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  • Need help INSERT record(s) MySQL DB

    - by JM4
    I have an online form which collects member(s) information and stores it into a very long MySQL database. We allow up to 16 members to enroll at a single time and originally structured the DB to allow such. For example: If 1 Member enrolls, his personal information (first name, last name, address, phone, email) are stored on a single row. If 15 Members enroll (all at once), their personal information are stored in the same single row. The row has information housing columns for all 'possible' inputs. I am trying to consolidate this code and having every nth member that enrolls put onto a new record within the database. I have seen sugestions before for inserting multiple records as such: INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (('$f1name', '$f1address', '$f1phone'), ('$f2name', '$f2address', '$f2phone')... The issue with this is two fold: I do not know how many records are being enrolled from person to person so the only way to make the statement above is to use a loop The information collected from the forms is NOT a single array so I can't loop through one array and have it parse out. My information is collected as individual input fields like such: Member1FirstName, Member1LastName, Member1Phone, Member2Firstname, Member2LastName, Member2Phone... and so on Is it possible to store information in separate rows WITHOUT using a loop (and therefore having to go back and completely restructure my form field names and such (which can't happen due to the way the validation rules are built.)

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  • How can I filter using the current value of a text box in a jQuery selector?

    - by spudly
    I have a validation script that checks for data-* attributes to determine which fields are required. If an element has the 'data-required-if' attribute (which has a jQuery selector as it's value), it checks to see if any elements are found that match that selector. If any are found, the field is required. It does something similar to the following: $('[data-required-if]').each(function () { var selector = $(this).attr('data-required-if'), required = false; if ( !$(selector).length ) { required = true; // do something if this element is empty } }); This works great, but there's a problem. When you use the attribute selector to filter based on the current value of a text field, it really filters on the initial value of the text field. <input type='text' id='myinput' value='initial text' /> <input type='text' id='dependent_input' value='' data-required-if="#myinput[value='']" /> // Step 1: type "foobar" in #myinput // Step 2: run these lines of code: <script> $('#myinput').val() //=> returns "foobar" $('#myinput[value="foobar"]').length //=> returns 0 </script> I understand why it's doing that. jQuery probably uses getAttribute() in the background. Is there any other way to filter based on the current value of an input box using purely jQuery selectors?

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  • Ruby on Rails: temporarily update an attribute into cache without saving it?

    - by randombits
    I have a bit of code that depicts this hypothetical setup below. A class Foo which contains many Bars. Bar belongs to one and only one Foo. At some point, Foo can do a finite loop that lapses 2+ iterations. In that loop, something like the following happens: bar = Bar.find_where_in_use_is_zero bar.in_use = 1 Basically what find_where_in_use_is_zero does something like this in as far as SQL goes: SELECT * from bars WHERE in_use = 0 Now the problem I'm facing is that I cannot run the following line of code after bar.in_use =1 is invoked: bar.save The reason is clear, I'm still looping and the new Foo hasn't been created, so we don't have a foo_id to put into bars.foo_id. Even if I set to allow foo_id to be NULL, we have a problem where one of the bars can fail validation and the existing one was saved to the database. In my application, that doesn't work. The entire request is atomic, either all succeeds or fails together. What happens next, is that in my loop, I have the potential to select the same exact bar that I did on a previous iteration of the loop since the in_use flag will not be set to 1 until @foo.save is called. Is there anyway to work around this condition and temporarily set the in_use attribute to 1 for subsequent iterations of the loop so that I retrieve an available bar instance?

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  • PHP session token can be used multipletimes?

    - by kornesh
    I got page A which is a normal HTML page and page which is an AJAX response page. And I want to prevent CSRF attacks by tokens. Lets say I use this method for an autocomplete form, is it possible to use same token multiple times (of course the session is only set one time) because i tired this method but the validation keep failing after the first suggestion (obviously the token has changed, somehow) page A <?php session_start(); $token = md5(uniqid(rand(), TRUE)); $_SESSION['token'] = $token; ?> <input id="token" value="<?php echo $token; ?>" type="hidden"></input> <input id="autocomplete" placeholder="Type something"></input> .... The form is autosubmitted every time theres a change using Jquery. page B <?php session_start(); if($_REQUEST['token'] == $_SESSION['token']){ echo 'Im working fine'; } ?>

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  • Select form children when multiple forms are present jQuery

    - by afreeland
    I am dealing with a webpage that has multiple forms..some basic HTML forms and some AJAX forms. I have a created validation for inputs, let me give an example...if an input has a class="required" whenever a submit button is pressed if any required classes are empty then the form doesnt submit. Which works great...until you have multiple forms with required fields that dont apply to the section your submitting. I am able to find the closest form $(this).closest("form") and it gets me the form element properly, I then need to be able to loop only through the children of that form. I have tried: .children(':input'), .find('input') and honestly to many to list. Here is the code for when a button is selected $('#formSubmit').click(function (e) { var submit = true; var form = $(this).closest("form"); var formID = $(form).attr("id"); e.preventDefault(); $(form).children(":input").each(function () { if ($('#ERROR').length > 0) { submit = false; alert("Please fix errors to continue"); } $('.required').each(function () { if ($(this).val() == "" || $(this).val() == undefined) { submit = false; $(this).css({ 'background-color': '#fef236' }); } }); }); if (submit == true) { this.form.submit(); } }); //End of #formSubmit Also of interest I have started creating forms with ids that are GUID's so they will be unique and allow me to target things without any issues, just wanted to throw that out there if it can help lead to a solution I appreciate any help =)

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  • SQL Server: Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

    - by chryss
    It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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  • What is Rails way to DRY up the controller pattern of verifying :id is for a valid object (else redirect to error page)

    - by jpwynn
    One of my controllers has close to 100 methods (eg routes) and nearly every one starts out the same code to redirect to an error page if the id param is invalid, followed by a similar check if the user that id doesn't belong in the user's account: def something @foo = Foo.find_by_guid(params[:id]) unless @foo @msg ||= { :title => 'No such page!', :desc => "There is no such page!" } render :action => "error" and return end unless @foo.owner_id == current_user.id @msg ||= { :title => 'Really?', :desc => "There is no such page." } render :action => "error" and return end What is the best way to DRY up that sort of page id and owner id validation, given the code is doing a render ... and return? What I don't want to do at this point is offload it to a blackbox roles and permissions library like CanCan... my goal is simply to have the in-app code to handle this be as clean as possible.

