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  • What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

    - by durandai
    I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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  • How can I get contentWindow for an Object element in IE7

    - by Scott Leis
    I have a HTML object element like this: <object title="Search results as XML" standby="Loading XML document..." type="text/xml" data="/__CA25761100195585.nsf/WebPrintListingXML?OpenAgent&date1=01/06/2009" width="100%" height="100%" border="0" name="resultIFrame" id="resultIFrame" Error: could not embed search results. </object I also have this javascript function (alert() calls added for debugging): function getFrameByName(fParent,fName) { var fArray=fParent.frames; if (!fName) return; if (fArray) { if (fArray.length) { for (var i=0; i<fArray.length; i++) { alert('loop '+i); if (fArray[i]) { if (fArray[i].name==fName) return fArray[i]; } } } } var tmp=document.getElementsByName(fName); if (tmp[0]) { alert('returning '+tmp[0]); if (!(tmp[0].contentWindow)) alert('contentWindow is null'); return tmp[0].contentWindow; } } And finally, this button is meant to print the content of the Object element: <input type="button" value="Print" name="printBtn" onclick="getFrameByName(window,'resultIFrame').print();" The button works perfectly in Firefox. Opera is good enough, though it prints the main document instead of just the object. IE7 gives the following error details: Line: 57 Char: 1 Error: 'undefined' is null or not an object Line 57 is where the button's "input" tag starts in the HTML source. Thanks to the alert('contentWindow is null') call in the JS function, I know that the object I'm getting in IE has no contentWindow property. I have tried changing the object tag to an iframe tag. This changes the JS behaviour, but causes other issues such as the height attribute being ignored and the content not displaying. Sticking with an object tag, how can I get this Object's window in IE7?

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  • Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

    - by Telos
    This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

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  • Why is my .htaccess file redirecting to full server path instead of relative path?

    - by death.au
    I've never had a problem with cakePHP before, but something's odd about this server and is causing the redirects in the .htaccess files to behave oddly. CakePHP uses mod_rewrite in .htaccess files to redirect requests to its own webroot folder. The problem is that the redirects are listing the wrong path and causing a 404 error. My CakePHP application, which is stored in the listings directory, has a .htaccess file as follows: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ app/webroot/ [R=301,L] RewriteRule (.*) app/webroot/$1 [R=301,L] </IfModule> (*note that the R=301 causes an external redirect so we can see what is going on from our end. It should really omit this flag and do the redirect internally, transparent to end-users) This is supposed to redirect any request from http://hostname.com/~username/listings/ to http://hostname.com/~username/listings/app/webroot/ However, rather than simply adding “app/webroot/” to the end as it is supposed to, it is adding the full server path ( /home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ ) resulting in the final URL http://hostname.com/home/username/public_html/listings/app/webroot/ which is obviously incorrect and triggers a 404 error. The hosting is on a shared hosting account, so that limits what I can do with the settings. I've never seen this happen before, and I'm thinking it's something wrong from the hosting side of things, but if anyone has some helpful suggestions then I can put them to the hosting company as well.

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  • C# IE Proxy Detection not working from a Windows Service

    - by mytwocents
    This is very odd. I've written a windows form tool in C# to return the default IE proxy. It works (See code snippets below). I've created a service to return the proxy using the same code, it works when I step into the debugger, BUT it doesn't work when the service is running as binary code. This must be some sort of permissions or context thing that I cannot recreate. Further, if I call the tool from the windows service, it still doesn't return the proxy information.... this seems isolated to the service somehow. I don't see any permission errors in the events log, it's as if a service has a totally different context than a regular windows form exe. I've tride both: WebRequest.GetSystemWebProxy() and Uri requestUri = new Uri(urlOfDomain); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestUri); IWebProxy proxy = request.Proxy; if (!proxy.IsBypassed(requestUri)){ Uri uri2 = proxy.GetProxy(request.RequestUri); } Thanks for any help!

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • git rebase without changing commit timestamps

    - by Olivier
    Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

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  • Sorcery/Capybara: Cannon log in with :js => true

    - by PlankTon
    I've been using capybara for a while, but I'm new to sorcery. I have a very odd problem whereby if I run the specs without Capybara's :js = true functionality I can log in fine, but if I try to specify :js = true on a spec, username/password cannot be found. Here's the authentication macro: module AuthenticationMacros def sign_in user = FactoryGirl.create(:user) user.activate! visit new_sessions_path fill_in 'Email Address', :with => user.email fill_in 'Password', :with => 'foobar' click_button 'Sign In' user end end Which is called in specs like this: feature "project setup" do include AuthenticationMacros background do sign_in end scenario "creating a project" do "my spec here" end The above code works fine. However, IF I change the scenario spec from (in this case) scenario "adding questions to a project" do to scenario "adding questions to a project", :js => true do login fails with an 'incorrect username/password' combination. Literally the only change is that :js = true. I'm using the default capybara javascript driver. (Loads up Firefox) Any ideas what could be going on here? I'm completely stumped. I'm using Capybara 2.0.1, Sorcery 0.7.13. There is no javascript on the sign in page and save_and_open_page before clicking 'sign in' confirms that the correct details are entered into the username/password fields. Any suggestions really appreciated - I'm at a loss.

