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  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

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  • How does an NSTextField know that it's value has changed?

    - by Brian Postow
    I have a textfield that can either be edited by hand, or set through another control. (It's a page number, so you can jump to page 16 by typing in 16, or you can page up and down with the next/prev buttons) I have the value of the text field bound to an int page variable. It seems to work correctly, when you type a page number in, it jumps, when you page up and down, the page number in the text box changes appropriately. However, at some level, when I page up and down, the text box doesn't seem to know that it's value has changed, because if I type 1 it doesn't do anything. It doesn't call the bound set-method or anything. It looks like the textfield is thinking "I'm already 1, so I don't need to do anything." Even though it was 5 because I hit next 4 times. If I type an number other than 1, it goes there. If I THEN type 1, it goes to page 1, because now it thinks it's on that other page. The problem seems to be that I'm changing the value of the textfield programatically, but some part isn't getting the message. Does this seem like a reasonable explanation? And either way, any ideas on what's causing it? thanks

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  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

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  • Devise routes to only use custom sign in page

    - by eblume
    I am trying to learn Devise and seem to have hit a problem that is nearly the same as many, many questions here on SO but just slightly different enough that I am not getting much traction following those questions' threads. I have a very simple application. Users can sign in and sign out (and also the devise 'forgot password' stuff is enabled - I am not concerned about it at this time) and that is it. They can't register, they can't edit their profile other than to change their password, they can't do anything except sign in and sign out. (Account creation will, for now, be handled manually at the command line.) I would vastly prefer that the only page that users can log in from was "/" (root_path). I already have it working where you can log in from "/", and that is great. The problem I am having is that if you type in your user/password combination incorrectly from the root_path login page, it automatically sends you to the Devise sign-in page to continue trying to sign in. How can I make Devise redirect to root_path on sign-in failure? Here are my routes - they are probably not optimal or correctly configured and I would appreciate pointers on fixing them: root to: "core_pages#splash" devise_for :users, skip: [:sessions] as :user do # get 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#new', as: :new_user_session post 'signin' => 'devise/sessions#create', as: :user_session delete 'signout' => 'devise/sessions#destroy', as: :destroy_user_session, via: Devise.mappings[:user].sign_out_via end match '/home' => 'core_pages#home' Note the commented-out 'get signin' line. The system works without this line but, surprisingly (to me), "GET /signin" results in a HTTP 400 (OK) response and renders the Devise login template. I would prefer it return some sort of 'invalid request' or just silently redirect the user to root_path. Running rake routes on these routes gives: root / core_pages#splash user_password POST /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#create new_user_password GET /users/password/new(.:format) devise/passwords#new edit_user_password GET /users/password/edit(.:format) devise/passwords#edit PUT /users/password(.:format) devise/passwords#update user_session POST /signin(.:format) devise/sessions#create destroy_user_session DELETE /signout(.:format) devise/sessions#destroy home /home(.:format) core_pages#home Thanks!

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  • Ajax function partially fails when alert removed

    - by YsoL8
    Hello. I have a problem in the following code: //quesry the db for image information function queryDB (parameters) { var parameters = "p="+parameters; alert ("hello"); if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { // use the info alert (xmlhttp.responseText); } } xmlhttp.open("POST", "js/imagelist.php", true); //Send the proper header information along with the request xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.send(parameters); } When I remove the alert statement 4 lines down I hit problems. This function is being called by a loop, and without the alert, I only get results for the last value sent to the statement. With it, I get everything I was expecting and really I'm at a loss to know why. I've heard that this may be a timing issue as I'm sending new requests before the old one is finished. I also heard polling being mentioned, but I can't find any information detailed enough. I'm new to synchronous services and I'm not really aware of the issues.