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  • JQM Nested Popups

    - by mcottingham
    I am having a hard time with the new Alpha release of JQM not showing nested popups. For example, I am displaying a popup form that the user is supposed to fill out, if the server side validation fails, I want to display an error popup. I am finding that the error popup is not being shown. I suspect that it is being shown below the original popup. function bindSongWriterInvite() { // Bind the click event of the invite button $("#invite-songwriter").click(function () { $("#songwriter-invite-popup").popup("open"); }); // Bind the invitation click event of the invite modal $("#songwriter-invite-invite").click(function () { if ($('#songwriter-invite').valid()) { $('#songwriter-invite-popup').popup('close'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', async: true, url: '/songwriter/jsoncreate', data: $('#songwriter-invite').serialize() + "&songName=" + $("#Song_Title").val(), success: function (response) { if (response.state != "success") { alert("Should be showing error dialog"); mobileBindErrorDialog(response.message); } else { mobileBindErrorDialog("Success!"); } }, failure: function () { mobileBindErrorDialog("Failure!"); }, dataType: 'json' }); } }); // Bind the cancel click event of the invite modal $("#songwriter-invite-cancel").click(function () { $("#songwriter-invite-popup").popup("close"); }); } function mobileBindErrorDialog(errorMessage) { // Close all open popups. This is a work around as the JQM Alpha does not // open new popups in front of all other popups. var error = $("<div></div>").append("<p>" + errorMessage + "</p>") .popup(); $(error).popup("open"); } So, you can see that I attempt to show the error dialog regardless of whether the ajax post succeeds or fails. It just never shows up. Anyone have any thoughts? Mike

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  • checkboxes and buttons enable

    - by anshka_3033 3033
    i have 2 checkboxes and 2 buttons below the check boxes. on opening the page ,checkbox1 should be enabled and other check box n buttons should be disabled.after clicking on 1st checkbox 2nd checkbox should be enabled and 1 st check box should be disabled and buttons remain disabled.after clicking on 2nd checkbox 2 buttons(approve,Deny) should be enabled and 2 checkboxes should be disabled.so please help me in doing this.i used below code for creating checkboxes and button. i need j script for this <tr> <form ACTION="jspCheckBox.jsp"> SC Information Received <input type="checkbox" value="SC Information received"> Validation Begun <input type="checkbox" value="Validate" > </form> </tr> <tr> <td valign="middle" align="left" style="padding-left:10px;" nowrap> <button type="button" class="btn" name="btnApprove" onclick="approve();">Approve</button> </td> <td> <button type="button" class="btn" name="btnDeny" onclick="deny();">Deny</button> </td> </tr>

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  • A good php framework in 2012

    - by Jormundir
    I've done a lot of googling around this, and practically all of the answers I find are pre 2011, and are answered in the usual, here are the 5 most popular frameworks... So I'd like to update this topic for 2012, I'm going to build a web application with a pretty complex back-end system driving it, and I'd like to use a framework so I don't have to reinvent the wheel. My application will be hugely user based, so I would appreciate a built in authentication/validation system. (When this is missing it takes me a good 2 weeks of intense and frivolous research to try to pick the "best" one (I don't want to roll my own, I don't think I'd do a better job than what's out there). I've looked into a tried a few, so I'll give you what I like and don't like, but I don't want to bias answers too much. I don't like: Frameworks that auto-generate bloated code. If they have the feature, fine, but if I have to use it, I get frustrated. Backwards compatibility with php4, eww. I don't need backwards compatibility at all. I like: Getting up and running quickly (but without all the auto-generation bogus), what I mean by this is that all the essentials are there, so I don't have to come to a grinding halt to research what the best 3rd party plugin is to get the feature I need. Thorough documentation, good tutorials. Good presentation of these materials. Please explain why your framework suggestion is good, don't just give the name of a framework without any justification. Thanks!

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  • $(selector).text() equivalent in c# (Revised)

    - by Ian Jasper Bardoquillo
    Hi, I am trying check if the inner html of the element is empty but I wanted to do the validation on the server side, I'm treating the html as a string. Here is my code public string HasContent(string htmlString){ // this is the expected value of the htmlString // <span class="spanArea"> // <STYLE>.ExternalClass234B6D3CB6ED46EEB13945B1427AA47{;}</STYLE> // </span> // From this jquery code--------------> // if($('.spanArea').text().length>0){ // // } // <------------------ // I wanted to convert the jquery statement above into c# code. /// c# code goes here return htmlSTring; } using this line $('.spanArea').text() // what is the equivalent of this line in c# I will know if the .spanArea does really have something to display in the ui or not. I wanted to do the checking on the server side. No need to worry about how to I managed to access the DOM I have already taken cared of it. Consider the htmlString as the Html string. My question is if there is any equivalent for this jquery line in C#? Thanks in advance! :)

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  • RDS installation failure on 2012 R2 Server Core VM in Hyper-V Server