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  • Ogre material scripts; how do I give a technique multiple lod_indexes?

    - by BlueNovember
    I have an Ogre material script that defines 4 rendering techniques. 1 using GLSL shaders, then 3 others that just use textures of different resolutions. I want to use the GLSL shader unconditionally if the graphics card supports it, and the other 3 textures depending on camera distance. At the moment my script is; material foo { lod_distances 1600 2000 technique shaders { lod_index 0 lod_index 1 lod_index 2 //various passes here } technique high_res { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique medium_res { lod_index 1 //various passes here } technique low_res { lod_index 2 //various passes here } Extra information The Ogre manual says; Increasing indexes denote lower levels of detail You can (and often will) assign more than one technique to the same LOD index, what this means is that OGRE will pick the best technique of the ones listed at the same LOD index. OGRE determines which one is 'best' by which one is listed first. Currently, on a machine supporting the GLSL version I am using, the script behaves as follows; Camera 2000 : Shader technique Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : High If I change the lod order in shader technique to { lod_index 2 lod_index 1 lod_index 0 } The behaviour becomes; Camera 2000 : Low Camera 1600 <= 2000 : Medium Camera <= 1600 : Shader implying only the latest lod_index is used. If I change it to lod_index 0 1 2 It shouts at me Compiler error: fewer parameters expected in foo.material(#): lod_index only supports 1 argument So how do I specify a technique to have 3 lod_indexes? Duplication works; technique shaders { lod_index 0 //various passes here } technique shaders1 { lod_index 1 //passes repeated here } technique shaders2 { lod_index 2 //passes repeated here } ...but it's ugly.

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  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

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  • Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

    - by nomemory
    Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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  • JUnit test failing - complaining of missing data that was just inserted

    - by Collin Peters
    I have an extremely odd problem in my JUnit tests that I just can't seem to nail down. I have a multi-module java webapp project with a fairly standard structure (DAO's, service clasess, etc...). Within this project I have a 'core' project which contains some abstracted setup code which inserts a test user along with the necessary items for a user (in this case an 'enterprise', so a user must belong to an enterprise and this is enforced at the database level) Fairly simple so far... but here is where the strangeness begins some tests fail to run and throw a database exception where it complains that a user cannot be inserted because an enterprise does not exist. But it just created the enterprise in the preceding line of code! And there was no errors in the insertion of the enterprise. Stranger yet, if this test class is run by itself everything works fine. It is only when the test is run as part of the project that it fails! And the exact same abstracted code was run by 10+ tests before the one that fails! f I have been banging my head against a wall with this for days and haven't really made any progress. I'm not even sure what information to offer up to help diagnose this. Using JUnit 4.4, Spring 2.5.6, iBatis 2.3.0, Postgresql 8.3 Switching to org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DriverManagerDataSource from org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource changed the problem. Using DriverManagerDataSource the tests work for the first time, but now all of a sudden a lot of data isn't rolled back in the database! It leaves everything behind. All with no errors Tests fail when run via Eclipse & Maven Please ask for any info which may help me solve my problem!

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  • Fill parent container

    - by manix
    After several hours of design battle I come to you for a hand. I am building a website for a night club as you can see. I can't get stretch the centered area (bordered by yellow color) to the bottom of the page where the footer start (the footer is the green top-bordered div). This happends because the content is not enought to fill the rest of heigh. This is my css html, body{ height: 100%; margin: 0 auto; } #container{ height: auto !important; height: 100%; margin: 0 auto -50px; /* as #footer height */ min-height: 100%; text-align: center; border: 5px solid blue; } #centered-container{ width: 950px; margin: 0 auto; text-align: left; border: 5px solid yellow; } #body-container{ border: 5px solid red; } #footer, .footer{ height: 50px; } #footer{ text-align: center; border-top: 5px solid green; } And this is my html markup <body> <div id="container"> <!-- BLUE BORDER --> <div id="centered-container"> <!-- YELLOW BORDER --> <div id="body-container"> <!-- RED BORDER --> </div> </div> <div class="footer"></div> <!-- GREEN BORDER --> </div> <div id="footer"></div> </body> Expected behaviour: Additional facts - The colored borders is just for debugging porpuses

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  • WPF DataGridRow Template - how to achieve Selected event

