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  • Programmatically setup a PEAP connection in Windows Mobile

    - by tomlog
    I have been working on this for a few days and this is doing my head in: Our application is built using the .NET Compact Framework 2.0 and running on Windows Mobile 5 & 6 devices. We can set the WLAN connection of the device programmatically using the Wireless Zero Config functions (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms894771.aspx), most notably the WZCSetInterface function which we pinvoke from our application. This works fine for WEP and WPA-PSK connections. In a recent effort to add support for WPA2 networks we decided to modify the code. We have successfully added support for WPA2 which uses a certificate for the 802.1x authentication by setting the correct registry settings before calling WZCSetInterface. Now we want to do the same for WPA2 using PEAP (MS-CHAPv2) authentication. When manually creating such a connection in Windows Mobile the user will be prompted to enter the domain/user/password details. In our application we will have those details stored locally and want to do this all programmatically without any user intervention. So I thought going along the same route as the certificate authentication, setting the correct registry entries before calling WZCSetInterface. The registry settings we set are: \HKCU\Comm\EAP\Config\[ssid name] Enable8021x = 1 (DWORD) LastAuthSuccessful = 1 (DWORD) EapTypeId = 25 (DWORD) Identity = "domain\username" (string) Password = binary blob containing the password that is encrypted using the CryptProtectData function (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms938309.aspx) But when these settings are set and I call WZCSetInterface with the correct parameters, it still prompts me with the User Logon dialog asking for the domain/username/password. Has anyone got an idea what I need to do to prevent the password dialog from appearing and connect straight away with the settings stored in the registry?

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  • Same Origin issue with web service call

    - by Wjdavis5
    My web server runs at http://mypc.com:80 ` Given the following snip: $(window).load(function () { var myURL = "http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i"; $.getJSON(myURL) .done(function(data) {alert(data);}); }); I am running to this error: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://mypc.com:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i. Origin http://mypc.com is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. I understand why (I think) b/c my webservice runs at port 8000 which is different from what IIS is running on (port 80). I thought I could get around by using jsonp (according to the jQuery documentation here So I copied the example of making a call to the flickr api, but it isnt working. Any thoughts/sugggestions? UPDATE Ok so my request is being made now: var myURL = "http://192.168.1.104:8000/PSOCharts/service/HighChart_ColumnChart/i?jsoncallback=?"; $.ajax({ url :myURL, dataType: "jsonp", success: function(data) {a(data)} , error: function(){alert("err");}, }); But I am continually hitting the error function, here is what's being returned: [1.4,54.43,49.39,93.23] Now I'm assuming this is b/c the response text doesnt contain any type of callback here is the part of the interface I'm calling: [WebInvoke(Method = "GET", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, UriTemplate = "HighChart_ColumnChart/{id}?callback={cb}")] List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb); Here is the actual function being called: public List<double> HighChart_ColumnChart(string id,string cb) { var z = new List<double>(); z.Add(1.4); z.Add(54.43); z.Add(49.39); z.Add(93.23); return z; } when I debug, the CB param is something like : "jQuery19108121746340766549_1372630643878". How do I modify the code to wrap it correctly? Thanks for the help thus far!

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  • Automatically converting an A* into a B*

    - by Xavier Nodet
    Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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  • Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

    - by Rob
    This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

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  • How to proxy calls to the instance of an object

    - by mr.b
    Edit: Changed question title from "Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?" - figured out it doesn't have much to do with actual question. Also edited question text. What I want to accomplish is to proxy calls to a an instance of an object methods, so I could log calls to any of its methods. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); // need to write log message like "method A called" pc.inner.B(); // need to write log message like "method B called" // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Method overloading would be most obvious solution (if it was supported in PHP way). By extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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  • Selective replication with CouchDB