    - by Giles
    I'm currently installing a test-bed for my firms Infrastructure replacement. 10 or so Windows/Linux servers will be replaced by 2 physical servers running Hyper-V server. All services (DC, RDS, SQL) will be on Windows 2012 R2 Server Core VMs, Exchange on Server 2012 R2 GUI, and the rest are things like Elastix, MailArchiver etc, which aren't part of the equation thus far. I have installed Hyper-V server on a test box, and sucessfully got two virtual DC's running, SQL 2014 running, and 8.1 which I use for the RSAT tools. When trying to install RDS (The old fashioned kind, not the newer VDI(?) style), I get a failed installation due to the server not being able to reboot. A couple of articles have said not to do it locally, so I've moved on. Sitting at the Powershell prompt on the Domain Controller or SQL server (Both Server Core), I run the following commands: Import-Module RemoteDesktop New-SessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" The installation begins, carries on for 2 or 3 minutes, then I receive the following error message: New-SessionDeployment : Validation failed for the "RD Connection Broker" parameter. AlstersTS.Alsters.local Unable to connect to the server by using WindowsPowerShell remoting. Verify that you can connect to the server. At line:1 char:1 + NewSessionDeployment -ConnectionBroker "AlstersTS.Alsters.local" -SessionHost " ... + + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [Write-Error], WriteErrorException + FullyQualifiedErrorID : Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.WriteErrorException,New-SessionDeployment So far, I have: Triple, triple checked syntax. Tried various other commands, and a script to accomplish the same task. Checked DNS is functioning as it should. Checked to the best of my knowledge that AD is working as it should. Checked that the Network Service has the needed permissions. Created another VM and placed the two roles on different servers. Deleted all VMs, started again with a new domain name (Lather, rinse, repeat) Performed the whole installation on a second physical box running Hyper-V Server Pleaded with it Interestingly, if I perform the installation via a GUI installation, the thing just works! Now I know I could convert this to a Server Core role after installation, but this wouldn't teach me what was wrong in the first instance. I've probably got 10 pages through various Google searches, each page getting a little less relevant. The closest matches seem to have good information, but it doesn't seem to be the fix for my set-up. As a side note, I expected to be able to "tee" or "out-file" the error message into a text file, but couldn't get that to work either, so I've typed in the error message manually. Chaps, any suggestions, from the glaringly obvious, to the long-winded and complex? Thanks!

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  • BIND9 / DNS Zone / Dedicated Server / Unique Reverse DNS

    - by user2832131
    I locate a dedicated server in a datacenter with no DNS Zone setup. Datacenter panel have 1 textfield only you can fill one Reverse DNS only. According with datacenter instructions here... [instructions]: http://www.wiki.hetzner.de/index.php/DNS-Reverse-DNS/en#How_can_I_assign_several_names_to_my_IP_address.2C_if_different_domains_are_hosted_on_my_server.3F How_can_I_assign_several_names_to_my_IP_address ...I need to install BIND9 in order to configure other records like CNAME and MX. Ok, I've installed BIND9, created a Master Zone. And following this example, I put it in the Zone File: [example]: http://wiki.hetzner.de/index.php/DNS_Zonendatei/en example $ttl 86400 @ IN SOA ns1.first-ns.de. postmaster.robot.first-ns.de. ( 1383411730 14400 1800 604800 86400 ) @ IN NS ns1.first-ns.de. @ IN NS robotns2.second-ns.de. @ IN NS robotns3.second-ns.com. localhost IN A 127.0.0.1 @ IN A 144.86.786.651 www IN A 144.86.786.651 loopback IN CNAME localhost But when I point my domain to ns1.first-ns.de, DNS Register says "time out". Am I missing something? I created a Master zone. Should it be a Slave zone? named.conf: include "/etc/bind/named.conf.options"; include "/etc/bind/named.conf.local"; include "/etc/bind/named.conf.default-zones"; named.conf.options: options { directory "/var/cache/bind"; dnssec-validation auto; auth-nxdomain no; # conform to RFC1035 listen-on-v6 { any; }; }; named.conf.local: zone "mydomain.com" { type master; file "/var/lib/bind/mydomain.com.hosts"; allow-update {any;}; allow-transfer {any;}; allow-query {any;}; }; named.conf.default-zones: zone "." { type hint; file "/etc/bind/db.root"; }; zone "localhost" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.local"; }; zone "127.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.127"; }; zone "0.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.0"; }; zone "255.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "/etc/bind/db.255"; }; Problem is that I'm moving my site, and can't update the new NS server due to a 'timeout' message when filling new datacenter NS. I'm filling: MASTER: ns1.first-ns.de SLAVE1: robotns2.second-ns.de SLAVE2: robotns3.second-ns.com

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  • Cannot login to SQL Server 2008 R2 with Windows authentication

    - by Ian Boyd
    When i try to connect to SQL Server (2008 R2) using Windows authentication: i cannot: Checking the Windows Application event log, i find the error: Login failed for user 'AVATOPIA\ian'. Reason: Token-based server access validation failed with an infrastructure error. Check for previous errors. [CLIENT: ] Log Name: Application Source: MSSQLSERVER Event ID: 18456 Level: Information User: AVATOPIA\ian OpCode: Task Category: Logon i can login to the computer itself using Windows authentication. i can log into SQL Server using the local Windows Administrator account. We can connect to 8 other SQL Servers on the domain using Windows Authentication. Just this one, whitch is the only one that is 2008 R2 is failing. So i assume it's a bug with *2008 R2. Note: i cannot logon locally, or remotely, using Windows authentication. i can login locally and remotely using SQL Server Authentication. Update Note: It's not limited to SQL Server Management Studio, standalone applications that connect using Windows authentication: fail: Note: It's not a client problem, as we can connect fine to other (non-SQL Server 2008 R2 machines): i'm sure there's a technote or knowledge base article describing why SQL Server 2008 R2 is broken by default, but i can't find it. Update 2 Matt figure out the change that Microsoft made so that SQL Server 2008 R2 is broken by default: Administrators are no longer administrators All that remains is to figure out how to make Administrators administrators. One of these days i'm going to start a list of changes around Microsoft's "broken by default" initiative. Steps to reproduce the problem How do i add a group to the sysadmin fixed server role? Here's the steps i try, that don't work: Click Add: Click Object Types: Ensure that you have no ability to add groups: and click OK. Under Enter the object names to select, enter Administrators: Click Check Names, and ensure that you are not allowed to add groups: and click Cancel. Click Browse..., and ensure that you have no ability to add groups: You should now still not have added any group to the sysadmin role. Additional information SQL Server Management Studio is being run as an administrator: SQL Server is set to use Windows Authentication: tried while logged into SQL with both sa and the only other sysadmin domain account (screenshot can be supplied for those who don't believe)

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  • DNS entries for OCS 2007 R2 basic deploy

