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  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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  • confusing fork system call

    - by benjamin button
    Hi, i was just checking the behaviour of fork system call and i found it very confusing. i saw in a website that Unix will make an exact copy of the parent's address space and give it to the child. Therefore, the parent and child processes have separate address spaces #include <stdio.h> #include <sys/types.h> int main(void) { pid_t pid; char y='Y'; char *ptr; ptr=&y; pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { y='Z'; printf(" *** Child process ***\n"); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); sleep(5); } else { sleep(5); printf("\n ***parent process ***\n",&y); printf(" Address is %p\n",ptr); printf(" char value is %c\n",y); } } the output of the above program is : *** Child process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Z ***parent process *** Address is 69002894 char value is Y so from the above mentioned statement it seems that child and parent have separet address spaces.this is the reason why char value is printed separately and why am i seeing the address of the variable as same in both child and parent processes.? Please help me understand this!

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  • ExecutorService memory leak on exception

    - by TofuBeer
    I am having a hard time tracking this down since the profiler keeps crashing (hotspot error). Before I go too deep into figuring it out I'd like to know if I really have a problem or not :-) I have a few thread pools created via: Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); The threads connect to different web sites and, on occasion, I get connection refused and wind up throwing an exception. When I later on call Future.get() to get the result it will then catch the ExecutionException that wraps the exception that was thrown when the connection could not be made. The program uses a fairly constant amount of memory up until the point in time that the exceptions get thrown (they tend to happen in batches when a particular site is overloaded). After that point the memory again remains constant but at a higher level. So my question is along the lines of is the memory behaviour (reported by "top" on Unix) expected because the exceptions just triggered something or do I probably have an actual leak that I'll need to track down? Additionally when Future.get() throws an exception is there anything else I need to do besides catch the exception (such as call Future.cancel() on it)?

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  • Question regarding ip checksum code

    - by looktt
    unsigned short /* this function generates header checksums */ csum (unsigned short *buf, int nwords) { unsigned long sum; for (sum = 0; nwords > 0; nwords--) // add words(16bits) together sum += *buf++; sum = (sum >> 16) + (sum & 0xffff); //add carry over sum += (sum >> 16); //what does this step do??? add possible left-over //byte? But isn't it already added in the loop (if //any)? return ((unsigned short) ~sum); } I assume nwords in the number of 16bits word, not 8bits byte (if there are odd byte, nword is rounded to next large), is it correct? The line sum = (sum 16) + (sum & 0xffff) is to add carry over to make 16bit complement sum += (sum 16); What's the purpose of this step? Add left-over byte? How? Thanks!

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  • ASP.Net MVC 2 - How to set up a Cancel button with client side navigation

    - by arame3333
    Thanks to a previous question I found a useful link on multiple buttons. http://weblogs.asp.net/dfindley/archive/2009/05/31/asp-net-mvc-multiple-buttons-in-the-same-form.aspx What I want to do is have a cancel button on my page, similar to this; <button name="button" type="button" onclick="document.location.href=$('#cancelUrl').attr('href')">Cancel</button> <a id="cancelUrl" href="<%: Url.Action("Index", "Home") %>" style="display:none;"></a> However although this code works, I really want to go back to the previous page. For Web Forms I could use the javascript Back() or Go(-1) functions, but they relied on postbacks. I could of course hard code the previous page and controller as I have done above. However I am struggling to find links that explain to me how Url.Action works. Because if I do this, I also need to include an index parameter, and I am not clear how the syntax works for that. It seems odd the amount of coding to do this. Out of curiosity, I am also wondering how you TDD client side code like this.

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • bind event handler on keydown listen function JavaScript jQuery

    - by user1644123
    I am trying to bind a handler to an event. The event is a keydown function. The handler will listen for hit variables to produce one of two conditions. The 1st condition (odd number of hits) will perform 1 function, the 2nd (even number of hits) will perform another function. To elaborate, the 1st function will scroll to one element, the 2nd will scroll to another element. My syntax may be the wrong approach, but it works for the 1st condition, but not the 2nd. I think I have the conditional statement in the wrong place. How can I rewrite this to work as intended? Thank you kindly, in advance! $(document).keydown(function(e) { switch (e.which) { case 37: break; case 38: break; case 39: break; case 40: //bottom arrow key var hits = 0; if (hits % 2 !== 0) { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scrollToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } else { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scroll2ToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } hits++; return false; break; } })? *I moved "var hits = 0;" to the top, but it only works! But is there a way I can reset the whole thing after every two hits? I want to reset because when there is a bug and if I press a 3rd time it scrolls to the very top of the page, where there is no element to make it scroll to the top. Why would it scroll to the top of the page if I never scripted it to do so?? *

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  • How would i go about showing the closest paragraph element to a unique link with jQuery?