    - by FRotthowe
    I'm currently evaluating possible solutions to the follwing problem: A set of data entries must be synchonized between multiple clients, where each client may only view (or even know about the existence of) a subset of the data. Each client "owns" some of the elements, and the decision who else can read or modify those elements may only be made by the owner. To complicate this situation even more, each element (and each element revision) must have an unique identifier that is equal for all clients. While the latter sounds like a perfect task for CouchDB (and a document based data model would fit my needs perfectly), I'm not sure if the authentication/authorization subsystem of CouchDB can handle these requirements: While it should be possible to restict write access using validation functions, there doesn't seem to be a way to authorize read access. All solutions I've found for this problem propose to route all CouchDB requests through a proxy (or an application layer) that handles authorization. So, the question is: Is it possible to implement an authorization layer that filters requests to the database so that access is granted only to documents that the requesting client has read access to and still use the replication mechanism of CouchDB? Simplified, this would be some kind of "selective replication" where only some of the documents, and not the whole database is replicated. I would also be thankful for directions to some detailed information about how replication works. The CouchDB wiki and even the "Definite Guide" Book are not too specific about that.

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  • Debugging scripts loaded with GroovyShell (in eclipse)

    - by MSh
    I am working with eclipse and groovy plug in. I am building a test harness to debug and test groovy scripts. The scripts are really simple but long, most of them just if/else/return. I figured out that I can call them using GroovyShell and Bindings to pass in the values. The problem is that, while I can call the script and get the results just fine, I CAN NOT step in there with the debugger. Breakpoints in those scripts are not active. Is there a way to debug the scripts? Maybe I should use something other than GroovyShell? I really don't want to modify the scripts by wrapping them into functions, and then calling those functions from my test classes. That's how I am using Binding and GroovyShell: def binding = new Binding(); binding.lineList = [list1]; binding.count = 5; def shell = new GroovyShell(binding); def result = shell.evaluate(new File("src/Rules/checkLimit.groovy"));

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  • Design patterns for Caching Images in a MVC?

    - by Onema
    Hi, I'm designing an image cache system that will be used in an MVC CMS. The main purpose of the image cacher is to modify images: scale, crop, etc and cache them in the client site. I have created an image cache Model and Mapper that interact with the Database, to keep track of the images and know what kind of actions have been applied to them (scale, crop, etc). In addition to the Model and Mapper I have created a ImageCacher Class that is used by the API to manage the Model and image creation based on arguments passed by the client site, this class creates the images and generates the links to the images for the View. A coworker argued that I need to include the functionality of this last Class inside the Model, as the bulk of the logic should go in the model. I respectfully disagree with him since I feel the model's responsibility is to deal with the information about the images cached at the database level, and the responsibility of the ImageCacher Class is to create the url/image that we will be caching (keeping the single responsibility principle). In addition to this I believe that a model should not have Presentation-related features, like creating or showing images. Does anyone have any insight on this? is there a particular design pattern that would make this division of tasks clear and and the image cacher reusable? Should I add all the logic in the Model? Thank you.

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  • What does an object look like in memory?

    - by NeilMonday
    This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

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  • Running unittest with typical test directory structure.

    - by Major Major
    The very common directory structure for even a simple Python module seems to be to separate the unit tests into their own test directory: new_project/ antigravity/ antigravity.py test/ test_antigravity.py setup.py etc. for example see this Python project howto. My question is simply What's the usual way of actually running the tests? I suspect this is obvious to everyone except me, but you can't just run python test_antigravity.py from the test directory as its import antigravity will fail as the module is not on the path. I know I could modify PYTHONPATH and other search path related tricks, but I can't believe that's the simplest way - it's fine if you're the developer but not realistic to expect your users to use if they just want to check the tests are passing. The other alternative is just to copy the test file into the other directory, but it seems a bit dumb and misses the point of having them in a separate directory to start with. So, if you had just downloaded the source to my new project how would you run the unit tests? I'd prefer an answer that would let me say to my users: "To run the unit tests do X."