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  • MKAnnotations are being made successfully, however they sometimes fail to render on MKMapView

    - by jtkendall
    I'm working on an iPhone app using the 3.1.3 SDK, my app finds the users current location, displays it on a MKMapView and then finds nearby locations and renders them as MKAnnotations. My code is working, however sometimes the nearby annotations do not appear on the map. They are still being made as I see the correct data in the console (from NSLog which runs just after the annotations are made). When it fails is completely random, it could be the 5th time I've hit "Build and Run" for the day, or the 500th it doesn't appear to have any pattern and doesn't throw any type of error, it just doesn't add the annotations to the MapView. This is the method called for each nearby location to add the MKAnnotation. - (void)addPinsWithLocation:(NSDictionary *)spot { CLLocationCoordinate2D location; location.longitude = [[spot objectForKey:@"spot_longitude"] doubleValue]; location.latitude = [[spot objectForKey:@"spot_latitude"] doubleValue]; PlaceMarks *placemark = [[PlaceMarks alloc] initWithCoordinate:location title:[spot objectForKey:@"spot_name"] subtitle:@""]; NSLog(@"Adding Pin for Location: '%@' at %f, %f", [spot objectForKey:@"spot_name"], location.latitude, location.longitude); [mapView addAnnotation:placemark]; } Any ideas on how to get MKAnnotations to always show?

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  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

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  • Globalize/Localize Excel Reports Using Spreadsheet

    - by mga911
    My company has new customers in Brazil and we realized that our excel reports are not working when our Brazilian customers tried to open the reports in their Brazilian versions of excel. For excel output we use spreadsheet gear in our vb.net web application. Our excel worksheets are fairly simple. Mostly outputted text/numbers/dates, a couple of formulas (sum, if) and formatting on the currency and dates. I've tried several methods to get my excel reports to work: First I left the excel workbook in the "en-US" culture and tried simply chaging the number format for Brazil to: _-[$R$-416] * #.##0,00_-;-[$R$-416] * #.##0,00_-;_-[$R$-416] * "-"??_-;_-@_- And this formatted the regular cells but the formulas still failed to show a value. Instead they showed a 0 value. Next I tried changing the workbook to the "pt-BR" culture and that also forced me to translate the formula names (Sum - Soma, If - Se) but they still wouldn't should a value and instead showed a #Name/#Nome error. Interestingly enough the formulas would work if I edited the cell and hit enter. The formula wouldn't change but it would some how fix that cell. I need to be able to out excel reports that can format dates/currencies and apply simple formulas (IF, Sum) for other excel cultures. Anyone have any advice?

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  • Fastcgi 500 error on preg_match_all in PHP

    - by Bertvan
    Hi, I'm trying to set up some exotic PHP code (I'm no expert), and I get a FastCGI Error 500 on a PHP line containing 'preg_match_all'. When I comment out the line, the page is returned with a 200 (but not how it was meant to be). The code is parsing php, html and javascript content loaded from the database and is composing them to return the finished page. Now, by placing around some error_log entries I could determine that the line with the preg_match_all is the cause of the 500. However the line is hit multiple times during the loading of the page and on other occasions, the line does not cause an error. Here's how it looks like exactly: preg_match_all ("/(<([\w]+)[^>]*>)((?:.|\n)*)(<\/\\2>)/", $part['data'], $tags, PREG_PATTERN_ORDER|PREG_OFFSET_CAPTURE); The subject string is a piece of text that looks like: <script> ... some javascript functions ... </script> [Edit:] This is code that is up and running correctly elsewhere, so this very well could be a PHP setting or environment difference. I'm using PHP 5.2.13 on IIS6 with FastCGI. [Edit:] Nothing is mentioned in the log files. At least not in the ones I checked: IIS Logs Event Logs PHP Log Any thoughts or direction would be welcome.