    - by user1809972
    I would like to override the DataGridRow template depending on the datatype of object bound to the grid. If the type is label, it just shows a Label. Otehrwise, it shows the cells. Follwing is the xaml. <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=IsLabel, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type DataGridRow}"> <Grid> <Label HorizontalAlignment="Center" Padding="3,3,3,3" FontWeight="Bold" Content="{Binding Id}"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </DataTrigger> The grid looks ok. But, when the Label is clicked, it doesnt raise the Selection changed event for the DataGridRow. How do I achieve this behaviour? This label should just behave as any other DataGridRow(with the default template). Thanks

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  • Question regarding ip checksum code

    - by looktt
    unsigned short /* this function generates header checksums */ csum (unsigned short *buf, int nwords) { unsigned long sum; for (sum = 0; nwords > 0; nwords--) // add words(16bits) together sum += *buf++; sum = (sum >> 16) + (sum & 0xffff); //add carry over sum += (sum >> 16); //what does this step do??? add possible left-over //byte? But isn't it already added in the loop (if //any)? return ((unsigned short) ~sum); } I assume nwords in the number of 16bits word, not 8bits byte (if there are odd byte, nword is rounded to next large), is it correct? The line sum = (sum 16) + (sum & 0xffff) is to add carry over to make 16bit complement sum += (sum 16); What's the purpose of this step? Add left-over byte? How? Thanks!

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

    - by Ernst de Haan
    How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

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  • How would i go about showing the closest paragraph element to a unique link with jQuery?

    - by Nike
    The title is a bit rusty, sorry about that. Now let me explain what i'm trying to do. I have a few listed items, like this: <li> <a id="toggle" class="0"><h4>ämne<small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="0">text</p> </li> <li class='odd'> <a id="toggle" class="1"><h4>test<small>2010-04-17 kl 15:01</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="1">test meddelande :) [a]http://youtube.com[/a]</p> </li> The function i'm trying to achieve, is that when a user clicks a "toggle" link (the h4 text), i want the paragraph element below it to fade in. I thought of the idea of giving both the toggle link and the paragraph the same class, and then somehow make it get the paragraph with the same class as the toggle link clicked, and show it? But i'm not entirely sure how to do that either, and tbh, it doesn't sound like the greatest idea, but maybe that's the only way? I don't know... Is there some way to just simply get the nearest paragraph (below the link) with the id "meddel" and fade it in? That sounds a bit easier... I hope you can at least give me a few hints. Thanks in advance, -Nike

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  • gwtQuery's outerWidth(true) and IE8 not working without putting a delay

    - by Christopher
    I recently came across an odd behavior when trying to calculate the width (with margins) of an element using gwtQuery. The goal is to get the width (including padding, borders and margins) of a given element as a child of a certain parent. This parent may define specific CSS rules for some children so I clone it, add my element to this parent, call .outerWidth(true) to get the width and finally remove the clone from the parent. It works fine on Chrome, Firefox and IE 10, but randomly fails (outputs 0) on IE 8. However I noticed that if I put a "sleep" between the moment I add the element to the DOM and the moment I get the outer width, it always succeeds. I obviously don't want to keep that sleep. So my question is does anyone has any insights on how to work around this behavior or even a better way of achieving the same goal? Thank you! Here's a code snippet private Integer computeTabWidth(IsWidget tab) { GQuery $tab = $("<li></li>").append($(tab).clone()); $(containerPanel).append($tab); // IE 8 debug. sleep(100); Integer tabWidth = $tab.outerWidth(true); $tab.remove(); return tabWidth; } private void sleep(int i) { long time = new Date().getTime() + i; while (time > new Date().getTime()); }

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  • Why is there a time lag when trying to change the text on a button in IE using JQuery?

    - by Deane
    I have some Ajax that runs on a button click. Sometimes it takes a few seconds to return, so I wanted a visual clue to the user that the browser was doing something. So, I have this: $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); As you can see, it changes the text on the button, and disables it. When the Ajax call comes back (it's synchronous, remember), the button changes back. In Firefox, this works great. In IE, it's...odd. It doesn't run the code in order. It doesn't change the text of the button and launches right into the Ajax call. The browser blocks with the Submit active and saying "Submit." Right after the Ajax comes back, the button quickly flashes "Working..." then back to Submit." So, for some reason, IE isn't changing the text of the button until after the Ajax call, even though the code for it is before the Ajax call. It's acting like this: //Synchronous Ajax call goes here $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Working..."); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", true); $('#SubmitButton').attr("value", "Submit"); $('#SubmitButton').attr("disabled", false); Again, this works perfectly in Firefox. But in IE, there's some kind of...lag?