    - by Anero
    I'm doing a test deploy on a Lab with 3 VMs: TEST-DC: DC / DHCP / DNS / Root CA (Joined to TEST.AD Domain) TEST-CS: OCS Front End (Joined to TEST.AD Domain - IP: 10.0.128.1) TEST-EDGES: OCS Edge Server (Joined to Workgroup: EDGE-WKG - Internal IP: 10.0.128.3, External IPs: 192.168.129.12 - Access Edge Server, 192.168.129.13 - Web Conferencing, 192.168.129.14 - A/V) I can login with the Communicator Client from within computers in the domain (using [email protected]) and even the Automatic Sign-In works as expected. Nevertheless, I cannot login neither from within machines in the domain nor from outside the domain using [email protected]. I'm pretty sure it is a DNS related issue, so I'm including below a list of the entries. DNS Entries on TEST-DC: Forward Lookup Zones TEST.AD sip.test.ad (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.1 sipinternal.test.ad (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.1 sipexternal.test.ad (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.3 _sipinternaltls._tcp.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipinternal.test.ad _sipinternal._tcp.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipinternal.test.ad _sip._tcp.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipexternal.test.ad _sipfederationtls._tcp.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipexternal.test.ad _sip._tls.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 443. Host: sipexternal.test.ad TEST.COM sip.test.com (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.1 sipinternal.test.com (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.1 sipexternal.test.com (Host A). IP Address: 10.0.128.3 _sipinternaltls._tcp.test.com (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipinternal.test.com _sipinternal._tcp.test.com (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipinternal.test.com _sip._tcp.test.com (Service Location SRV). Port: 5061. Host: sipexternal.test.com _sip._tls.test.ad (Service Location SRV). Port: 443. Host: sipexternal.test.ad Validation Errors OCS Front End Edge Server I ran the OCS 2007 Automatic Sign-In Troubleshooting and all DNS entries for both TEST.AD and TEST.COM are reported to be OK. What am I missing?

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  • Trust Bluetooth 4.0 and Bluetooth Headset

    - by Seregwethrin
    Firstly, I'm writing this after 5 hours of nonstop struggle to make it work, so I searched into the deepest websites from Google, and tried many things. I have Trust Bluetooth 4.0 USB adapter (link) Samsung HM1500 Bluetooth Headset Windows 7 64-bit Desktop PC Facts Nothing wrong with the headset. (it works, tested on a phone and a laptop. Problem is all about bluetooth dongle and its driver.) Trust BT adapter can send and receive files even without any driver. I can pair successfully without any driver too. In Headset's Properties, Services tab, Handsfree and Headset services are checked. Problem When I pair with my BT headset, I cannot see it as a sound playback device. Also when I double-click the headset device icon in Bluetooth Devices, in laptop: it opens a connection window where I can connect and disconnect to that device - perfect! in desktop: it opens the properties window, even though Handsfree and Headset services are checked (I check them explicitly, in laptop they came as already checked) - Problem! Unsuccessful driver installations The driver on the Trust's website says "Error 1606 Could not access Network Location" on start, so it doesn't get installed. The driver on Broadcom (link) is being closed with Windows's that classic "has stopped working" error on validation step, so it doesn't get installed too. (Those tests made more than once) Successful installation In the Win64 folder of Trust's driver from their website, if I install through "BTW.msi", it doesn't give me Error 1606 and it gets installed. Then the problem: When I try to start bluetooth from start menu (or it gets started at Windows startup), an error popup says: "BtBalloon.dll is missing..." so it doesn't start. I found BBalloon.dll in the driver folder, I renamed it to BtBalloon.dll, moved into Windows/system32 and Windows/SysWOW64 folders, and it seems working. Or maybe it gets closed behind the scenes. The bluetooth icon is there with or without this driver since Windows has it. Bluetooth Peripheral Device First it didn't get installed from Windows Update. After, I showed the driver folder path in Device Manager and pressed "Explore in this location". Surprisingly, it's being found as "Handsfree" driver. Now even I uninstall the drivers, it still can see the Handsfree. But still, no playback device. Any ideas to guide me? I'm out of ideas.

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  • Having troubles connectiong Magento to external Windows Database Server using Windows Azure

    - by Kevin H
    "I tried to make this easy to read through" I am using Ubuntu 12.04 LTS for Magento and installed these commands onto the system: sudo apt-get install apache2 sudo apt-get install php5 libapache2-mod-php5 sudo apt-get install php5-mysql sudo apt-get install php5-curl php5-mcrypt php5-gd php5-common sudo apt-get install php5-gd I used Windows Server 2008 R2 August 2012 for Mysql Server For a reference, I used http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/manage/windows/common-tasks/install-mysql/ When the server was setup, I added an empty disk to it Then, I added endpoints 3306 Next I accessed the server remotely After that, I formatted the empty disk and was inserted as F: Next I downloaded Mysql from http://*.mysql.com version Windows (x86, 64-bit), MSI Installer 5.5.28 In the installation process, I used these settings: Typical Setup - Clicked Next, install, next Chose Detailed Configuration - Clicked next Chose Dedicated MySQL Server Machine - Clicked Next Chose Transactional Database Only - Clicked Next Chose the "F:" Drive - Clicked Next Chose Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) - Clicked Next For Networking Options, I checkmarked 'Enable TCP/IP Networking" 'Add firewall exception for this port' 'Enable Strict Mode' - Clicked Next Chose Standard Character Set - Clicked Next For Windows Options, I checkedmarked 'Install as Window Service" 'Launch the MySQL Server automatically' 'Include Bin Directory in Windows PATH - Clicked Next For Security Options, I checkmarked 'Modify Security Settings' and set root password - Clicked Next Finally clicked Execute and Finish These are the Firewall Setting that I set I clicked inbound rules Properties Scope Allow IP Address and used the internal Address for Magento Server Clicked Apply and exited Next, I opened up MySQL 5.x Command Line Client Entered Root Password Then entered these commands mysql create database magento; mysql Create user magentouser identified by 'password'; mysql Grant select, insert, create, alter, update, delete, lock tables on magento.* to magentouser mysql exit Finally, I opened up the Magento Downloader Magento validation has approved all PHP version is right. Your version is 5.3.10-1ubuntu3.4. PHP Extension curl is loaded PHP Extension dom is loaded PHP Extension gd is loaded PHP Extension hash is loaded PHP Extension iconv is loaded PHP Extension mcrypt is loaded PHP Extension pcre is loaded PHP Extension pdo is loaded PHP Extension pdo_mysql is loaded PHP Extension simplexml is loaded These are all installed on Magento Server For the Database Connection, I used: The Database server only has MySQL 5.5 Server installed on it Host - Internal IP address User Name - The User I created when setting up database Password - The Password I created when setting up database For the password, I did some research and found out that Magento only accepts alphanumeric, so I went and set it up again and used only alphanumeric for the User password Now, I am still getting Accessed denied for database Connection. Also, I have tryed to setup mysql on independant Linux Server but kept getting errors. When, I found the solution. Wouldn't work, so I decided to try Windows. These is the questions, I have been asking and researching to debug this issue Is it because I am using Linux for magento and Windows for Database. I have had no luck in finding a reason why this wouldn't work There must be something, I am missing I also researched the difference between linux sql databases and windows sql databases but have not come to conclusion, if installing Mysql on windows would make a difference in syntax and coding. I have spent a lot of time looking into this and need some help with direction on how to complete my project. Any type of help would be appreciated.