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  • Filter Date using Date Picker in Yii

    - by era
    I have generated my crud screens using gii.. I have a search form, where i have put a date picker, where i give the user to select the date he wants. But the problem is that i have the date stored in seconds in the database. and i know that i can convert the date using strtotime. But then how do i filter using the search method in my model? this is my date picker <?php $this->widget('zii.widgets.jui.CJuiDatePicker', array( 'name'=>'ordering_date', 'id'=>'ordering_date', // additional javascript options for the date picker plugin 'options'=>array( 'showAnim'=>'fold', ), 'htmlOptions'=>array( 'style'=>'height:20px;' ), )); ?> and this is my search method in my model. I want to compare the ordering_date public function search() { // Warning: Please modify the following code to remove attributes that // should not be searched. //echo $this->ordering_date; $criteria=new CDbCriteria; $criteria->compare('order_id',$this->order_id); $criteria->compare('customer_id',$this->customer_id); $criteria->compare('delivery_address_id',$this->delivery_address_id); $criteria->compare('billing_address_id',$this->billing_address_id); $criteria->compare('ordering_date',$this->ordering_date); $criteria->compare('ordering_done',$this->ordering_done,true); $criteria->compare('ordering_confirmed',$this->ordering_confirmed); $criteria->compare('payment_method',$this->payment_method); $criteria->compare('shipping_method',$this->shipping_method); $criteria->compare('comment',$this->comment,true); $criteria->compare('status',$this->status,true); $criteria->compare('total_price',$this->total_price); return new CActiveDataProvider($this, array( 'criteria'=>$criteria, )); }

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  • Getting a stream back from a .Net remoting service that is accessible with IP v4 and v6

    - by jon.ediger
    My company has an existing .Net Remoting service that listens on a port, fronting interfaces used by external systems. This all works great with IP v4 based communications. However, this service now needs to support both IP v4 communications and IP v6 communications. I have found info that the system.runtime.remoting section of the app.config should include two channels as follows: <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp6" port="9000" bindTo="[::]" /> <channel ref="tcp" name="tcp4" port="9000" bindTo="0.0.0.0" /> The above config file changes to the System.Runtime.Remoting config section will get the remoting service responding to non-stream functions on both ip v4 and ip v6. The issue comes only when attempting to get a stream back, used to upload or download large files. In this case, instead of getting a usable stream back, the following ArgumentException is thrown instead: IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 and IPv6 address ::0 are unspecified addresses that cannot be used as a target address. Parameter name: hostNameOrAddress Is there a way to modify the app.config (in the system.runtime.remoting section, or another section) so that the service will return a stream mapped to a real ip so the client can actually upload/download files while maintaining the ability to use both IP v4 and IP v6?

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  • Can a T-SQL variable represent an entire row?

    - by elbillaf
    I'm coding for MS SQL Server 10. I have two databases that contain dozens of tables. Each table in one database contains a table with the same name in the other database. Tables with the same name have identical format (fields and data types). The contents of the two tables are similar but not identical. I need to update one based on changes made to the other, but only under certain circumstances. I think I want to use a cursor for this, but I can't find a good example to go by. So far, the MSDN examples are reading one field at a time into a variable. I do need to be able to read /modify two fields which are identical in each table, but I gotta believe there's something less tedious than declaring variables for every field of every table. I would like to be able to FETCH an entire row, check a couple of fields and then make a decision of whether I want to write the entire row to the other table after changing two fields - but do I have to declare variables for EVERY field I want to fetch / write? There's no way to just FETCH an entire row and write an entire row?

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  • Add Source file link to the default ASP.NET Server Error page?

    - by Max Schilling
    Has anyone ever thought to attempt to modify the default ASP.NET Server error page to provide a link BACK to the error source in Visual Studio? Consider the following standard error page in ASP.NET: Server Error in '/myproject' Application. Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Source Error: Line 4323: cmd.CommandText = "usp_DoSomething"; Line 4324: Line 4325: using (var dr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) Line 4326: { Line 4327: if (dr != null) Source File: c:\development\myproject\myproject.components\providers\sql\sqldataprovider.cs Line: 4325 When an error like this is generated, the HTML has the source back to the file the error occurs in and the line number. Has anyone ever written or thought of writing some mechanism to turn the text into a link back to the error in Visual Studio? I've never seen anything that does it, but it just seems like it would be a helluva nice feature and I think about it in the back of my mind every time an error occurs when I have to manually go find it in the source. It would just be nice to be able to click a link to take me straight there. Anyone written any, or know of any solutions for this. I use Chrome or Firefox as my browsers of choice, but I'd even consider using IE again if someone found a plugin that did this. Thanks, Max