    - by Nike
    The title is a bit rusty, sorry about that. Now let me explain what i'm trying to do. I have a few listed items, like this: <li> <a id="toggle" class="0"><h4>ämne<small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="0">text</p> </li> <li class='odd'> <a id="toggle" class="1"><h4>test<small>2010-04-17 kl 15:01</small></h4></a> <p id="meddel" class="1">test meddelande :) [a]http://youtube.com[/a]</p> </li> The function i'm trying to achieve, is that when a user clicks a "toggle" link (the h4 text), i want the paragraph element below it to fade in. I thought of the idea of giving both the toggle link and the paragraph the same class, and then somehow make it get the paragraph with the same class as the toggle link clicked, and show it? But i'm not entirely sure how to do that either, and tbh, it doesn't sound like the greatest idea, but maybe that's the only way? I don't know... Is there some way to just simply get the nearest paragraph (below the link) with the id "meddel" and fade it in? That sounds a bit easier... I hope you can at least give me a few hints. Thanks in advance, -Nike

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  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

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  • Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

    - by Telos
    This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

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  • diffuculty in appending images dynamically in an Custom List View

    - by ganesh
    Hi I have written an custom List view which binds images according to the result from a feed @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; if (convertView == null) { convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.row_for_stopnames, null); holder = new ViewHolder(); holder.name = (TextView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.stop_name); holder.dis = (TextView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.distance); holder.route_one=(ImageView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.one); holder.route_two=(ImageView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.two); holder.route_three=(ImageView)convertView.findViewById(R.id.three); convertView.setTag(holder); } else { holder = (ViewHolder) convertView.getTag(); } holder.name.setText(elements.get(position).get("stop_name")); holder.dis.setText(elements.get(position).get("distance")); String[] route_txt=elements.get(position).get("route_name").split(","); for(int i=0;i<route_txt.length;i++) { if(i==0) { holder.route_one.setBackgroundResource(Utils.getRouteImage().get(stop_txt[0])); } else if(i==1) { holder.route_two.setBackgroundResource(Utils.getRouteImage().get(stop_txt[1])); } else if(i==2) { holder.route_three.setBackgroundResource(Utils.getRouteImage().get(stop_txt[2])); } } convertView.setOnClickListener(new OnItemClickListener(position,elements)); return convertView; } class ViewHolder { TextView name; TextView dis; ImageView route_one; ImageView route_two; ImageView route_three; } for every stop name there may be route_names, maximum of three routes.I have to bind images according to the number of route names.This is what I tried to do by the above code .This works fine until I start scrolling up and down .When I do so the route images gets displayed where it does not want to be,this behaviour is unpredictable.I will be glad if someone explain me why this happens,and the best way to do this.The getRouteImage method of Utils class returns HashMap with key String and value a drawable

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  • MXML composite container initialization error

    - by mkorpela
    I'm getting an odd error from my composite canvas component: An ActionScript error has occurred: Error: null at mx.core::Container/initialize()[C:\autobuild\galaga\frameworks\projects\framework\src\mx\core\Container.as:2560] at -REMOVED THIS FOR STACK OVERFLOW-.view::EditableCanvas/initialize()[.../view/EditableCanvas .... It seems to be related to the fact that my composite component has a child and I'm trying to add one in the place I'm using the component. So how can I do this correctly? Component code looks like this (EditableCanvas.mxml): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <mx:Image id="editTextImage" source="@Embed('/../assets/icons/small/edit.png')"/> </mx:Canvas> The code that is using the code looks like this: <view:EditableCanvas width="290" height="120" backgroundColor="#FFFFFF" horizontalScrollPolicy="off" borderStyle="solid" cornerRadius="3"> <mx:Text id="textContentBox" width="270" fontFamily="nautics" fontSize="12" text="{_text}"/> </view:EditableCanvas>

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  • Private Java class properties mysteriously reset between method calls....