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  • Why won't vyatta allow SMTP through my firewall?

    - by Solignis
    I am setting up a vyatta router on VMware ESXi, But I see to have hit a major snag, I could not get my firewall and NAT to work correctly. I am not sure what was wrong with NAT but it "seems" to be working now. But the firewall is not allowing traffic from my WAN interface (eth0) to my LAN (eth1). I can confirm its the firewall because I disabled all firewall rules and everything worked with just NAT. If put the firewalls (WAN and LAN) back in place nothing can get through to port 25. I am not really sure what the issue could be I am using pretty basic firewall rules, I wrote the rules while looking at the vyatta docs so unless there is something odd with the documentation they "should" be working. Here is my NAT rules so far; vyatta@gateway# show service nat rule 20 { description "Zimbra SNAT #1" outbound-interface eth0 outside-address { address 74.XXX.XXX.XXX } source { address 10.0.0.17 } type source } rule 21 { description "Zimbra SMTP #1" destination { address 74.XXX.XXX.XXX port 25 } inbound-interface eth0 inside-address { address 10.0.0.17 } protocol tcp type destination } rule 100 { description "Default LAN -> WAN" outbound-interface eth0 outside-address { address 74.XXX.XXX.XXX } source { address 10.0.0.0/24 } type source } Then here is my firewall rules, this is where I believe the problem is. vyatta@gateway# show firewall all-ping enable broadcast-ping disable conntrack-expect-table-size 4096 conntrack-hash-size 4096 conntrack-table-size 32768 conntrack-tcp-loose enable ipv6-receive-redirects disable ipv6-src-route disable ip-src-route disable log-martians enable name LAN_in { rule 100 { action accept description "Default LAN -> any" protocol all source { address 10.0.0.0/24 } } } name LAN_out { } name LOCAL { rule 100 { action accept state { established enable } } } name WAN_in { rule 20 { action accept description "Allow SMTP connections to MX01" destination { address 74.XXX.XXX.XXX port 25 } protocol tcp } rule 100 { action accept description "Allow established connections back through" state { established enable } } } name WAN_out { } receive-redirects disable send-redirects enable source-validation disable syn-cookies enable SIDENOTE To test for open ports I have using this website, http://www.yougetsignal.com/tools/open-ports/, it showed port 25 as open without the firewall rules and closed with the firewall rules. UPDATE Just to see if the firewall was working properly I made a rule to block SSH from the WAN interface. When I checked for port 22 on my primary WAN address it said it was still open even though I outright blocked the port. Here is the rule I used; rule 21 { action reject destination { address 74.219.80.163 port 22 } protocol tcp } So now I am convinced either I am doing something wrong or the firewall is not working like it should.

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  • Windows 8 with LiveID login authenticates as Guest to remote SQl Server

    - by Tim Long
    I have a network where several users are using Office Accounting 2009 in multi-user client/server mode. OA is built on SQL Server. One PC acts as the 'server' and has the SQl Server instance, the others have only the application installed and no SQL instance, all of the apps connect remotely to the SQL instance on the 'server'. I'm using the term 'server' loosely here, it is just a normal workstation that happens to be designated as the server and runs the SQL instance. There is no NT domain, all user accounts are local accounts. The way that OA works in multi-user mode is that each user is required to have a local account with the same username and password on both the client and 'server' PCs. This has been working well, no along comes Windows 8. I use my 'Microsoft Account' aka LiveID to log into Windows 8. Office Accounting runs fine and attempts to connect to the database, but fails, 'you do not have permission to perform this operation'. In the SQL logs, I get this error: 2012-10-28 17:54:01.32 Logon Error: 18456, Severity: 14, State: 11. 2012-10-28 17:54:01.32 Logon Login failed for user 'SERVER\Guest'. Reason: Token-based server access validation failed with an infrastructure SERVER is the hostname of the server. So it seems to be authenticating as 'Guest'?? To verify this, I enabled the Guest account on the 'server' PC and then added Guest as an allowed user within Office Accounting (this simply creates the user in SQL and gives it an appropriate database role). Sure enough, My Windows 8 PC was then able to connect to the database when using Office Accounting. Clearly, having users authenticate as 'Guest' stinks from a security and auditing standpoint. So what I need are some ideas for how to work around this. I've tried switching the Windows 8 PC to a 'local account' and that works too, but requires giving up significant functionality on the Windows 8 PC. What I really need is a way to force the Windows 8 PC to use a specific set of credentials when connecting to the remote SQL instance. Office Accounting takes the logged in username, which is my LiveID and doesn't correspond to any Windows user name. Anyone solved this issue?

