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  • Currently using View, Should I use a hard table instead?

    - by 1001010101
    I am currently debating whether my table, mapping_uGroups_uProducts, which is a view formed by the following table: CREATE ALGORITHM=UNDEFINED DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` SQL SECURITY DEFINER VIEW `db`.`mapping_uGroups_uProducts` AS select distinct `X`.`upID` AS `upID`,`Z`.`ugID` AS `ugID` from ((`db`.`mapping_uProducts_Products` `X` join `db`.`productsInfo` `Y` on((`X`.`pID` = `Y`.`pID`))) join `db`.`mapping_uGroups_Groups` `Z` on((`Y`.`gID` = `Z`.`gID`))); My current query is: SELECT upID FROM uProductsInfo \ JOIN fs_uProducts USING (upID) column \ JOIN mapping_uGroups_uProducts USING (upID) -- could be faster if we use hard table and index \ JOIN mapping_fs_key USING (fsKeyID) \ WHERE fsName="OVERALL" \ AND ugID=1 \ ORDER BY score DESC \ LIMIT 0,30; which is pretty slow. (for 30 results, it requires about 10 secondes). I think the reason for my query being so slow is definitely due to the fact that that particular query relies on a VIEW which has no index to speed things up. +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ | 1 | PRIMARY | mapping_fs_key | const | PRIMARY,fsName | fsName | 386 | const | 1 | Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | PRIMARY | <derived2> | ALL | NULL | NULL | NULL | NULL | 19706 | Using where | | 1 | PRIMARY | uProductsInfo | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | mapping_uGroups_uProducts.upID | 1 | Using index | | 1 | PRIMARY | fs_uProducts | ref | upID | upID | 4 | db.uProductsInfo.upID | 221 | Using where | | 2 | DERIVED | X | ALL | PRIMARY | NULL | NULL | NULL | 40772 | Using temporary | | 2 | DERIVED | Y | eq_ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.X.pID | 1 | Distinct | | 2 | DERIVED | Z | ref | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | db.Y.gID | 2 | Using index; Distinct | +----+-------------+----------------+--------+----------------+---------+---------+---------------------------------------+-------+---------------------------------+ 7 rows in set (0.48 sec) The explain here looks pretty cryptic, and I don't know whether I should drop view and write a script to just insert everything in the view to a hard table. ( obviously, it will lose the flexibility of the view since the mapping changes quite frequently). Does anyone have any idea to how I can optimize my schema better?

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  • How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

    - by Sumeet Pareek
    Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

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  • SQLAlchemy, one to many vs many to one

    - by sadvaw
    Dear Everyone, I have the following data: CREATE TABLE `groups` ( `bookID` INT NOT NULL, `groupID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`bookID`), KEY( `groupID`) ); and a book table which basically has books( bookID, name, ... ), but WITHOUT groupID. There is no way for me to determine what the groupID is at the time of the insert for books. I want to do this in sqlalchemy. Hence I tried mapping Book to the books joined with groups on book.bookID=groups.bookID. I made the following: tb_groups = Table( 'groups', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, ForeignKey('books.bookID'), primary_key=True ), Column('groupID', Integer), ) tb_books = Table( 'books', metadata, Column('bookID', Integer, primary_key=True), tb_joinedBookGroup = sql.join( tb_books, tb_groups, \ tb_books.c.bookID == tb_groups.c.bookID) and defined the following mapper: mapper( Group, tb_groups, properties={ 'books': relation(Book, backref='group') }) mapper( Book, tb_joinedBookGroup ) ... However, when I execute this piece of code, I realized that each book object has a field groups, which is a list, and each group object has books field which is a singular assigment. I think my definition here must have been causing sqlalchemy to be confused about the many-to-one vs one-to-many relationship. Can someone help me sort this out? My desired goal is g.books = [b, b, b, .. ] book.group = g, where g is an instance of group, and b is an instance of book

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  • How do I implement a group of strings that starts randomly, but is bound by relevance upon selection?

    - by Freakishly
    Okay the title may be a little confusing, but here's what I'm trying to do :) I have a game in XNA where every tap from the user draws a moving circle on the screen. The circle has a tag, say 'dogs' displayed on it. So imagine multiple taps on the screen, and we have all these circles of various colors and sizes moving around the screen with different (but constant) velocities. Each circle with different tags: 'dogs', 'cats' and so on... Clicking on empty space generates a new circle at that point. Clicking on one of the circles "selects" it, turning it into a greeen shade and slowing its velocity down to a fraction of what it was. Clicking on it again "unselects" it, and restores its original color and velocity (trajectory does not change). With each circle comes a tag, and as of now I'm populating these tags randomly from a string array (which means there's a chance tags will repeat). I would like the tags for newly created circles to be relevant to previous "selected" tags. So when I click on 'dogs', I would like 'German Shepherd' but I would also like 'dog parks' and 'lemurs' assuming dogs get along well with lemurs. What would be the best way to approach this problem. In my head I have a massive many-to-many mapping, but I can't seem to translate it to code. Thanks for looking. FYI I'm using the sample project from here: http://mobile.tutsplus.com/tutorials/windows/introduction-to-xna-on-windows-phone-7/

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  • Can TFS workspaces be used without being tied to a specific machine?

