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  • How do I ensure only the headers are shown for the first item in an ItemsControl in WPF?

    - by Dan Ryan
    I am using MVVM binding an ObservableCollection of children to an ItemsControl. The ItemsControl contains a UserControl used to style the UI for the children. <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Documents}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <View:DocumentView Margin="0, 10, 0, 0" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> I want to show a header row for the contents of the ItemsControl but only want to show this once at the top (not for every child). How can I implement this behaviour in the DocumentView user control? Fyi I am using a Grid layout to style the child rows: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="34"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="100"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="60" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.Row="0" Text="Should only show this at the top"></TextBlock> <Image Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Height="24" Width="24" Source="/Beazley.Documents.Presentation;component/Icons/error.png"></Image> <ComboBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="ContentTypes" ItemsSource="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.ContentTypes}" SelectedValue="{Binding ContentType}"/> <TextBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Text="{Binding Path=FileName}"/> <Button Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="1" Command="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type View:MainView}}, Path=DataContext.RemoveFile}" CommandParameter="{Binding}">Remove</Button> </Grid>

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  • Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

    - by Michael Jones
    I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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  • How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ?

    - by Ernst de Haan
    How do I make the manifest available during a Maven/Surefire unittest run "mvn test" ? I have an open-source project that I am converting from Ant to Maven, including its unit tests. Here's the project source repository with the Maven project: http://github.com/znerd/logdoc My question pertains to the primary module, called "base". This module has a unit test that tests the behaviour of the static method getVersion() in the class org.znerd.logdoc.Library. This method returns: Library.class.getPackage().getImplementationVersion() The getImplementationVersion() method returns a value of a setting in the manifest file. So far, so good. I have tested this in the past and it works well, as long as the manifest is indeed available on the classpath at the path META-INF/MANIFEST.MF (either on the file system or inside a JAR file). Now my challenge is that the manifest file is not available when I run the unit tests: mvn test Surefire runs the unit tests, but my unit test fails with a mesage indicating that Library.getVersion() returned null. When I want to check the JAR, I find that it has not even been generated. Maven/Surefire runs the unit tests against the classes, before the resources are added to the classpath. So can I either run the unit tests against the JAR (implicitly requiring the JAR to be generated first) or can I make sure the resources (including the manifest file) are generated/copied under target/classes before the unit tests are run? Note that I use Maven 2.2.0, Java 1.6.0_17 on Mac OS X 10.6.2, with JUnit 4.8.1.

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  • How do I model teams and gameplay in this scorekeeping application?

    - by Eric Hill
    I'm writing a scorekeeping application for card game that has a few possibly-interesting constraints. The application accepts user registrations for players, then lets them check-in to a particular game (modeled as Event). After the final player registers, the app should generate teams, singles or doubles, depending on the preference of the person running the game and some validations (can't do doubles if there's an odd number checked in). There are @event.teams.count rounds in the game. To sum up: An event consists of `@event.teams.count` rounds; Teams can have 1 or more players Events have n or n/2 teams (depending on whether it's singles or doubles) Users will be members of different teams at different events Currently I have a rat's nest of associations: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :teams, :through => :players has_many :events, :through => :teams class Event < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rounds has_many :teams has_many :players, :through => :teams class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :team end class Team < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :players belongs_to :event end class Round < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :event belongs_to :user end The sticky part is team generation. I have basically a "start game" button that should freeze the registrations and pair up teams either singly or doubly, and render to Round#new so that the first (and subsequent) matches can be scored. Currently I'm implementing this as a check on Round#new that calls Event#generate_teams and displays the view: # Event#generate_teams def generate_teams # User has_many :events, :through => :registrations # self.doubles is a boolean denoting 2 players per team registrations.in_groups_of(self.doubles ? 2 : 1, nil).each do |side| self.teams << Player.create(self,side) end end Which doesn't work. Should there maybe be a Game model that ties everything together rather than (my current method) defining the game as an abstraction via the relationships between Events, Users, and Rounds (and Teams and Players and etc.)? My head is swimming.

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  • MXML composite container initialization error

    - by mkorpela
    I'm getting an odd error from my composite canvas component: An ActionScript error has occurred: Error: null at mx.core::Container/initialize()[C:\autobuild\galaga\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\Container.as:2560] at -REMOVED THIS FOR STACK OVERFLOW-.view::EditableCanvas/initialize()[.../view/EditableCanvas .... It seems to be related to the fact that my composite component has a child and I'm trying to add one in the place I'm using the component. So how can I do this correctly? Component code looks like this (EditableCanvas.mxml): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <mx:Image id="editTextImage" source="@Embed('/../assets/icons/small/edit.png')"/> </mx:Canvas> The code that is using the code looks like this: <view:EditableCanvas width="290" height="120" backgroundColor="#FFFFFF" horizontalScrollPolicy="off" borderStyle="solid" cornerRadius="3"> <mx:Text id="textContentBox" width="270" fontFamily="nautics" fontSize="12" text="{_text}"/> </view:EditableCanvas>