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  • Coldfusion 8 Application Crashes Under Heavy Load

    - by KM01
    Hello, We have a CF8 app that runs for 20-25 minutes before crashing under heavy load ~ 1200 users. This load is generated by our load testing tool: 1200 users ramped up in 5 mins (approx behavior of our users), running for an hour. We have this app on Solaris 10, Apache 2, JRun 4 and Oracle 10g. Java version is 1.6. During the initial load tests, the thread dumps pointed to monitor deadlocks that pointed to sessions. "jrpp-173": waiting to lock monitor 0x019fdc60 (object 0x6b893530, a java.util.Hashtable), which is held by "scheduler-1" "scheduler-1": waiting to lock monitor 0x026c3ce0 (object 0x6abe2f20, a coldfusion.monitor.memory.SessionMemoryMonitor$TopMemoryUsedSessions), which is held by "jrpp-167" "jrpp-167": waiting to lock monitor 0x019fdc60 (object 0x6b893530, a java.util.Hashtable), which is held by "scheduler-1" We increased the number of sessions relative to the number of CPUs (48 simultaneous threads against 32 CPUs), and the deadlock went away. While varying the simultaneous threads helped a little bit in terms of response time, the CF server still tanked in 20-25 minutes during all of these tests. We ran more thread dumps, and saw a thread locking a monitor, for e.g.: "jrpp-475" prio=3 tid=0x02230800 nid=0x2c5 runnable [0x4397d000] java.lang.Thread.State: RUNNABLE at java.util.HashMap.getEntry(HashMap.java:347) at java.util.HashMap.containsKey(HashMap.java:335) at java.util.HashSet.contains(HashSet.java:184) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTracker.onAddObject(MemoryTracker.java:124) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTrackerProxy.onReplaceValue(MemoryTrackerProxy.java:598) at coldfusion.monitor.memory.MemoryTrackerProxy.onPut(MemoryTrackerProxy.java:510) at coldfusion.util.CaseInsensitiveMap.put(CaseInsensitiveMap.java:250) at coldfusion.util.FastHashtable.put(FastHashtable.java:43) - locked <0x6f7e1a78> (a coldfusion.runtime.Struct) at coldfusion.runtime.CfJspPage._arrayset(CfJspPage.java:1027) at coldfusion.runtime.CfJspPage._arraySetAt(CfJspPage.java:2117) at cfvalidation2ecfc1052964961$funcSETUSERAUDITDATA.runFunction(/app/docs/apply/cfcs/validation.cfc:377) As you see in the last line above there were several references CFMs and CFCs, and the lines have "cflock" tags, which were scoped to the "application." We (the dev team) then changed them to be scoped to a "name". After more load tests, there is no locking going on and there no deadlocks, but now the application tanks in 7-10 minutes. We've gotten system, network and DB reports from the respective admins, and they are not being taxed; even watched the server stats with server monitor, top, prstat, ran sar reports, etc. So we believe it is an issue with the CF server or maybe the JVM. I am running out of ideas as to what else we can try. Disclaimer: I am not a CF developer or Admin. I am just running the load test, analyzing the reports, threads etc, and sharing the results with the dev and admin teams, and trying the next change, and so on. So far no dice. Has anyone run into something similar? How did you go about diagnosing and troubleshooting? All thoughts and pointers welcome. Thank you for your time! KM

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  • Recognizing Dell EquilLogic with Nagios

    - by user3677595
    EDIT: All firmware and models are compatible, that is why nothing is posted about it. Okay, so there will be a lot here, so please bare with me. I've been working on this now for a few hours (reading manuals and such) so I'm not just coming here right out of the blue. I am working on a PRE-EXISTING Nagios server where there are several other existing plugins and checks running and working. Now I want to add another server there to check so I made the following modifications: First and foremost, I added a file to /usr/local/nagios/libexec named: check_equallogic.sh. The permissions are 755, the same as all others. I have chowned to nagios:nagios and in the listing it shows the Owner as Nagios. I then added a command to the commands.cfg file in \usr\local\nagios\etc\objects that shows the following: # 'check_equallogic' command definition define command{ command_name check_equallogic command_line $USER1$/check_equallogic -H $HOSTADDRESS$ -C $ARG1$ -t $ARG2$ $ARG3$ } Following this, I created a file named equallogic.cfg in the objects directory and it contains (more or less): define host{ use linux-server ; Inherit default values from a template host_name 172.16.50.11 ; The name we're giving to this device alias EqualLogic ; A longer name associated with the device address 172.16.50.11 ; IP address of the device contact_groups admins } Check Equallogic Information define service{ use generic-service host_name 172.16.50.11 service_description General Information check_command check_equallogic!public!info } After ensuring that permissions are okay for all files, I restart the nagios service, no errors. When I go into the WebGUI, I get the following errors AFTER the check runs: (Return code of 127 is out of bounds - plugin may be missing) Extra, probably unrelated problem Furthermore, when I log into the EquilLogic server, under Audit logs I get the following error: Level: AUDIT Time: 26/05/2014 3:59:13 PM Member: ps4100-1 Subsystem: agent Event ID: 22.7.1 SNMP packet validation failed, request received from 172.16.10.11 An snmpwalk receives a timeout, whereas others succeed. I will work on importing the MIBs tomorrow. The reason why I am mentioning it is because I want to make sure that it is only a MIB issue for the SNMP. If it is, then ignore this area. I am entirely unsure of what to do here.

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  • route http and ssh traffic normally, everything else via vpn tunnel

