper $UserMapper->save($User);//object is marked clean in UoW //but a nicer API would be something like this $User->save(); //but if I want to do this - it has to make a call to the mapper/db somehow $User->getBlogPosts(); //or else have to generate specific collection/object graphing methods in the mapper $UserPosts = $UserMapper->getBlogPosts(); $User->setPosts($UserPosts); Any advice on how you might handle this situation? I would be loathe to pass/generate instances of the mapper/database access into the Domain Object itself to satisfy DI - At the same time, avoiding that results in lots of calls within the Domain Object to external static methods. Although I guess if I want "save" to be part of its behaviour then a facility to do so is required in its construction. Perhaps it's a problem with responsibility, the Domain Object shouldn't be burdened with saving. It's just quite a neat feature from the Active Record pattern - it would be nice to implement it in some way.

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  • How to link jQuery UI datepicker functionality with a select list

    - by take2
    I'm trying to connect jQuery UI's datepicker with a select list. I have found one explanation on jQuery's Forum ( forum.jquery.com/topic/jquery-ui-datepicker-with-select-lists), but I can't get it working. There are input and select list both declared: <select id="selectMonth"><option value="01">Jan</option><option value="02">Feb</option> <option value="03">Mar</option><option value="04">Apr</option>...</select> <select id="selectDay"><option value="01">1</option><option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option><option value="04">4</option>...</select> <select id="selectYear"><option value="2012">2012</option><option value="2013">2013</option> <option value="2014">2014</option>...</select> <p>Date: <input type="text" id="selectedDatepicker" /></p> This is the script: $(function() { $('#selectedDatepicker').datepicker({ beforeShow: readSelected, onSelect: updateSelected, minDate: new Date(2012, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2014, 12 - 1, 31), showOn: 'both', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'img/calendar.gif'}); // Prepare to show a date picker linked to three select controls function readSelected() { $('#selectedDatepicker').val($('#selectMonth').val() + '/' + $('#selectDay').val() + '/' + $('#selectYear').val()); return {}; } // Update three select controls to match a date picker selection function updateSelected(date) { $('#selectMonth').val(date.substring(0, 2)); $('#selectDay').val(date.substring(3, 5)); $('#selectYear').val(date.substring(6, 10)); } }); And here is the fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/xKXZm/ They are not connected properly, the only "connected behaviour" is that when you click on the input button, it picks up the value of the select list. On the other hand, the select list never picks up the value of the input nor will the input pick up the value of the select list until you click on it.

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  • Javascript onclick() event bubbling - working or not?

    - by user1071914
    I have a table in which the table row tag is decorated with an onclick() handler. If the row is clicked anywhere, it will load another page. In one of the elements on the row, is an anchor tag which also leads to another page. The desired behavior is that if they click on the link, "delete.html" is loaded. If they click anywhere else in the row, "edit.html" is loaded. The problem is that sometimes (according to users) both the link and the onclick() are fired at once, leading to a problem in the back end code. They swear they are not double-clicking. I don't know enough about Javascript event bubbling, handling and whatever to even know where to start with this bizarre problem, so I'm asking for help. Here's a fragment of the rendered page, showing the row with the embedded link and associated script tag. Any suggestions are welcomed: <tr id="tableRow_3339_0" class="odd"> <td class="l"></td> <td>PENDING</td> <td>Yabba Dabba Doo</td> <td>Fred Flintstone</td> <td> <a href="/delete.html?requestId=3339"> <div class="deleteButtonIcon"></div> </a> </td> <td class="r"></td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript">document.getElementById("tableRow_3339_0").onclick = function(event) { window.location = '//edit.html?requestId=3339'; };</script>

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • Dynamic script addition should be ordered?

    - by hawkettc
    Hi, I'm adding some <script> tags dynamically to the head element after page load. I understand the scripts are loaded asynchronously, but can I expect them to be parsed in the order they are added? I'm seeing the expected behaviour in Firefox, but not in Safari or Chrome. Looking at the document in Chrome developer tools and Firebug, both show the following - <html> <head> ... <script type="text/javascript" src="A.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="B.js"></script> </head> ... </html> However looking at the resource loading view, chrome seems to parse whichever is returned first from the server, while firebug always loads them in the order the script tags were added, even when B is returned first from the server. Should I expect Chrome/Safari to parse the files in the specified order? Using Chrome 5.0.375.29 beta on OS X 10.6.3

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  • Type classe, generic memoization

    - by nicolas
    Something quite odd is happening with y types and I quite dont understand if this is justified or not. I would tend to think not. This code works fine : type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, obj>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res And this ones complains type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, _>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res The difference is only the underscore in the dictionary definition. The infered types are the same, but the dynamic cast from r to type 'b exhibits an error. 'this runtime coercition ... runtime type tests are not allowed on some types, etc..' Am I missing something or is it a rough edge ?