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  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • bind event handler on keydown listen function JavaScript jQuery

    - by user1644123
    I am trying to bind a handler to an event. The event is a keydown function. The handler will listen for hit variables to produce one of two conditions. The 1st condition (odd number of hits) will perform 1 function, the 2nd (even number of hits) will perform another function. To elaborate, the 1st function will scroll to one element, the 2nd will scroll to another element. My syntax may be the wrong approach, but it works for the 1st condition, but not the 2nd. I think I have the conditional statement in the wrong place. How can I rewrite this to work as intended? Thank you kindly, in advance! $(document).keydown(function(e) { switch (e.which) { case 37: break; case 38: break; case 39: break; case 40: //bottom arrow key var hits = 0; if (hits % 2 !== 0) { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scrollToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } else { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scroll2ToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } hits++; return false; break; } })? *I moved "var hits = 0;" to the top, but it only works! But is there a way I can reset the whole thing after every two hits? I want to reset because when there is a bug and if I press a 3rd time it scrolls to the very top of the page, where there is no element to make it scroll to the top. Why would it scroll to the top of the page if I never scripted it to do so?? *

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • Question regarding ip checksum code

    - by looktt
    unsigned short /* this function generates header checksums */ csum (unsigned short *buf, int nwords) { unsigned long sum; for (sum = 0; nwords > 0; nwords--) // add words(16bits) together sum += *buf++; sum = (sum >> 16) + (sum & 0xffff); //add carry over sum += (sum >> 16); //what does this step do??? add possible left-over //byte? But isn't it already added in the loop (if //any)? return ((unsigned short) ~sum); } I assume nwords in the number of 16bits word, not 8bits byte (if there are odd byte, nword is rounded to next large), is it correct? The line sum = (sum 16) + (sum & 0xffff) is to add carry over to make 16bit complement sum += (sum 16); What's the purpose of this step? Add left-over byte? How? Thanks!

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  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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  • How to select the first property with unknown name from JSON and how to select first item from array

    - by Oscar Godson
    I actually have two questions, both are probably simple, but for some odd reason I cant figure it out... I've worked with JSON 100s of times before too! but here is the JSON in question: {"69256":{"streaminfo":{"stream_ID":"1025","sourceowner_ID":"2","sourceowner_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/sourceowner_avatar2.jpg","sourceownertype_ID":"1","stream_name":"Twitter","streamtype":"Social media","appsarray":[]},"item":{"headline":"Charboy","main_image":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","summary":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner...","nozzl_captured":"2010-05-12 23:02:12","geoarray":[{"state":"OR","county":"Multnomah","city":"Portland","neighborhood":"Downtown","zip":"97205","street":"462 SW 11th Ave","latitude":"45.5219","longitude":"-122.682"}],"full_content":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","body_text":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.","author_name":"Charboy","author_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg","fulltext_url":"http:\/\/twitter.com\/charboy\/statuses\/13889868936","leftovers":{"twitter_id":"tag:search.twitter.com,2005:13889868936","date":"2010-05-13T02:59:59Z","location":"iPhone: 45.521866,-122.682262"},"wordarray":{"0":"ate","1":"tomato","2":"avocado","3":"dinner","4":"tonight","5":"tasty","6":"foods","7":"just","8":"enjoyable","9":"Charboy","11":"Twitter","13":"state:OR","14":"county:Multnomah, OR","15":"city:Portland, OR","16":"neighborhood:Downtown","17":"zip:97205"}}}} Question 1: How do I loop through each item (69256) when the number is random? e.g. item 1 is 123, item2 is 646? Like, for example, a normal JSON feed would have something like: {'item':{'blah':'lorem'},'item':{'blah':'ipsum'}} the JS would be like console.log(item.blah) to return lorem then ipsum in a loop How do I do it when i dont know the first item of the object? Question 2: How do I select items from the geoarray object? I tried: json.test.item.geoarray.latitude and json.test.item.geoarray['latitude']

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • Why compiling in Flash IDE I cannot access stage in a Sprite constructor before addChild while if I

    - by yuri
    I've created this simple class (omissing package directive and imports) public class Viewer extends Sprite { public function Viewer():void { trace(stage); } } then in Flash IDE I import in first frame this AS: import Viewer var viewer = new Viewer(); stage.addChild(viewer); trace(viewer.stage); and this works as I expected: the first trace called in constructor say stage is "null" because I haven't yet add viewer to a DisplayObjectContainer. The second one output the stage object. So I created a project using AXDT eclipse plugin, I've recreated and compiled only the first class (trashed the AS init script used in Flash IDE because is not needed) and on the first trace ... wow ... the stage is filled with the stage Object. I seems to me that the compiler used by AXDT (Flex4 SDK open source) add the class... before construct it (!?).. to a DisplayObjectContainer already attached to a Stage. I want to understand how can reproduce this behaviour using compiler in Flash IDE so I can directrly access Stage in construction.