    - by GWLlosa
    So I've got a situation where we have a project with 10 developers. Each developer, when they come in for the day, is randomly issued a machine to use for development that day. The machine names are different, say DEV01 - DEV10. At the time that they are issued to the developers, the machines are identical, and no changes the developers make during the day are persisted on the machines (source code changes are stored in TFS, not locally). These are of course actually virtual machines, but that's not really relevant to the point at hand. The problem is that each morning, the developers run into 3 issues: 1) The machine that they are assigned may not be the same machine they were last assigned to. For example, DevMan A might have used DEV04 yesterday, and received DEV06 today. His workspace definitions are now tied to DEV06; he must create a new workspace, or migrate the old workspace to DEV04. 2) The machine that they are assigned may have been in use yesterday, and some of the mappings may conflict. For example, DevMan A might have DEV04 today, and wish to create a workspace mapping the project folder to "C:\MyProj\Solution". However, DevMan B had DEV04 yesterday, and he used the same project folder. TFS now complains. 3) This may be the first time they are on a given machine. They now need to recreate for this machine all of their source-control mappings for the new machine. All of these issues can be resolved in a straightforward fashion on a case-by-case basis, but it does sap some productivity from the morning. We'd much prefer if the TFS workspace definitions could be 'relaxed', such that they did not include the machine name in the definition somehow. Barring that, if anyone is aware of a solution to the above problems that can run automatically, or with limited user intervention, that would also be ideal.

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

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  • Webinvoke to POST JSON with ajax call

    - by G-Man
    This is my first time that I an using WCF Service with Knockout. I want to POST an entire view model as a JSON object with an ajax call. This is the error message that I get: Endpoints using 'UriTemplate' cannot be used with 'System.ServiceModel.Description.WebScriptEnablingBehavior' I have noticed that some developers send each value as a parameter which I feel is unnecessary especially if you work with a big object. This is my WCF method: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "AddNewEvent?newEvent", Method = "POST", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public bool AddNewEvent(Models.DAL_CRMEvents newEvent) { Entities.CRMEntities dbCRM = new Entities.CRMEntities(); //Models.CRMEvents crmEvent = new Models.CRMEvents(); Entities.Event crmEvent = new Entities.Event(); crmEvent.EventDateCreated = Convert.ToDateTime(newEvent.DateCreated); crmEvent.EventActive = true; crmEvent.EventDescription = newEvent.Description; crmEvent.EventDate = Convert.ToDateTime(newEvent.Date); crmEvent.EventTimeStart = TimeSpan.Parse(newEvent.TimeStart); crmEvent.EventTimeEnd = TimeSpan.Parse(newEvent.TimeEnd); crmEvent.EventAllDay = newEvent.AllDay; dbCRM.AddToEvent(crmEvent); return true; } This is my ajax function function SaveEvent (data) { var s = { newEvent: ko.mapping.toJS(data) } alert(data.AllDay()); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../Services/CRMDataService.svc/AddNewEvent", data: JSON.stringify(s), contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "JSON", success: function (result) { alert(result); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { if (textStatus == "error" && errorThrown != "") { var n = noty({ text: errorThrown, type: 'warning', dismissQueue: false, modal: true, layout: 'center', theme: 'defaults', callback: { } }) } } }) }

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  • Translating 3-dimensional array reference onto 1-dimensional array

    - by user146780
    If there is an array of ar[5000] then how could I find where element [5][5][4] would be if this was a 3 dimensional array? Thanks I'm mapping pixels: imagine a bimap of [768 * 1024 * 4] where would pixel [5][5][4] be? I want to make this: static GLubyte checkImage[checkImageHeight][checkImageWidth][4]; static GLuint texName; bool itt; void makeCheckImage(void) { Bitmap *b = new Bitmap(L"c:/boo.png"); int i, j, c; Color cul; for (i = 0; i < checkImageHeight; i++) { for (j = 0; j < checkImageWidth; j++) { b->GetPixel(j,i,&cul); checkImage[i][j][0] = (GLubyte) cul.GetR(); checkImage[i][j][1] = (GLubyte) cul.GetG(); checkImage[i][j][2] = (GLubyte) cul.GetB(); checkImage[i][j][3] = (GLubyte) cul.GetA(); } } delete(b); } work without making a multidimensional array. width = 512, height = 1024....