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • firefox render order problem with div tag

    - by flavour404
    I have a div tag which I populate dynamically. The problem is that in Firefox when i do a test for size(height) I seem to need to run it twice in order to get the correct size. This is the code: alert("h = " + h + " height:" + document.getElementById("thumbDiv").clientHeight); Ignore 'h' for the time being, what I am curious to know is what is the correct way to get the div tags height in firefox. In ie I use offsetHeight which works for my purposes perfectly. The other thing is the render order in firefox. I populate the div and then query the height with .clientHeight and I get 102, which is I am assuming the empty height of the tag as I have set no height via style, if I press the button again I then get the height of the div with the enlcosed html page which I am pushing into the div. Its odd, and slightly annoying. I am trying to determine if there is enough room in the browser to display the div contents in their entireity, if not then I am disabling certain features otherwise I get into an infinite scroll problem... Thanks, R. Thanks R.

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  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

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  • This is a great job opportunity!!! [closed]

    - by Stuart Gordon
    ASP.NET MVC Web Developer / London / £450pd / £25-£50,000pa / Interested contact [email protected] ! As a web developer within the engineering department, you will work with a team of enthusiastic developers building a new ASP.NET MVC platform for online products utilising exciting cutting edge technologies and methodologies (elements of Agile, Scrum, Lean, Kanban and XP) as well as developing new stand-alone web products that conform to W3C standards. Key Responsibilities and Objectives: Develop ASP.NET MVC websites utilising Frameworks and enterprise search technology. Develop and expand content management and delivery solutions. Help maintain and extend existing products. Formulate ideas and visions for new products and services. Be a proactive part of the development team and provide support and assistance to others when required. Qualification/Experience Required: The ideal candidate will have a web development background and be educated to degree level in a Computer Science/IT related course plus ASP.NET MVC experience. The successful candidate needs to be able to demonstrate commercial experience in all or most of the following skills: Essential: ASP.NET MVC with C# (Visual Studio), Castle, nHibernate, XHTML and JavaScript. Experience of Test Driven Development (TDD) using tools such as NUnit. Preferable: Experience of Continuous Integration (TeamCity and MSBuild), SQL Server (T-SQL), experience of source control such as Subversion (plus TortioseSVN), JQuery. Learn: Fluent NHibernate, S#arp Architecture, Spark (View engine), Behaviour Driven Design (BDD) using MSpec. Furthermore, you will possess good working knowledge of W3C web standards, web usability, web accessibility and understand the basics of search engine optimisation (SEO). You will also be a quick learner, have good communication skills and be a self-motivated and organised individual.

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  • Groovy as a substitute for Java when using BigDecimal?

    - by geejay
    I have just completed an evaluation of Java, Groovy and Scala. The factors I considered were: readability, precision The factors I would like to know: performance, ease of integration I needed a BigDecimal level of precision. Here are my results: Java void someOp() { BigDecimal del_theta_1 = toDec(6); BigDecimal del_theta_2 = toDec(2); BigDecimal del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = abs(del_theta_1.subtract(del_theta_2)) .divide(log(del_theta_1.divide(del_theta_2))); } Groovy void someOp() { def del_theta_1 = 6.0 def del_theta_2 = 2.0 def del_theta_m = 0.0 del_theta_m = Math.abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / Math.log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2); } Scala def other(){ var del_theta_1 = toDec(6); var del_theta_2 = toDec(2); var del_theta_m = toDec(0); del_theta_m = ( abs(del_theta_1 - del_theta_2) / log(del_theta_1 / del_theta_2) ) } Note that in Java and Scala I used static imports. Java: Pros: it is Java Cons: no operator overloading (lots o methods), barely readable/codeable Groovy: Pros: default BigDecimal means no visible typing, least surprising BigDecimal support for all operations (division included) Cons: another language to learn Scala: Pros: has operator overloading for BigDecimal Cons: some surprising behaviour with division (fixed with Decimal128), another language to learn

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  • Multi-Precision Arithmetic on MIPS

    - by Rob
    Hi, I am just trying to implement multi-precision arithmetic on native MIPS. Assume that one 64-bit integer is in register $12 and $13 and another is in registers $14 and $15. The sum is to be placed in registers $10 and $11. The most significant word of the 64-bit integer is found in the even-numbered registers, and the least significant word is found in the odd-numbered registers. On the internet, it said, this is the shortest possible implementation. addu $11, $13, $15 # add least significant word sltu $10, $11, $15 # set carry-in bit addu $10, $10, $12 # add in first most significant word addu $10, $10, $14 # add in second most significant word I just wanna double check that I understand correctly. The sltu checks if the sum of the two least significant words is smaller or equal than one of the operands. If this is the case, than did a carry occur, is this right? To check if there occured a carry when adding the two most significant words and store the result in $9 I have to do: sltu $9, $10, $12 # set carry-in bit Does this make any sense?