    - by Michael Jones
    I have a very odd problem. A class property is mysteriously reset between method calls. The following code is executed so the constructor is called, then the parseConfiguration method is called. Finally, processData is called. The parseConfiguration method sets the "recursive" property to "true". However, as soon as it enters "processData", "recursive" becomes "false". This problem isn't isolated to a single class -- I have several examples of this in my code. How can this possibly be happening? I've tried initialising properties when they're declared outside any methods, I've tried initialising them in constructors... nothing works. The only complication I can think of here is that this class is invoked by an object that runs in a thread -- but here is one instance per thread, so surely no chance that threads are interfering. I've tried setting both methods to "synchronized", but this still happens. Please help! /** * This class or its superclasses are NOT threaded and don't extend Thread */ public class DirectoryAcquirer extends Manipulator { /** * @var Whether to recursively scan directories */ private boolean recursive = false; /** * Constructor */ public DirectoryAcquirer() { } /** * Constructor that initialises the configuration * * @param config * @throws InvalidConfigurationException */ public DirectoryAcquirer(HierarchicalConfiguration config) throws InvalidConfigurationException { super(config); } @Override protected void parseConfiguration() throws InvalidConfigurationException { // set whether to recurse into directories or not if (this.config.containsKey("recursive")) { // this.recursive gets set to "true" here this.recursive = this.config.getBoolean("recursive"); } } @Override public EntityCollection processData(EntityCollection data) { // here this.recursive is "false" this.logger.debug("processData: Entered method"); } }

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  • Potential g++ template bug?

    - by Evan Teran
    I've encountered some code which I think should compile, but doesn't. So I'm hoping some of the local standards experts here at SO can help :-). I basically have some code which resembles this: #include <iostream> template <class T = int> class A { public: class U { }; public: U f() const { return U(); } }; // test either the work around or the code I want... #ifndef USE_FIX template <class T> bool operator==(const typename A<T>::U &x, int y) { return true; } #else typedef A<int> AI; bool operator==(const AI::U &x, int y) { return true; } #endif int main() { A<int> a; std::cout << (a.f() == 1) << std::endl; } So, to describe what is going on here. I have a class template (A) which has an internal class (U) and at least one member function which can return an instance of that internal class (f()). Then I am attempting to create an operator== function which compares this internal type to some other type (in this case an int, but it doesn't seem to matter). When USE_FIX is not defined I get the following error: test.cc: In function 'int main()': test.cc:27:25: error: no match for 'operator==' in 'a.A<T>::f [with T = int]() == 1' Which seems odd, because I am clearly (I think) defining a templated operator== which should cover this, in fact if I just do a little of the work for the compiler (enable USE_FIX), then I no longer get an error. Unfortunately, the "fix" doesn't work generically, only for a specific instantiation of the template. Is this supposed to work as I expected? Or is this simply not allowed? BTW: if it matters I am using gcc 4.5.2.

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  • Should i enforce realloc check if the new block size is smaller than the initial ?

    - by nomemory
    Can realloc fail in this case ? int *a = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); printf("1.ptr: %d \n", a); a = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); printf("2.ptr: %d \n", a); if(a == NULL){ printf("Is it possible?"); } return (0); } The output in my case is: 1.ptr: 4072560 2.ptr: 4072560 So 'a' points to the same adress. So should i enforce realloc check ? Later edit: Using MinGW compiler under Windows XP. Is the behaviour similar with gcc on Linux ? Later edit 2: Is it OK to check this way ? int *a = NULL, *b = NULL; a = calloc(100, sizeof(*a)); b = realloc(a, 50 * sizeof(*a)); if(b == NULL){ return a; } a = b; return a;

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  • Is it right that Strophe.addHandler reads only first node from response?

    - by markcial
    I'm starting to learn strophe library usage and when i use addHandler to parse response it seems to read only first node of xml response so when i receive a xml like that : <body xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/httpbind'> <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='avaliable' id='5593:sendIQ'> <status/> </presence> <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test@localhost' to='test2@localhost' xml:lang='en'> <status /> </presence> <iq xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='result'> <query xmlns='jabber:iq:roster'> <item subscription='both' name='test' jid='test@localhost'> <group>test group</group> </item> </query> </iq> </body> With the handler testHandler used like that : connection.addHandler(testHandler,null,"presence"); function testHandler(stanza){ console.log(stanza); } It only logs : <presence xmlns='jabber:client' from='test2@localhost' to='test2@localhost' type='avaliable' id='5593:sendIQ'> <status/> </presence> What i am missing? is it a right behaviour? Should i add more handlers to get the other stanzas? Thanks for advance

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  • rich:editor ruins html?