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  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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  • Pre Project Documentation

    - by DeanMc
    I have an issue that I feel many programmers can relate to... I have worked on many small scale projects. After my initial paper brain storm I tend to start coding. What I come up with is usually a rough working model of the actual application. I design in a disconnected fashion so I am talking about underlying code libraries, user interfaces are the last thing as the library usually dictates what is needed in the UI. As my projects get bigger I worry that so should my "spec" or design document. The above paragraph, from my investigations, is echoed all across the internet in one fashion or another. When a UI is concerned there is a bit more information but it is UI specific and does not relate to code libraries. What I am beginning to realise is that maybe code is code is code. It seems from my extensive research that there is no 1:1 mapping between a design document and the code. When I need to research a topic I dump information into OneNote and from there I prioritise features into versions and then into related chunks so that development runs in a fairly linear fashion, my tasks tend to look like so: Implement Binary File Reader Implement Binary File Writer Create Object to encapsulate Data for expression to the caller Now any programmer worth his salt is aware that between those three to do items could be a potential wall of code that could expand out to multiple files. I have tried to map the complete code process for each task but I simply don't think it can be done effectively. By the time one mangles pseudo code it is essentially code anyway so the time investment is negated. So my question is this: Am I right in assuming that the best documentation is the code itself. We are all in agreement that a high level overview is needed. How high should this be? Do you design to statement, class or concept level? What works for you?

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  • .NET framework execution aborted while executing CLR stored procedure?

    - by Sean Ochoa
    I constructed a stored procedure that does the equivalent of FOR XML AUTO in SQL Server 2008. Now that I'm testing it, it gives me a really unhelpful error message. What does this error mean? Msg 10329, Level 16, State 49, Procedure ForXML, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: Thread was being aborted. System.Threading.ThreadAbortException: at System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.PtrToStringUni(IntPtr ptr, Int32 len) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.CXVariantBase.WSTRToString() at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.SqlWSTRLimitedBuffer.GetString(SmiEventSink sink) at System.Data.SqlServer.Internal.RowData.GetString(SmiEventSink sink, Int32 i) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue(SmiEventSink_Default sink, ITypedGettersV3 getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Server.ValueUtilsSmi.GetValue200(SmiEventSink_Default sink, SmiTypedGetterSetter getters, Int32 ordinal, SmiMetaData metaData, SmiContext context) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValue(Int32 ordinal) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReaderSmi.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) at ForXML.GetXML...

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  • Android - BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray - OutOfMemoryError (OOM)

    - by Bob Keathley
    I have read 100s of article about the OOM problem. Most are in regard to large bitmaps. I am doing a mapping application where we download 256x256 weather overlay tiles. Most are totally transparent and very small. I just got a crash on a bitmap stream that was 442 Bytes long while calling BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(....). The Exception states: java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget(Heap Size=9415KB, Allocated=5192KB, Bitmap Size=23671KB) The code is: protected Bitmap retrieveImageData() throws IOException { URL url = new URL(imageUrl); InputStream in = null; OutputStream out = null; HttpURLConnection connection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); // determine the image size and allocate a buffer int fileSize = connection.getContentLength(); if (fileSize < 0) { return null; } byte[] imageData = new byte[fileSize]; // download the file //Log.d(LOG_TAG, "fetching image " + imageUrl + " (" + fileSize + ")"); BufferedInputStream istream = new BufferedInputStream(connection.getInputStream()); int bytesRead = 0; int offset = 0; while (bytesRead != -1 && offset < fileSize) { bytesRead = istream.read(imageData, offset, fileSize - offset); offset += bytesRead; } // clean up istream.close(); connection.disconnect(); Bitmap bitmap = null; try { bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(imageData, 0, bytesRead); } catch (OutOfMemoryError e) { Log.e("Map", "Tile Loader (241) Out Of Memory Error " + e.getLocalizedMessage()); System.gc(); } return bitmap; } Here is what I see in the debugger: bytesRead = 442 So the Bitmap data is 442 Bytes. Why would it be trying to create a 23671KB Bitmap and running out of memory?