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • jquery - problem with executing annimation of two separate objects, one after another

    - by MoreThanChaos
    Hello I have problem to put together animations of two separate objects to second one start when first one ends. I tried to use callback but it seems that i make some syntax misteakes which crash jQuery or cause some unexpected behaviour. It seems that i'm stuck so I'd like to ask You for best way to put these animations together to act the way I want. in mouseenter 1st .pp grows, 2nd .tt fade in in mouseleave 1st .tt fade out, 2nd .pp shrink It's alsp relevant that animations doesn't pile up, i mean here animation called by one event doesnt wait until other animation in progress will end. In generall exactly what is below but yo be animated one after another, not simultanously. $('.pp').bind({ mouseenter: function() { $(this).animate({ width: $(this).children(".tt").outerWidth(), height: $(this).children(".tt").outerHeight() },{duration:1000,queue:false} ); $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 1.0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); }, mouseleave: function() { $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); $(this).animate({ width: 17, height: 17 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); } });

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  • How can you make the copyright text in a Google Map wrap when the map is small?

    - by Paul D. Waite
    When you embed a Google Map on a web page, copyright text is included on the map. This is the HTML: <div style="border-top: 10px solid rgb(204, 0, 0); -moz-user-select: none; z-index: 0; position: absolute; right: 3px; bottom: 2px; color: black; font-family: Arial,sans-serif; font-size: 11px; white-space: normal; text-align: right; margin-left: 70px; width: 210px;" dir="ltr"> <span></span> <span>Map data &copy;2010 LeadDog Consulting, Europa Technologies - </span> <a href="http://www.google.com/intl/en_ALL/help/terms_maps.html" target="_blank" class="gmnoprint terms-of-use-link" style="color: rgb(119, 119, 204);">Terms of Use</a> <span></span> </div> If you embed a map with a small width, the copyright text extends outside of the <div>, instead of wrapping within it. I’ve tried using jQuery to select this HTML based on its contents (using :contains()), but it doesn’t seem to work in IE 8 (which is odd, as it works fine in IE 7). Any idea what’s up with IE 8? Any other methods to achieve the same result?

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  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • CSS background images not showing in IE?

    - by Kevin
    In IE8 and below, I'm doing this <ul class="dependants_list" style="border-bottom: dashed 1px #53a1dc"> <li class="dependants_summary"> <strong>Name:</strong> De Silva, Angelina<br /> <strong>Gender:</strong> Female<br /> <strong>Date of birth:</strong> 7/3/2009<br /> </li> <form action="/Dependant/Delete/11413" method="get"><input class="delete btn" id="Delete_this_Profile" name="Delete_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Delete this Profile" /> </form><form action="/Dependant/Edit/11413" method="get"><input class="edit btn" id="Modify_this_Profile" name="Modify_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Modify this Profile" /> </form><br /><hr style="display:none" /> and the CSS for it is: .dependants_summary { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 10px; padding-right: 0px; padding-left: 85px; padding-top: 5px; padding-bottom: 5px; width: 430px; float: left; font: 120% Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .dependants_list { padding: 0; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(odd) { background: #fff url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(even) { background: #c9e3f4 url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } The images are not being shown in IE, but they are in ffox and chrome

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  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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  • How would i go about showing the closest paragraph element to a unique link with jQuery?

    - by Nike
    The title is a bit rusty, sorry about that. Now let me explain what i'm trying to do. I have a few listed items, like this: <li> <a id="toggle" class="0"><h4>ämne<small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="0">text</p> </li> <li class='odd'> <a id="toggle" class="1"><h4>test<small>2010-04-17 kl 15:01</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="1">test meddelande :) [a]http://youtube.com[/a]</p> </li> The function i'm trying to achieve, is that when a user clicks a "toggle" link (the h4 text), i want the paragraph element below it to fade in. I thought of the idea of giving both the toggle link and the paragraph the same class, and then somehow make it get the paragraph with the same class as the toggle link clicked, and show it? But i'm not entirely sure how to do that either, and tbh, it doesn't sound like the greatest idea, but maybe that's the only way? I don't know... Is there some way to just simply get the nearest paragraph (below the link) with the id "meddel" and fade it in? That sounds a bit easier... I hope you can at least give me a few hints. Thanks in advance, -Nike

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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  • Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

    - by nomemory
    Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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  • rich:editor ruins html?

    - by Ben
    Hi, Strange behaviour. I use rich:editor with these attributes: (Irrelevant data removed) HtmlEditor editor = new HtmlEditor(); editor.setValueExpression("value", ve); editor.setTheme("advanced"); editor.setValueExpression("viewMode", viewModeValueExpression); panel.getChildren().add(editor); Now my problem is that whenever I load a ready-made html text such as this (In source mode): <html lang="en" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Done</title> </head> <body style="direction: ltr; font-size: medium; color: #0000FF;"> <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Image Editor.</p> </body> </html> Change to VisualMode and then back to SourceMode, I see that the editor removed all of my html data and now the source mode is this: <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Chul Muzal.</p> Anyone knows why this happens? Thanks!!

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