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  • Javascript and rendering pauses and stays paused on scroll in the android browser

    - by user357303
    Hi. I've found some wierd behaviour related to scrolling and rendering and javascript. How to make it happen: On any webpage that is long enough to scroll on. Start to scroll pretty fast (fling the page). then release the touch. No while the page is still scrolling because of the momentum. Tap the screen to stop the scroll. This make the browser enter a wierd mode. On the nexus one it behaves like this: The updating of what's shown on the screen stops, you can still click on links and the go to where they are supposed to but what's shown on the screen stays the same. If you then scroll the screen a bit the update of the screen kicks in again and what you you where suppsed to see all the time is shown. On all phones with HTC Sense I've tried (Hero, Desire, Legend) this happens: The updating of the screen is stopped just like on the nexus one, but also the execution of any javascript is stopped. If you click on a link that takes you to another page however things return to normal again. The way I tested this was I created a page like this: http://pastebin.ca/1881620 The changeColor function simply changed the background color of 'container' to a few different colors. So before the error what happens is that when you click any link the color changes. after the error this happens: Nexus one: when you click on the links nothing happens (except the "orange link selected rounded corner box thing" is shown as if the link is clicked). Then when you scroll abit. You can see the color has changed (and equal amount of times to the number of times I clicked the link). On Sense: The links take me to google.com Has anyone else noticed this problem? Is there anyway to work around it? Thanks.

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  • Test MVC using moq

    - by Raminder
    I am new to moq and I was trying to test a controller (MVC) behaviour that when the view raises a certain event, controller calls a certain function on model, here are the classes - public class Model { public void CalculateAverage() { ... } ... } public class View { public event EventHandler CalculateAverage; private void RaiseCalculateAverage() { if (CalculateAverage != null) { CalculateAverage(this, EventArgs.Empty); } } ... } public class Controller { private Model model; private View view; public Controller(Model model, View view) { this.model = model this.view = view; view.CalculaeAverage += view_CalculateAverage; } priavate void view_CalculateAverage(object sender, EventArgs args) { model.CalculateAverage(); } } and the test - [Test] public void ModelCalculateAverageCalled() { Mock<Model> modelMock = new Mock<Model>(); Mock<View> viewMock = new Mock<View>(); Controller controller = new Controller(modelMock.Object, viewMock.Object); viewMock.Raise(x => x.CalculateAverage += null, new EventArgs.Empty); modelMock.Verify(x => x.CalculateAverage()); //never comes here, test fails in above line and exits Assert.True(true); } The issue is that the test is failing in the second last line with "Invocation was not performed on the mock: x = x.CalculateAverage()". Another thing I noticed is that the test terminates on this second last line and the last line is never executed. Am I doing everything correct?

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • What programming language is this?

    - by Richard M.
    I recently stumbled over a very odd source listing on a rather old programming-related site (lost it somewhere in my browser history as I didn't care about it at first). I think that this is part of a simple (console-based?) snake game. I searched and searched but didn't find a language that looked somwhat like this. This seems like a mix of Python, Ruby and C++. What the hell? What programming-language is the below source listing written in? Maybe you can figure it out? my Snake.hasProps { length parts xDir yDir } & hasMethods { init: length = 0 parts[0].x,y = 5 move: parts[ 0 ].x,y.!add xDir | yDir # Move the head map parts(i,v): parts[ i ] = parts[ i + 1 ] checkBiteSelf checkFeed checkBiteSelf: part } my SnakePart.hasProps { x y } fork SnakePart to !Feed my Game.hasProps { frameTime = 30 } & hasMethods { init: mainloop mainloop: sys.util.sleep frameTime Snake.move Field.getInput -> Snake.xDir | Snake.yDir Field.reDraw with Snake & Feed & Game # For FPS } main.isMethod { game.init }

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  • How to prevent my C# winforms application from stealing focus when I set the visible properly to tru

    - by Fopedush
    I've got a C# winforms application that runs in the background, listening for hotkeys to be pressed. When a hotkey is pressed, my form makes a brief appearance. The form is always running, but set to hidden until I receive a hotkey event, at which time I set the visible property to true. The code looks like this: void hook_volumeDown(object sender, KeyPressedEventArgs e) { this.Visible = true; } It should be noted that the topmost property of this form is set to true. The really odd part is, after my C# app has stolen focus from another application, it will never do it again. For example: I launch my app, then launch some fullscreep app like Team Fortress 2. Then I press my hotkey. Team Fortress 2 minimizes, and I see my form. Then, however, I can restore TF2, and press my hotkey again all I want (with the desired effect), and TF2 will remain focused. At any rate, I'm looking for a way to fix this. I've found a lot of questions here covering similar problems, but all of them are related to creating/launching a new form, not making an existing one visible (unless I missed something). I could rework the application to create a new form every time I need one, but that would entail creating yet another form to be invisible all the time just to wait for hotkey events, so I'd rather leave it as it is. Any ideas?

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