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  • Mercurial central server file discrepancy (using 'diff to local')

    - by David Montgomery
    Newbie alert! OK, I have a working central Mercurial repository that I've been working with for several weeks. Everything has been great until I hit a really bizarre problem: my central server doesn't seem to be synced to itself? I only have one file that seems to be out-of-sync right now, but I really need to know how this happened to prevent it from happening in the future. Scenario: 1) created Mercurial repository on server using an existing project directory. The directory contained the file 'mypage.aspx'. 2) On my workstation, I cloned the central repository 3) I made an edit to mypage.aspx 4) hg commit, then hg push from my workstation to the central server 5) now if I look at mypage.aspx on the server's repository using TortoiseHg's repository explorer, I see the change history for mypage.aspx -- an initial check-in and one edit. However, when I select 'Diff to local', it shows the current version on the server's disk is the original version, not the edited version! I have not experimented with branching at all yet, so I'm sure I'm not getting a branch problem. 'hg status' on the server or client returns no pending changes. If I create a clone of the server's repository to a new location, I see the same change history as I would expect, but the file on disk doesn't contain my edit. So, to recap: Central repository = original file, but shows change in revision history (bad) Local repository 'A' = updated file, shows change in revision history (good) Local repository 'B' = original file, but shows change in revision history (bad) Help please! Thanks, David

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  • "Order By" in LINQ-to-SQL Causes performance issues

    - by panamack
    I've set out to write a method in my C# application which can return an ordered subset of names from a table containing about 2000 names starting at the 100th name and returning the next 20 names. I'm doing this so I can populate a WPF DataGrid in my UI and do some custom paging. I've been using LINQ to SQL but hit a snag with this long executing query so I'm examining the SQL the LINQ query is using (Query B below). Query A runs well: SELECT TOP (20) [t0].[subject_id] AS [Subject_id], [t0].[session_id] AS [Session_id], [t0].[name] AS [Name] FROM [Subjects] AS [t0] WHERE (NOT (EXISTS( SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY] FROM ( SELECT TOP (100) [t1].[subject_id] FROM [Subjects] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[session_id] = 1 ORDER BY [t1].[name] ) AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[subject_id] = [t2].[subject_id] ))) AND ([t0].[session_id] = 1) Query B takes 40 seconds: SELECT TOP (20) [t0].[subject_id] AS [Subject_id], [t0].[session_id] AS [Session_id], [t0].[name] AS [Name] FROM [Subjects] AS [t0] WHERE (NOT (EXISTS( SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY] FROM ( SELECT TOP (100) [t1].[subject_id] FROM [Subjects] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[session_id] = 1 ORDER BY [t1].[name] ) AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[subject_id] = [t2].[subject_id] ))) AND ([t0].[session_id] = 1) ORDER BY [t0].[name] When I add the ORDER BY [t0].[name] to the outer query it slows down the query. How can I improve the second query? This was my LINQ stuff Nick int sessionId = 1; int start = 100; int count = 20; // Query subjects with the shoot's session id var subjects = cldb.Subjects.Where<Subject>(s => s.Session_id == sessionId); // Filter as per params var orderedSubjects = subjects .OrderBy<Subject, string>( s => s.Col_zero ); var filteredSubjects = orderedSubjects .Skip<Subject>(start) .Take<Subject>(count);

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  • Set scaleX property on a Sprite without altering the child inside

    - by grammar
    Is this possible? My site is set up with next and prev buttons on the right and left sides respectively, and as you roll over either of the hit areas around the buttons a Sprite fades in which contains a TextField that describes the next page. Said Sprite calls the StartDrag() method, so it follows the mouse within the bounds, which is all fine and dandy on the left side of the page. Adobe, however, seems to have forgotten to put a way to dynamically alter the registration point of a Sprite, MC, whatever else, so when you roll over the right side of the page, the sprite is displayed from the top left and is mostly off the stage. Trying to hack this problem I have tried numerous things ( classes written by others, other hacks) and the best that I have found is to use the scaleX method on the Sprite, changing the scale to -1. This, of course, makes the Sprite seem like it's reflected from its normal point, which means all its children show up backwards. Is there anyway I can use this hack without it altering the text? OR Does anyone know a different way to go about displaying a Sprite from another corner? Any way to make a Sprite fade in and follow the mouse on the LEFT HAND side of the mouse pointer? Thank you very much in advance. Here is a snippet to give an idea of what's happening: naxtPage.labelBG.scaleX = -1; nextPage.labelBG.startDrag( true, nextHitRect ); nextPage.labelBG.x = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseX; nextPage.labelBG.y = nextPage.labelBG.parent.mouseY; Cheers