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  • Running an application from an USB device...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm working on a proof-of-concept application, containing a WCF service with console host and client, both on a single USB device. On the same device I will also have the client application which will connect to this service. The service uses the entity framework to connect to the database, which in this POC will just return a list of names. If it works, it will be used for a larger project. Creating the client and service was easy and this works well from USB. But getting the service to connect to the database isn't. I've found this site, suggesting that I should modify machine.config but that stops the XCopy deployment. This project cannot change any setting of the PC, so this suggestion is bad. I cannot create a deployment setup either. The whole thing just needs to run from USB disk. So, how do I get it to run? (The service just selects a list of names from the database, which it returns to the client. If this POC works, it will do far more complex things!)

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  • Oracle Insert via Select from multiple tables where one table may not have a row

    - by Mikezx6r
    I have a number of code value tables that contain a code and a description with a Long id. I now want to create an entry for an Account Type that references a number of codes, so I have something like this: insert into account_type_standard (account_type_Standard_id, tax_status_id, recipient_id) ( select account_type_standard_seq.nextval, ts.tax_status_id, r.recipient_id from tax_status ts, recipient r where ts.tax_status_code = ? and r.recipient_code = ?) This retrieves the appropriate values from the tax_status and recipient tables if a match is found for their respective codes. Unfortunately, recipient_code is nullable, and therefore the ? substitution value could be null. Of course, the implicit join doesn't return a row, so a row doesn't get inserted into my table. I've tried using NVL on the ? and on the r.recipient_id. I've tried to force an outer join on the r.recipient_code = ? by adding (+), but it's not an explicit join, so Oracle still didn't add another row. Anyone know of a way of doing this? I can obviously modify the statement so that I do the lookup of the recipient_id externally, and have a ? instead of r.recipient_id, and don't select from the recipient table at all, but I'd prefer to do all this in 1 SQL statement.

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  • Visutal Studio Warning "Content is not allowed" in ASP.NET project

    - by pstar
    Hi, I am just started working as a programmer last month, so there will be plenty of newbie question come from me, stay tuned... I am now working on modify the provided template (from DevExpress) to create new web form using ASP.NET 2.0 on Visual Studio 2008. While the functionality of that web form is there, I am in the process of get rid of ninety something warning message, most of them come from the provided template. One of them puzzled me for a while is this one: "Warning 75 Content is not allowed between the opening and closing tags for element 'ClientSideEvents'." And here is the code: <dxe:ASPxListBox id="edtMultiResource" runat="server" width="100%" SelectionMode="CheckColumn" DataSource='<%# ResourceDataSource %>' Border-BorderWidth="0"> <ClientSideEvents SelectedIndexChanged="function(s, e) { var resourceNames = new Array(); var items = s.GetSelectedItems(); var count = items.length; if (count > 0) { for(var i=0; i<count; i++) _aspxArrayPush(resourceNames, items[i].text); } else _aspxArrayPush(resourceNames, ddResource.cp_Caption_ResourceNone); ddResource.SetValue(resourceNames.join(', ')); }"></ClientSideEvents> </dxe:ASPxListBox> I couldn't see anything wrong with the code myself, so please help me out here.

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  • Checking if user owns file before deleting it

    - by Martin Hoe
    I'm building an API for my site that allows users to delete the files they upload. Obviously, I want to check if the user owns that file before they delete it through the API. I have a files table and a users table, here's the schema: f_id, s_id, u_id, name, size, uploaded u_id, username, password, email, activated, activation_code u_id is a foreign key. The u_id field in the files table points to the u_id in the users table. Given the users username, I want to find the users u_id, and then check if they own the file through the file ID (f_id). I wrote this SQL: $sql = 'SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f_id = ? AND u.u_id = ? LIMIT 1'; I'm assuming that'd work if I was given the users u_id in the API request, but alas I'm given only their username. How can I modify that SQL to find their user ID and use that? Thanks. Edit: Alright I've got this query but it's always returning an empty result set even though both the file ID and username exist. SELECT u.username FROM `users` u JOIN `files` f ON u.u_id = f.u_id WHERE f.f_id = ? AND u.username = ? LIMIT 1

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  • Creating multiple instances of a generic database