    - by Normadize
    I've read quite a bit and am close, I feel, and I'm pulling my hair out ... please help! I have an OpenVPN cliend whose server sets local routes and also changes the default gw (I know I can prevent that with --route-nopull). I'd like to have all outgoing http and ssh traffic via the local gw, and everything else via the vpn. Local IP is 192.168.1.6/24, gw 192.168.1.1. OpenVPN local IP is 10.102.1.6/32, gw 192.168.1.5 OpenVPN server is at {OPENVPN_SERVER_IP} Here's the route table after openvpn connection: # ip route show table main 0.0.0.0/1 via 10.102.1.5 dev tun0 default via 192.168.1.1 dev eth0 proto static 10.102.1.1 via 10.102.1.5 dev tun0 10.102.1.5 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.102.1.6 {OPENVPN_SERVER_IP} via 192.168.1.1 dev eth0 128.0.0.0/1 via 10.102.1.5 dev tun0 169.254.0.0/16 dev eth0 scope link metric 1000 192.168.1.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.6 metric 1 This makes all packets go via to the VPN tunnel except those destined for 192.168.1.0/24. Doing wget -qO- http://echoip.org shows the vpn server's address, as expected, the packets have 10.102.1.6 as source address (the vpn local ip), and are routed via tun0 ... as reported by tcpdump -i tun0 (tcpdump -i eth0 sees none of this traffic). What I tried was: create a 2nd routing table holding the 192.168.1.6/24 routing info (copied from the main table above) add an iptables -t mangle -I PREROUTING rule to mark packets destined for port 80 add an ip rule to match on the mangled packet and point it to the 2nd routing table add an ip rule for to 192.168.1.6 and from 192.168.1.6 to point to the 2nd routing table (though this is superfluous) changed the ipv4 filter validation to none in net.ipv4.conf.tun0.rp_filter=0 and net.ipv4.conf.eth0.rp_filter=0 I also tried an iptables mangle output rule, iptables nat prerouting rule. It still fails and I'm not sure what I'm missing: iptables mangle prerouting: packet still goes via vpn iptables mangle output: packet times out Is it not the case that to achieve what I want, then when doing wget http://echoip.org I should change the packet's source address to 192.168.1.6 before routing it off? But if I do that, the response from the http server would be routed back to 192.168.1.6 and wget would not see it as it is still bound to tun0 (the vpn interface)? Can a kind soul please help? What commands would you execute after the openvpn connects to achieve what I want? Looking forward to hair regrowth ...

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  • HttpWebRequest and Ignoring SSL Certificate Errors

    - by Rick Strahl
    Man I can't believe this. I'm still mucking around with OFX servers and it drives me absolutely crazy how some these servers are just so unbelievably misconfigured. I've recently hit three different 3 major brokerages which fail HTTP validation with bad or corrupt certificates at least according to the .NET WebRequest class. What's somewhat odd here though is that WinInet seems to find no issue with these servers - it's only .NET's Http client that's ultra finicky. So the question then becomes how do you tell HttpWebRequest to ignore certificate errors? In WinInet there used to be a host of flags to do this, but it's not quite so easy with WebRequest. Basically you need to configure the CertificatePolicy on the ServicePointManager by creating a custom policy. Not exactly trivial. Here's the code to hook it up: public bool CreateWebRequestObject(string Url) {    try     {        this.WebRequest =  (HttpWebRequest) System.Net.WebRequest.Create(Url);         if (this.IgnoreCertificateErrors)            ServicePointManager.CertificatePolicy = delegate { return true; };}One thing to watch out for is that this an application global setting. There's one global ServicePointManager and once you set this value any subsequent requests will inherit this policy as well, which may or may not be what you want. So it's probably a good idea to set the policy when the app starts and leave it be - otherwise you may run into odd behavior in some situations especially in multi-thread situations.Another way to deal with this is in you application .config file. Normal 0 false false false EN-US X-NONE X-NONE /* Style Definitions */ table.MsoNormalTable {mso-style-name:"Table Normal"; mso-tstyle-rowband-size:0; mso-tstyle-colband-size:0; mso-style-noshow:yes; mso-style-priority:99; mso-style-parent:""; mso-padding-alt:0in 5.4pt 0in 5.4pt; mso-para-margin-top:0in; mso-para-margin-right:0in; mso-para-margin-bottom:10.0pt; mso-para-margin-left:0in; line-height:115%; mso-pagination:widow-orphan; font-size:11.0pt; font-family:"Calibri","sans-serif"; mso-ascii-font-family:Calibri; mso-ascii-theme-font:minor-latin; mso-hansi-font-family:Calibri; mso-hansi-theme-font:minor-latin; mso-bidi-font-family:"Times New Roman"; mso-bidi-theme-font:minor-bidi;} <configuration>   <system.net>     <settings>       <servicePointManager           checkCertificateName="false"           checkCertificateRevocationList="false"                />     </settings>   </system.net> </configuration> This seems to work most of the time, although I've seen some situations where it doesn't, but where the code implementation works which is frustrating. The .config settings aren't as inclusive as the programmatic code that can ignore any and all cert errors - shrug. Anyway, the code approach got me past the stopper issue. It still amazes me that theses OFX servers even require this. After all this is financial data we're talking about here. The last thing I want to do is disable extra checks on the certificates. Well I guess I shouldn't be surprised - these are the same companies that apparently don't believe in XML enough to generate valid XML (or even valid SGML for that matter)...© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2011Posted in .NET  CSharp  HTTP  

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  • SharePoint 2010 – Central Admin tooling to create host header site collections