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  • bind event handler on keydown listen function JavaScript jQuery

    - by user1644123
    I am trying to bind a handler to an event. The event is a keydown function. The handler will listen for hit variables to produce one of two conditions. The 1st condition (odd number of hits) will perform 1 function, the 2nd (even number of hits) will perform another function. To elaborate, the 1st function will scroll to one element, the 2nd will scroll to another element. My syntax may be the wrong approach, but it works for the 1st condition, but not the 2nd. I think I have the conditional statement in the wrong place. How can I rewrite this to work as intended? Thank you kindly, in advance! $(document).keydown(function(e) { switch (e.which) { case 37: break; case 38: break; case 39: break; case 40: //bottom arrow key var hits = 0; if (hits % 2 !== 0) { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scrollToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } else { $('#wrap').animate({ scrollTop: $("#scroll2ToHere").offset().top }, 2800); } hits++; return false; break; } })? *I moved "var hits = 0;" to the top, but it only works! But is there a way I can reset the whole thing after every two hits? I want to reset because when there is a bug and if I press a 3rd time it scrolls to the very top of the page, where there is no element to make it scroll to the top. Why would it scroll to the top of the page if I never scripted it to do so?? *

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  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

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  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

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  • How to access hidden template in unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Here is a tricky situation, and i wonder what ways there are to solve it namespace { template <class T> struct Template { /* ... */ }; } typedef Template<int> Template; Sadly, the Template typedef interferes with the Template template in the unnamed namespace. When you try to do Template<float> in the global scope, the compiler raises an ambiguity error between the template name and the typedef name. You don't have control over either the template name or the typedef-name. Now I want to know whether it is possible to: Create an object of the typedefed type Template (i.e Template<int>) in the global namespace. Create an object of the type Template<float> in the global namespace. You are not allowed to add anything to the unnamed namespace. Everything should be done in the global namespace. This is out of curiosity because i was wondering what tricks there are for solving such an ambiguity. It's not a practical problem i hit during daily programming.

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  • Poor performance using RMI-proxies with Swing components

    - by Patrick
    I'm having huge performance issues when I add RMI proxy references to a Java Swing JList-component. I'm retrieving a list of user Profiles with RMI from a server. The retrieval itself takes just a second or so, so that's acceptable under the circumstances. However, when I try to add these proxies to a JList, with the help of a custom ListModel and a CellRenderer, it takes between 30-60 seconds to add about 180 objects. Since it is a list of users' names, it's preferrable to present them alphabetically. The biggest performance hit is when I sort the elements as they get added to the ListModel. Since the list will always be sorted, I opted to use the built-in Collections.binarySearch() to find the correct position for the next element to be added, and the comparator uses two methods that are defined by the Profile interface, namely getFirstName() and getLastName(). Is there any way to speed this process up, or am I simply implementing it the wrong way? Or is this a "feature" of RMI? I'd really love to be able to cache some of the data of the remote objects locally, to minimize the remote method calls.

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  • How to play extracted wave file byte array in C#?

    - by user261924
    At the moment i have managed to separate the left and right channel of a WAVE file and have included the header in a byte[] array. My next step is to be about to play both channels. How can this be done? Here is a code snippet: byte[] song_left = new byte[fa.Length]; byte[] song_right = new byte[fa.Length]; int p = 0; for (int c = 0; c < 43; c++) { song_left[p] = header[c]; p++; } int q = 0; for (s = startByte; s < length; s = s + 3) { song_left[s] = sLeft[q]; q++; s++; song_left[s] = sLeft[q]; q++; } p = 0; for (int c = 0; c < 43; c++) { song_right[p] = header[c]; p++; } This part is reading the header and data from both the right and light channel and saving it to array sLeft[] and sRight[]. This part is working perfectly. Once I obtained the byte arrays, I did the following: System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\\left.wav", song_left); System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\\right.wav", song_right); Added a button to play the saved wave file: private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { spWave = new SoundPlayer("c:\\left.wav"); spWave.Play(); } Once I hit the play button, this error appers: An unhandled exception of type 'System.InvalidOperationException' occurred in System.dll Additional information: The wave header is corrupt. Any ideas?