    - by sagekilla
    Hi all, currently I'm trying to have a setup where a generic database is distributed to students. They would develop an application using this database (Say a shopping cart application), submit their project onto our server, and then it would be graded automatically. These databases are being run in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. We're using user instances to instantiate each database, and multiple requests could be serviced at once. But, the problem is when more than one student submitted a project to be graded, the first database to be instantiated would be the only one and would overwrite all other copies that were currently open. So if stu1 modified his database and stu2 and stu3 had their projects being graded concurrently, at the end of the grading stu1, stu2, and stu3 would have identical DB's at the end. Is there any way I can have multiple independent copies of a generic database, each of which I can load concurrently and modify without having any changes made to any one affecting the others? I did a little reading, and thought it might be possible to do something along the lines of: Student submits project Attach the database with unique db name (specified by student) Do all necessary operations Detach the database I'm unsure if this would fix our problem or be possible, so any help would be much appreciated!

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  • replacing elements horizontally and vertically in a 2D array

    - by wello horld
    the code below ask for the user's input for the 2D array size and prints out something like this: (say an 18x6 grid) .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. code starts here: #include <stdio.h> #define MAX 10 int main() { char grid[MAX][MAX]; int i,j,row,col; printf("Please enter your grid size: "); scanf("%d %d", &row, &col); for (i = 0; i < row; i++) { for (j = 0; j < col; j++) { grid[i][j] = '.'; printf("%c ", grid[i][j]); } printf("\n"); } return 0; } I now ask the user for a string, then ask them where to put it for example: Please enter grid size: 18 6 Please enter word: Hello Please enter location: 0 0 Output: Hello............. .................. .................. .................. .................. .................. Please enter location: 3 4 Output: .................. .................. .................. ..Hello........... .................. .................. program just keeps going. Any thoughts on how to modify the code for this? PS: Vertical seems way hard, but I want to start on horizontal first to have something to work on.

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  • How to allow devise users to edit their profil?

    - by user1704926
    I have a namespace called "backend" which is protected by Devise. I would like now to allow users to edit their profil. So I created a users_controller in Backend. Here's the users_controllercode : class Backend::UsersController < ApplicationController layout 'admin' before_filter :authenticate_user! def index @users = Backend::User.all respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @users } end end def show @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end def edit @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) end def update @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'Article was successfully updated.' } format.json { head :no_content } else format.html { render action: "edit" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end end When I go on backend_users_path there is a list of all the users. I would like to permit to edit only his own profil. So I go on the Edit page : <%= link_to "Edit", edit_backend_user_path(backend_user.id) %> . Here's the Edit page code : <%= simple_form_for @user do |f| %> <div><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.input :email, :autofocus => true %></div> <div><%= f.submit "Update" %></div> <% end %> And there is my problem : when I try to modify the email address, nothing happen. The update fails. How can I do this ? I'm quite lost. Thanks by advance.

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  • How to perform a Depth First Search iteratively using async/parallel processing?

    - by Prabhu
    Here is a method that does a DFS search and returns a list of all items given a top level item id. How could I modify this to take advantage of parallel processing? Currently, the call to get the sub items is made one by one for each item in the stack. It would be nice if I could get the sub items for multiple items in the stack at the same time, and populate my return list faster. How could I do this (either using async/await or TPL, or anything else) in a thread safe manner? private async Task<IList<Item>> GetItemsAsync(string topItemId) { var items = new List<Item>(); var topItem = await GetItemAsync(topItemId); Stack<Item> stack = new Stack<Item>(); stack.Push(topItem); while (stack.Count > 0) { var item = stack.Pop(); items.Add(item); var subItems = await GetSubItemsAsync(item.SubId); foreach (var subItem in subItems) { stack.Push(subItem); } } return items; } EDIT: I was thinking of something along these lines, but it's not coming together: var tasks = stack.Select(async item => { items.Add(item); var subItems = await GetSubItemsAsync(item.SubId); foreach (var subItem in subItems) { stack.Push(subItem); } }).ToList(); if (tasks.Any()) await Task.WhenAll(tasks); UPDATE: If I wanted to chunk the tasks, would something like this work? foreach (var batch in items.BatchesOf(100)) { var tasks = batch.Select(async item => { await DoSomething(item); }).ToList(); if (tasks.Any()) { await Task.WhenAll(tasks); } } The language I'm using is C#.