    - by Ben
    Hi, Strange behaviour. I use rich:editor with these attributes: (Irrelevant data removed) HtmlEditor editor = new HtmlEditor(); editor.setValueExpression("value", ve); editor.setTheme("advanced"); editor.setValueExpression("viewMode", viewModeValueExpression); panel.getChildren().add(editor); Now my problem is that whenever I load a ready-made html text such as this (In source mode): <html lang="en" xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>Done</title> </head> <body style="direction: ltr; font-size: medium; color: #0000FF;"> <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Image Editor.</p> </body> </html> Change to VisualMode and then back to SourceMode, I see that the editor removed all of my html data and now the source mode is this: <p>When the menu loads, navigate to and open Chul Muzal.</p> Anyone knows why this happens? Thanks!!

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  • CSS background images not showing in IE?

    - by Kevin
    In IE8 and below, I'm doing this <ul class="dependants_list" style="border-bottom: dashed 1px #53a1dc"> <li class="dependants_summary"> <strong>Name:</strong> De Silva, Angelina<br /> <strong>Gender:</strong> Female<br /> <strong>Date of birth:</strong> 7/3/2009<br /> </li> <form action="/Dependant/Delete/11413" method="get"><input class="delete btn" id="Delete_this_Profile" name="Delete_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Delete this Profile" /> </form><form action="/Dependant/Edit/11413" method="get"><input class="edit btn" id="Modify_this_Profile" name="Modify_this_Profile" type="submit" value="Modify this Profile" /> </form><br /><hr style="display:none" /> and the CSS for it is: .dependants_summary { overflow: hidden; margin-bottom: 10px; padding-right: 0px; padding-left: 85px; padding-top: 5px; padding-bottom: 5px; width: 430px; float: left; font: 120% Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .dependants_list { padding: 0; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(odd) { background: #fff url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } .dependants_list li:nth-child(even) { background: #c9e3f4 url("../images/dependant_male.png") no-repeat scroll 8px 9px; } The images are not being shown in IE, but they are in ffox and chrome

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  • jquery - problem with executing annimation of two separate objects, one after another

    - by MoreThanChaos
    Hello I have problem to put together animations of two separate objects to second one start when first one ends. I tried to use callback but it seems that i make some syntax misteakes which crash jQuery or cause some unexpected behaviour. It seems that i'm stuck so I'd like to ask You for best way to put these animations together to act the way I want. in mouseenter 1st .pp grows, 2nd .tt fade in in mouseleave 1st .tt fade out, 2nd .pp shrink It's alsp relevant that animations doesn't pile up, i mean here animation called by one event doesnt wait until other animation in progress will end. In generall exactly what is below but yo be animated one after another, not simultanously. $('.pp').bind({ mouseenter: function() { $(this).animate({ width: $(this).children(".tt").outerWidth(), height: $(this).children(".tt").outerHeight() },{duration:1000,queue:false} ); $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 1.0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); }, mouseleave: function() { $(this).children(".tt").animate({ opacity: 0 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); $(this).animate({ width: 17, height: 17 }, {duration:1000,queue:false}); } });

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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  • Why do bind1st and bind2nd require constant function objects?

    - by rlbond
    So, I was writing a C++ program which would allow me to take control of the entire world. I was all done writing the final translation unit, but I got an error: error C3848: expression having type 'const `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>' would lose some const-volatile qualifiers in order to call 'void `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>::operator ()(const point::Point &,const int &)' with [ T=SideCounter, BinaryFunction=std::plus<int> ] c:\program files (x86)\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\functional(324) : while compiling class template member function 'void std::binder2nd<_Fn2>::operator ()(point::Point &) const' with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] c:\users\****\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\TAKE_OVER_THE_WORLD\grid_divider.cpp(361) : see reference to class template instantiation 'std::binder2nd<_Fn2>' being compiled with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] I looked in the specifications of binder2nd and there it was: it took a const AdaptibleBinaryFunction. So, not a big deal, I thought. I just used boost::bind instead, right? Wrong! Now my take-over-the-world program takes too long to compile (bind is used inside a template which is instantiated quite a lot)! At this rate, my nemesis is going to take over the world first! I can't let that happen -- he uses Java! So can someone tell me why this design decision was made? It seems like an odd decision. I guess I'll have to make some of the elements of my class mutable for now...

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