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  • Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

    - by Vaibhav
    Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

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  • Suggestions on error handling of Win32 C++ code: AtlThrow vs. STL exceptions

    - by EmbeddedProg
    In writing Win32 C++ code, I'd appreciate some hints on how to handle errors of Win32 APIs. In particular, in case of a failure of a Win32 function call (e.g. MapViewOfFile), is it better to: use AtlThrowLastWin32 define a Win32Exception class derived from std::exception, with an added HRESULT data member to store the HRESULT corresponding to value returned by GetLastError? In this latter case, I could use the what() method to return a detailed error string (e.g. "MapViewOfFile call failed in MyClass::DoSomething() method."). What are the pros and cons of 1 vs. 2? Is there any other better option that I am missing? As a side note, if I'd like to localize the component I'm developing, how could I localize the exception what() string? I was thinking of building a table mapping the original English string returned by what() into a Unicode localized error string. Could anyone suggest a better approach? Thanks much for your insights and suggestions.

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  • Post complex types to WebApi Client

    - by BumbleBee
    I am new to WebAPI. I have a MVC project and webApi project both reside under the **same solution**. Also, BLL Class library and DAL class library reside under the same solution. Earlier, my MVC project will talk to the BLL now I am trying to create a WebAPi project which stands in between MVC and BLL. Here is what I have come up with so far : I'm using the HTTPClient to post to a WebApi project. My post method on my controller accepts a single parameter (a model). StatsCriteria criteria = new StatsCriteria(); ...... var client = new HttpClient(); var response = client.PostAsJsonAsync("http://localhost:52765/api/reports", criteria).Result; ....... Here's the signature for my controller in Webapi [HttpPost] public CMAReportVM Reports([FromBody] StatsCriteria criteria) { var cmaReport = Service3.GetCMAReport(criteria.Mlsnums); //Create Map to enable mapping business object to View Model Mapper.CreateMap<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(); // Maps model to VM model class var cmaVM = Mapper.Map<CMAReport, CMAReportVM>(cmaReport); reutn cmaVM; } // and here's my routing: config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } I am getting the following 405 : Method not allowed. As the WebAPI and MVC project both reside under same sloution I am not sure where/how to host my webapi.

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  • Using Java classes(whole module with Spring/Hibernate dependency) in Grails

    - by Sitaram
    I have a Java/Spring/Hibernate application with a payment module. Payment module has some domain classes for payment subscription and transactions etc. Corresponding hibernate mapping files are there. This module uses applicationContext.xml for some of the configuration it needs. Also, This module has a PaymentService which uses a paymentDAO to do all database related work. Now, I want to use this module as it is(without any or minimal re-writing) in my other application(Grails application). I want to bring in the payment module as a jar or copy the source files to src/java folder in Grails. With that background, I have following queries: Will the existing applicationContext.xml for Spring configuration in the module will work as it is in Grails? Does it merge with rest of Grails's Spring config? Where do I put the applicationContext.xml? classpath? src/java should work? Can I bundle the applicationContext.xml in Jar(If I use jar option) and can overwrite in Grails if anything needs to be changed? Multiple bean definition problems in that case? PaymentService recognized as regular service? Will it be auto-injected in controllers and/or other services? Will PaymentDAO use the datasource configuration of Grails? Where do I put the hbm files of this module? Can I bundle the hbm files in Jar(If I use jar option) and can overwrite in Grails if anything needs to be changed? Which hbms are picked? or, there will be problems with that? Too many questions! :) All these concerns are actually before trying. I am going to try this in next few days(busy currently). Any help is appreciated. Thanks. Sitaram Meena

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • SpringFramework3.0: How to create interceptors that only apply to requests that map to certain contr

    - by Fusion2004
    In it's simplest form, I want an interceptor that checks session data to see if a user is logged in, and if not redirects them to the login page. Obviously, I wouldn't want this interceptor to be used on say the welcome page or the login page itself. I've seen a design that uses a listing of every url to one of two interceptors, one doing nothing and the other being the actual interceptor you want implemented, but this design seems very clunky and limits the ease of extensibility of the application. It makes sense to me that there should be an annotation-based way of using interceptors, but this doesn't seem to exist. My friend has the idea of actually modifying the handler class so that during each request it checks the Controller it is mapping the request to for a new annotation we would create (ex @Interceptor("loginInterceptor") ). A major point of my thinking is the extensibility, because I'd like to later implement similar interceptors for role-based authentication and/or administration authentication. Does it sound like my friend's approach would work for this? Or what is a proper way of going about doing this?