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  • Inner or Outer left Join

    - by user1557856
    I'm having difficulty modifying a script for this situation and wondering if someone maybe able to help: I have an address table and a phone table both sharing the same column called id_number. So id_number = 2 on both tables refers to the same entity. Address and phone information used to be stored in one table (the address table) but it is now split into address and phone tables since we moved to Oracle 11g. There is a 3rd table called both_ids. This table also has an id_number column in addition to an other_ids column storing SSN and some other ids. Before the table was split into address and phone tables, I had this script: (Written in Sybase) INSERT INTO sometable_3 ( SELECT a.id_number, a.other_id, NVL(a1.addr_type_code,0) home_addr_type_code, NVL(a1.addr_status_code,0) home_addr_status_code, NVL(a1.addr_pref_ind,0) home_addr_pref_ind, NVL(a1.street1,0) home_street1, NVL(a1.street2,0) home_street2, NVL(a1.street3,0) home_street3, NVL(a1.city,0) home_city, NVL(a1.state_code,0) home_state_code, NVL(a1.zipcode,0) home_zipcode, NVL(a1.zip_suffix,0) home_zip_suffix, NVL(a1.telephone_status_code,0) home_phone_status, NVL(a1.area_code,0) home_area_code, NVL(a1.telephone_number,0) home_phone_number, NVL(a1.extension,0) home_phone_extension, NVL(a1.date_modified,'') home_date_modified FROM both_ids a, address a1 WHERE a.id_number = a1.id_number(+) AND a1.addr_type_code = 'H'); Now that we moved to Oracle 11g, the address and phone information are split. How can I modify the above script to generate the same result in Oracle 11g? Do I have to first do INNER JOIN between address and phone tables and then do a LEFT OUTER JOIN to both_ids? I tried the following and it did not work: Insert Into.. select ... FROM a1. address INNER JOIN t.Phone ON a1.id_number = t.id_number LEFT OUTER JOIN both_ids a ON a.id_number = a1.id_number WHERE a1.adrr_type_code = 'H'

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  • DataTables - Total rowCount - How to cut euro sign in the columns?

    - by Ivan M
    For my DataTable I'm using the fnFooterCallback function to display the total amount of the column, which is working untill the columns contain a special character, like in this case a euro valuta sign. How can I adjust this code so it will not detect the euro sign? "fnFooterCallback": function ( nRow, aaData, iStart, iEnd, aiDisplay ) { /* * Calculate the total market share for all browsers in this table (ie inc. outside * the pagination) */ var iTotal = 0; for ( var i=0 ; i<aaData.length ; i++ ) { iTotal += aaData[i][7]*1; } /* Calculate the market share for browsers on this page */ var iPage = 0; for ( var i=iStart ; i<iEnd ; i++ ) { iPage += aaData[ aiDisplay[i] ][7]*1; } /* Modify the footer row to match what we want */ var nCells = nRow.getElementsByTagName('th'); nCells[1].innerHTML = parseInt(iPage); } Thank you in advance. EDIT With not detecting I mean to str_replace or something like that. Not familiar with javascript language..

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  • Cross domain iframe content load detection

    - by fpb
    I have a rather interesting problem. I have a parent page that will create a modal jquery dialog with an iframe contained within the dialog. The iframe will be populated with content from a 3rd party domain. My issue is that I need to create some dialog level javascript that can detect if the content of the iframe loaded successfully and if it hasn't within a 5 second time frame, then to close the dialog and return the user to the parent page. I have researched numerous solutions and only two are of any true value. Get the remote site to include a javascript line of document.domain = 'our-domain.com'. Use a URL Fragment hack, but again I would need the request that the remote site able to modify the URL by appending '#some_value' to the end of the URL and my dialog window would have to poll the URL until it either sees it or times out. Are these honestly the only options I have to work with? Is there not a simpler way to just detect this? I have been researching if there's a way to poll for http response errors, but this still remains confined to the same restrictions. Any help would be immensely appreciated. Thanks

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