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  • how can I save/keep-in-sync an in-memory graph of objects with the database?

    - by Greg
    Question - What is a good best practice approach for how can I save/keep-in-sync an jn-memory graph of objects with the database? Background: That is say I have the classes Node and Relationship, and the application is building up a graph of related objects using these classes. There might be 1000 nodes with various relationships between them. The application needs to query the structure hence an in-memory approach is good for performance no doubt (e.g. traverse the graph from Node X to find the root parents) The graph does need to be persisted however into a database with tables NODES and RELATIONSHIPS. Therefore what is a good best practice approach for how can I save/keep-in-sync an jn-memory graph of objects with the database? Ideal requirements would include: build up changes in-memory and then 'save' afterwards (mandatory) when saving, apply updates to database in correct order to avoid hitting any database constraints (mandatory) keep persistence mechanism separate from model, for ease in changing persistence layer if needed, e.g. don't just wrap an ADO.net DataRow in the Node and Relationship classes (desirable) mechanism for doing optimistic locking (desirable) Or is the overhead of all this for a smallish application just not worth it and I should just hit the database each time for everything? (assuming the response times were acceptable) [would still like to avoid if not too much extra overhead to remain somewhat scalable re performance]

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  • Playing video and audio in iPhone not working...

    - by Scott
    So we have buttons linked up to display images/videos/audio on click depending on a check we do earlier. That part works fine. It knows which one to play, however, when we click the buttons for video and audio, nothing happens. The image one works fine. The video and audio are being taken for a URL online, they are not local, but everywhere said this was still possible. Here is a little snippet of the code where we play the two files: if ( [fName hasSuffix:@".png"]) { NSLog(@"PICTURE"); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: fName]; UIImage *image = [UIImage imageWithData: [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:url]]; self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]]; // self.view.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"MainBG.jpg"]]; [self.view addSubview:[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:image]]; } if ( [fName hasSuffix:@".mp4"]) { NSLog(@"VIDEO"); //NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:fName ofType:@"mp4"]; //NSLog(path); NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:fName]; MPMoviePlayerController *player = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] initWithContentURL:url]; [player play]; } if ( [fName hasSuffix:@".mp3"]) { NSLog(@"AUDIO"); NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:fName]; NSData *soundData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:url]; AVAudioPlayer *avPlayer = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithData:soundData error: nil]; [avPlayer play]; } See anything wrong? By the way it compiles and runs, but nothing happens when we hit the button that executes that code.

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  • Eclipse Java Content Assist not working

    - by Damo
    The Content Assist in Eclipse 3.4 and 3.5 has stopped working for me. When I type in the first few characters of a class and hit CRTL-space then after a delay I get the following error message It does not matter what proposals I enable/disable, I will get this (or similar) message. I have tried: Changing the Xms/Xmx values Starting Eclipse with -clean Creating a new workspace and importing my projects However none of these have worked. I have seen some posts suggesting that other apps may be taking over the CRTL-space or otherwise interfering, however I have nothing aside from a fresh Eclipse running and the problem persists. My problem is very similar to the one covered in this post albeit on a later version and on OSX 10.5.7. Does anyone have any suggestions for how this might be resolved? Thanks. UPDATE: To anyone interested I've had the best results by using Eclipse 3.5 Classic (ie. doesn't include Mylyn). I've also used the settings specified in the bug reports linked to by VonC below. Interestingly Classic doesn't come with some views eg. Snippets, but these are easy to drop in from another distro. UPDATE 2: This problem actually persisted even with the latest versions of Eclipse (3.6 M1). It is caused by a large JAR file generated my Altova Mapforce to handle EDIFACT transformations in our application. It is reproducible by adding this JAR to the buildpath and no changes to Content Assist settings help. The bug (and JAR) can be seen at https://bugs.eclipse.org/bugs/show_bug.cgi?id=289057