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  • Database.ExecuteNonQuery does not return

    - by dan-waterbly
    I have a very odd issue. When I execute a specific database stored procedure from C# using SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery, my stored procedure is never executed. Furthermore, SQL Profiler does not register the command at all. I do not receive a command timeout, and no exeception is thrown. The weirdest thing is that this code has worked fine over 1,200,000 times, but for this one particular file I am inserting into the database, it just hangs forever. When I kill the application, I receive this error in the event log of the database server: "A fatal error occurued while reading the input stream from the network. The session will be terminated (input error: 64, output error: 0). Which makes me think that the database server is receiving the command, though SQL Profiler says otherwise. I know that the appropiate permissions are set, and that the connection string is right as this piece of code and stored procedure works fine with other files. Below is the code that calls the stored procedure, it may be important to note that the file I am trying to insert is 33.5MB, but I have added more than 10,000 files larger than 500MB, so I do not think the size is the issue: using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["TheDatabase"].ConnectionString)) using (SqlCommand command = sqlconn.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "Add_File"; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; command.CommandTimeout = 30 //should timeout in 30 seconds, but doesn't... command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", ID).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.BigInt; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@BinaryData", byteArr).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarBinary; command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FileName", fileName).SqlDbType = SqlDbType.VarChar; sqlconn.Open(); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } There is no firewall between the server making the call and the database server, and the windows firewalls have been disabled to troubleshoot this issue.

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  • jquery callback functions failing to finish execution

    - by calumbrodie
    I'm testing a jquery app i've written and have come across some unexpected behaviour $('button.clickme').live('click',function(){ //do x (takes 2 seconds) //do y (takes 4 seconds) //do z (takes 0.5 seconds) }) The event can be triggered by a number of buttons. What I'm finding is that when I click each button slowly (allowing 10 seconds between clicks) - my callback function executes correctly (actions x, y & z complete). However If I rapidly click buttons on my page it appears that the function sometimes only completes up to step x or y before terminating. My question: Is it the case that if this function is fired by a clicking second DOM element, while the first callback function is completing - will jQuery terminate the first callback and start over again? Do I have to write my callback function explicitly outside the event handler and then call it?? function doStuff() { //do x //do y //do z ( } $('button.clickme).live('click',doStuff()) If this is the case can someone explain why this is happening or give me a link to some advice on best practice on closures etc - I'd like to know the BEST way to write jQuery to improve performance etc. Thanks

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  • How Session out trigger on browser close?

    - by Hemant Kothiyal
    Hi, Yesterday morning i open gmail account in Internet Exlorer second tab. I checked my mail and closed that tab (not browser). Then at the time of evining i again open second tab of browser and enetr gmail.com, it automatically redirect me at my email account without asking login. I shocked and i thought i should remain browser open for whole night and today open gmail in second tab , it behave similar means without login screen it redirect in my gmail account. Then i closed that tab and open another browser session and enter gmail i again surprised that i redirect me login page. At the same time i open second tab of first browser and it automatically redirect me at mail account page. What i councluded by this behaviour is that might be gmail server keep my browser id at their server so that whenever i eneter gmail.com on second tab of first browser, it automatically redirect me at gmail account. I don't know i am right or not? Please clear me this concept? What happens with my session at gmail server when i closed my browser tab? As per my opinion it should automatically logout me but why this doesn't happened?

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  • Idiomatic PHP web page creation

    - by GreenMatt
    My PHP experience is rather limited. I've just inherited some stuff that looks odd to me, and I'd like to know if this is a standard way to do things. The page which shows up in the browser location (e.g. www.example.com/example_page) has something like: <? $title = "Page Title"; $meta = "Some metadata"; require("pageheader.inc"); ?> <!-- Content --> Then pageheader.inc has stuff like: <? @$title = ($title) ? $title : ""; @$meta = ($meta) ? $meta : ""; ?> <html> <head> <title><?=$title?></title </head> <!-- and so forth --> Maybe others find this style useful, but it confuses me. I suppose this could be a step toward a rudimentary content management system, but the way it works here I'd think it adds to the processing the server has to do without reducing the load on the web developer enough to make it worth the effort. So, is this a normal way to create pages with PHP? Or should I pull all this in favor of a better approach? Also, I know that "<?" (vs. "<?php" ) is undesirable; I'm just reproducing what is in the code.

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  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

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