    - by eJugnoo
    Just like SharePoint 2007, you can create host-header based site collections in SharePoint 2010 as well. It means, that you do not necessarily need to create a site-collection under a managed path like /sites/, you can create multiple root-level site collections on same web-application/port by using host-header site collections. All you need to do is point your domain or sub-domain to your web-application and create a matching site-collection that you want. But, just like in 2007, it is something that you do by using STSADM, and is not available on Central Admin UI in 2010 as well. Yeah, though you can now also use PowerShell to create one: C:\PS>$w = Get-SPWebApplication http://sitename   C:\PS>New-SPSite http://www.contoso.com -OwnerAlias "DOMAIN\jdoe" -HostHeaderWebApplication $w -Title "Contoso" -Template "STS#0"   This example creates a host header site collection. Because the template is provided, the root Web of this site collection will be created. .csharpcode, .csharpcode pre { font-size: small; color: black; font-family: consolas, "Courier New", courier, monospace; background-color: #ffffff; /*white-space: pre;*/ } .csharpcode pre { margin: 0em; } .csharpcode .rem { color: #008000; } .csharpcode .kwrd { color: #0000ff; } .csharpcode .str { color: #006080; } .csharpcode .op { color: #0000c0; } .csharpcode .preproc { color: #cc6633; } .csharpcode .asp { background-color: #ffff00; } .csharpcode .html { color: #800000; } .csharpcode .attr { color: #ff0000; } .csharpcode .alt { background-color: #f4f4f4; width: 100%; margin: 0em; } .csharpcode .lnum { color: #606060; } I’ve been playing with WCM in SharePoint 2010 more and more, and for that I preferred creating hosts file entries for desired domains and create site-collections by those headers – in my dev environment. I used PowerShell initially, but then got interested to build my own UI on Central Admin instead. Developed with Visual Studio 2010 So I used new Visual Studio 2010 tooling to create an empty SharePoint 2010 project. Added an application page (there is no option to add _Admin page item in VS 2010 RC), that got created in Layouts “mapped” folder. Created a new Admin mapped folder for 14-“hive”, and moved my new page there instead. Yes, I didn’t change the base class for page, its just that it runs under _admin, but it is indeed a LayoutsPageBase inherited page. To introduce a action-link in Central Admin console, I created following element: 1: <Elements xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/"> 2: <CustomAction 3: Id="CreateSiteByHeader" 4: Location="Microsoft.SharePoint.Administration.Applications" 5: Title="Create site collections by host header" 6: GroupId="SiteCollections" 7: Sequence="15" 8: RequiredAdmin="Delegated" 9: Description="Create a new top-level web site, by host header" > 10: <UrlAction Url="/_admin/OfficeToolbox/CreateSiteByHeader.aspx" /> 11: </CustomAction> 12: </Elements> .csharpcode, .csharpcode pre { font-size: small; color: black; font-family: consolas, "Courier New", courier, monospace; background-color: #ffffff; /*white-space: pre;*/ } .csharpcode pre { margin: 0em; } .csharpcode .rem { color: #008000; } .csharpcode .kwrd { color: #0000ff; } .csharpcode .str { color: #006080; } .csharpcode .op { color: #0000c0; } .csharpcode .preproc { color: #cc6633; } .csharpcode .asp { background-color: #ffff00; } .csharpcode .html { color: #800000; } .csharpcode .attr { color: #ff0000; } .csharpcode .alt { background-color: #f4f4f4; width: 100%; margin: 0em; } .csharpcode .lnum { color: #606060; } Used Reflector to understand any special code behind createpage.aspx, and created a new for our purpose – CreateSiteByHeader.aspx. From there I quickly created a similar code behind, without all the fancy of Farm Config Wizard handling and dealt with alternate implementations of sealed classes! Goal was to create a professional looking and OOB-type experience. I also added Regex validation to ensure user types a valid domain name as header value. Below is the result…   Release @ Codeplex I’ve released to WSP on OfficeToolbox @ Codeplex, and you can download from here. Hope you find it useful… -- Sharad

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  • Getting TF215097 error after modifying a build process template in TFS Team Build 2010

    - by Jakob Ehn
    When embracing Team Build 2010, you typically want to define several different build process templates for different scenarios. Common examples here are CI builds, QA builds and release builds. For example, in a contiuous build you often have no interest in publishing to the symbol store, you might or might not want to associate changesets and work items etc. The build server is often heavily occupied as it is, so you don’t want to have it doing more that necessary. Try to define a set of build process templates that are used across your company. In previous versions of TFS Team Build, there was no easy way to do this. But in TFS 2010 it is very easy so there is no excuse to not do it! :-)   I ran into a scenario today where I had an existing build definition that was based on our release build process template. In this template, we have defined several different build process parameters that control the release build. These are placed into its own sectionin the Build Process Parameters editor. This is done using the ProcessParameterMetadataCollection element, I will explain how this works in a future post.   I won’t go into details on these parametes, the issue for this blog post is what happens when you modify a build process template so that it is no longer compatible with the build definition, i.e. a breaking change. In this case, I removed a parameter that was no longer necessary. After merging the new build process template to one of the projects and queued a new release build, I got this error:   TF215097: An error occurred while initializing a build for build definition <Build Definition Name>: The values provided for the root activity's arguments did not satisfy the root activity's requirements: 'DynamicActivity': The following keys from the input dictionary do not map to arguments and must be removed: <Parameter Name>.  Please note that argument names are case sensitive. Parameter name: rootArgumentValues <Parameter Name> was the parameter that I removed so it was pretty easy to understand why the error had occurred. However, it is not entirely obvious how to fix the problem. When open the build definition everything looks OK, the removed build process parameter is not there, and I can open the build process template without any validation warnings. The problem here is that all settings specific to a particular build definition is stored in the TFS database. In TFS 2005, everything that was related to a build was stored in TFS source control in files (TFSBuild.proj, WorkspaceMapping.xml..). In TFS 2008, many of these settings were moved into the database. Still, lots of things were stored in TFSBuild.proj, such as the solution and configuration to build, wether to execute tests or not. In TFS 2010, all settings for a build definition is stored in the database. If we look inside the database we can see what this looks like. The table tbl_BuildDefinition contains all information for a build definition. One of the columns is called ProcessParameters and contains a serialized representation of a Dictionary that is the underlying object where these settings are stoded. Here is an example:   <Dictionary x:TypeArguments="x:String, x:Object" xmlns="clr-namespace:System.Collections.Generic;assembly=mscorlib" xmlns:mtbwa="clr-namespace:Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow.Activities;assembly=Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Build.Workflow" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <mtbwa:BuildSettings x:Key="BuildSettings" ProjectsToBuild="$/PathToProject.sln"> <mtbwa:BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations> <mtbwa:PlatformConfigurationList Capacity="4"> <mtbwa:PlatformConfiguration Configuration="Release" Platform="Any CPU" /> </mtbwa:PlatformConfigurationList> </mtbwa:BuildSettings.PlatformConfigurations> </mtbwa:BuildSettings> <mtbwa:AgentSettings x:Key="AgentSettings" Tags="Agent1" /> <x:Boolean x:Key="DisableTests">True</x:Boolean> <x:String x:Key="ReleaseRepositorySolution">ERP</x:String> <x:Int32 x:Key="Major">2</x:Int32> <x:Int32 x:Key="Minor">3</x:Int32> </Dictionary> Here we can see that it is really only the non-default values that are persisted into the databasen. So, the problem in my case was that I removed one of the parameteres from the build process template, but the parameter and its value still existed in the build definition database. The solution to the problem is to refresh the build definition and save it. In the process tab, there is a Refresh button that will reload the build definition and the process template and synchronize them:   After refreshing the build definition and saving it, the build was running successfully again.

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