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  • Why MSMQ won't send a space character?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm exploring MSMQ services, and I wrote a simple console client-server application that sends each of the client's keystrokes to the server. Whenever hit a control character (DEL, ESC, INS, etc) the server understandably throws an error. However, whenever I type a space character, the server receives the packet but doesn't throw an error and doesn't display the space. Server: namespace QIM { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static readonly object _mqLock = new object(); static XmlSerializer xs; static void Main(string[] args) { lock (_mqLock) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); } xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(string)); _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); while (Console.ReadKey().Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { } } static void OnReceive(IAsyncResult result) { Message msg; lock (_mqLock) { try { msg = _mq.EndReceive(result); Console.Write("."); Console.Write(xs.Deserialize(msg.BodyStream)); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex); } } _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); } } } Client: namespace QIM_Client { class Program { const string QUEUE = @".\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static void Main(string[] args) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(QUEUE)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(QUEUE); else _mq = new MessageQueue(QUEUE); ConsoleKeyInfo key = new ConsoleKeyInfo(); while (key.Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { key = Console.ReadKey(); _mq.Send(key.KeyChar.ToString()); } } } } Client Input: Testing, Testing... Server Output: .T.e.s.t.i.n.g.,..T.e.s.t.i.n.g...... You'll notice that the space character sends a message, but the character isn't displayed.

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  • Why wouldn't the default Control Adapter mappings work on Chrome or Safari?

    - by Deane
    I have confirmed that my Control Adapters are not triggering in Chrome and Safari. I've debugged, and the breakpoints inside the adapters just don't get hit in Chrome/Safari, when they work perfectly find in Firefox/IE. So, for Chrome/Safari, IIS is just ignoring the mapping. My AdapterMappings.browser file looks like this: <browsers> <browser refID="Default"> <controlAdapters> [...adapters here....] </controlAdapters> </browser> </browsers> This should provide mappings for all browsers, correct? I used the Charles proxy to check what user agents were being sent. They are: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1064 Safari/532.5 Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/531.22.7 (KHTML, like Gecko) Version/4.0.5 Safari/531.22.7 Any idea why this would be? Everything I've read tells me that my browser mappings are correct? And, as I said this works for IE/Firefox, so I know my configuration is technically correct.

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  • Posting forms to a 404 + HttpHandler in IIS7: why has all POST data gone missing?

    - by Rahul
    OK, this might sound a bit confusing and complicated, so bear with me. We've written a framework that allows us to define friendly URLs. If you surf to any arbitrary URL, IIS tries to display a 404 error (or, in some cases, 403;14 or 405). However, IIS is set up so that anything directed to those specific errors is sent to an .aspx file. This allows us to implement an HttpHandler to handle the request and do stuff, which involves finding the an associated template and then executing whatever's associated with it. Now, this all works in IIS 5 and 6 and, to an extent, on IIS7 - but for one catch, which happens when you post a form. See, when you post a form to a non-existent URL, IIS says "ah, but that url doesn't exist" and throws a 405 "method not allowed" error. Since we're telling IIS to redirect those errors to our .aspx page and therefore handling it with our HttpHandler, this normally isn't a problem. But as of IIS7, all POST information has gone missing after being redirected to the 405. And so you can no longer do the most trivial of things involving forms. To solve this we've tried using a HttpModule, which preserves POST data but appears to not have an initialized Session at the right time (when it's needed). We also tried using a HttpModule for all requests, not just the missing requests that hit 404/403;14/405, but that means stuff like images, css, js etc are being handled by .NET code, which is terribly inefficient. Which brings me to the actual question: has anyone ever encountered this, and does anyone have any advice or know what to do to get things working again? So far someone has suggested using Microsoft's own URL Rewriting module. Would this help solve our problem? Thanks.

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  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

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