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  • Toolbox/framework to construct lightweight public-facing web site

    - by aSteve
    I am aware of full-blown content management systems (CMS) such as SugarCRM and TikiWiki... where content is typically stored in a database... and edited through the same interface as it is published. While I like many of the features, the product is clearly aimed at enterprise-wide use rather than to be public-facing. What I'd like to establish are potential alternatives that fill the space between full-blown CMS and hand-coded bespoke site. I like the way that I can add modules to my CMS... allowing me to quickly introduce new functionality, and I'd like an analogous feature in a system for public web-content. Modules I know I'd like include moderated comments; web-form-to-email gateway; menus/tabs... in future, perhaps mapping or diaries or RSS integration - etc. Where my requirements differ from a CMS, I don't need (or want) most content to be editable through the main site... and, somehow, I do want to be able to preview how updates will be presented to the public rather than to make live changes. For these purposes, in contrast to those where a typical CMS would be ideal, presentation is of paramount importance - and trumps any desire to immediately disseminate information. I realise that this is a very high-level question... (suggestions of additional tags welcome) - I mentioned PHP only as - ideally - I'm looking for an open source solution and a PHP deployment is an easy option. What are my options?

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  • ndarray field names for both row and column?

    - by Graham Mitchell
    I'm a computer science teacher trying to create a little gradebook for myself using NumPy. But I think it would make my code easier to write if I could create an ndarray that uses field names for both the rows and columns. Here's what I've got so far: import numpy as np num_stud = 23 num_assign = 2 grades = np.zeros(num_stud, dtype=[('assign 1','i2'), ('assign 2','i2')]) #etc gv = grades.view(dtype='i2').reshape(num_stud,num_assign) So, if my first student gets a 97 on 'assign 1', I can write either of: grades[0]['assign 1'] = 97 gv[0][0] = 97 Also, I can do the following: np.mean( grades['assign 1'] ) # class average for assignment 1 np.sum( gv[0] ) # total points for student 1 This all works. But what I can't figure out how to do is use a student id number to refer to a particular student (assume that two of my students have student ids as shown): grades['123456']['assign 2'] = 95 grades['314159']['assign 2'] = 83 ...or maybe create a second view with the different field names? np.sum( gview2['314159'] ) # total points for the student with the given id I know that I could create a dict mapping student ids to indices, but that seems fragile and crufty, and I'm hoping there's a better way than: id2i = { '123456': 0, '314159': 1 } np.sum( gv[ id2i['314159'] ] ) I'm also willing to re-architect things if there's a cleaner design. I'm new to NumPy, and I haven't written much code yet, so starting over isn't out of the question if I'm Doing It Wrong. I am going to be needing to sum all the assignment points for over a hundred students once a day, as well as run standard deviations and other stats. Plus, I'll be waiting on the results, so I'd like it to run in only a couple of seconds. Thanks in advance for any suggestions.

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  • Automapping Collections

    - by vaibhav
    I am using Automapper for mapping my domain model and DTO. When I map Mapper.Map<SiteDTO, SiteEntity> it works fine. But when I use collections of the same entities, it doesn't map. Mapper.Map<Collection<SiteEntity>, Collection<SiteDTO>>(siteEntityCollection); AS per Automapper Wiki, it says the lists implementing ICollection would be mapped, I am using Collection that implements ICollection, but automapper doesn't map it. Am I doing something wrong. public class SiteEntity //SiteDTO has exactly the same properties, so I am not posting it here. { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public byte Status { get; set; } public int ModifiedBy { get; set; } public DateTime ModifiedDate{ get; set; } public long TimeStamp{ get; set; } public string Description{ get; set; } public string Notes{ get; set; } public ObservableCollection<AreaEntity> Areas{ get; set; } }

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  • Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

    - by Andy
    I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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  • Modeling many-to-one with constraints?

    - by Greg Beech
    I'm attempting to create a database model for movie classifications, where each movie could have a single classification from each of one of multiple rating systems (e.g. BBFC, MPAA). This is the current design, with all implied PKs and FKs: TABLE Movie ( MovieId INT ) TABLE ClassificationSystem ( ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE Classification ( ClassificationId INT, ClassificationSystemId TINYINT ) TABLE MovieClassification ( MovieId INT, ClassificationId INT, Advice NVARCHAR(250) -- description of why the classification was given ) The problem is with the MovieClassification table whose constraints would allow multiple classifications from the same system, whereas it should ideally only permit either zero or one classifications from a given system. Is there any reasonable way to restructure this so that a movie having exactly zero or one classifications from any given system is enforced by database constraints, given the following requirements? Do not duplicate information that could be looked up (i.e. duplicating ClassificationSystemId in the MovieClassification table is not a good solution because this could get out of sync with the value in the Classification table) Remain extensible to multiple classification systems (i.e. a new classification system does not require any changes to the table structure)? Note also the Advice column - each mapping of a movie to a classification needs to have a textual description of why that classification was given to that movie. Any design would need to support this.

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