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  • At what point is it worth using a database?

    - by radix07
    I have a question relating to databases and at what point is worth diving into one. I am primarily an embedded engineer, but I am writing an application using QT to interface with our controller. We are at an odd point where we have enough data that it would be feasible to implement a database (around 700+ items and growing) to manage everything, but I am not sure it is worth the time right now to deal with. I have no problems implementing the GUI with files generated from excel and parsed in, but it gets tedious and hard to track even with VBA scripts. I have been playing around with converting our data into something more manageable for the application side with Microsoft Access and that seems to be working well. If that works out I am only a step (or several) away from using an SQL database and using the QT library to access and modify it. I don't have much experience managing data at this level and am curious what may be the best way to approach this. So what are some of the real benefits of using a database if any in this case? I realize much of this can be very application specific, but some general ideas and suggestions on how to straddle the embedded/application programming line would be helpful. Thanks

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  • How can I introduce a regex action to match the first element in a Catalyst URI ?

    - by RET
    Background: I'm using a CRUD framework in Catalyst that auto-generates forms and lists for all tables in a given database. For example: /admin/list/person or /admin/add/person or /admin/edit/person/3 all dynamically generate pages or forms as appropriate for the table 'person'. (In other words, Admin.pm has actions edit, list, add, delete and so on that expect a table argument and possibly a row-identifying argument.) Question: In the particular application I'm building, the database will be used by multiple customers, so I want to introduce a URI scheme where the first element is the customer's identifier, followed by the administrative action/table etc: /cust1/admin/list/person /cust2/admin/add/person /cust2/admin/edit/person/3 This is for "branding" purposes, and also to ensure that bookmarks or URLs passed from one user to another do the expected thing. But I'm having a lot of trouble getting this to work. I would prefer not to have to modify the subs in the existing framework, so I've been trying variations on the following: sub customer : Regex('^(\w+)/(admin)$') { my ($self, $c, @args) = @_; #validation of captured arg snipped.. my $path = join('/', 'admin', @args); $c->request->path($path); $c->dispatcher->prepare_action($c); $c->forward($c->action, $c->req->args); } But it just will not behave. I've used regex matching actions many times, but putting one in the very first 'barrel' of a URI seems unusually traumatic. Any suggestions gratefully received.

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  • Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

    - by Polity
    I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

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  • How to do this in a smart way

    - by Azzyh
    Hello SO. My websystem im coding with now is integrated from the originally phpBB system. With this i mean when you log on my websystem, you have actually logged into the forum from the login page. Now i came to the "log out" part, and i want to make it smart. Right now its a simply link with logout: <a href="<?php echo BASEDIR; ?>../../ucp.php?mode=logout&sid=<? echo $user->data['session_id']; ?>" style="margin-left: 14px; font-size: 10px;">- Log Out</a> As you see in the link it refers to the forum´s ucp.php?mode=logout, and you need to have the SID variable in it in order to log out right.. anyway.. I want to do this log out part in a smart way, i mean, not so you land on the forum´s "you have now been logged out", i want something maybe like run this page in background when you click, and then it refreshes the current page your on. Or should it be smarter just try to modify the phpbb file ucp.php? I think its hard coded, and not the way I am coding, so thats why i find it abit tricky. Thank you for your answers and examples on how this could be done, in a smart way..

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  • Mysql - Help me alter this query to apply AND logic instead of OR in searching?

    - by sandeepan-nath
    First execute these tables and data dumps :- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tags` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `tag` varchar(255) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id_tag`), UNIQUE KEY `tag` (`tag`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`), KEY `tag_2` (`tag`), KEY `tag_3` (`tag`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=18 ; INSERT INTO `Tags` (`id_tag`, `tag`) VALUES (1, 'key1'), (2, 'key2'); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tutors_Tag_Relations` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `id_tutor` int(10) default NULL, KEY `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`), KEY `id_tutor` (`id_tutor`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`, `id_tutor`) VALUES (1, 1), (2, 1); The following query finds all the tutors from Tutors_Tag_Relations table which have reference to at least one of the terms "key1" or "key2". SELECT td . * FROM Tutors_Tag_Relations AS td INNER JOIN Tags AS t ON t.id_tag = td.id_tag WHERE t.tag LIKE "%key1%" OR t.tag LIKE "%key2%" Group by td.id_tutor LIMIT 10 Please help me modify this query so that it returns all the tutors from Tutors_Tag_Relations table which have reference to both the terms "key1" and "key2" (AND logic instead of OR logic). Please suggest an optimized query considering huge number of data records (the query should NOT individually fetch two sets of tutors matching each keyword and then find the intersection).

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  • Spork doesnt reload code

    - by there-is-no-spoon
    I am using following gems and ruby-1.9.3-p194: rails 3.2.3 rspec-rails 2.9.0 spork 1.0.0rc2 guard-spork 0.6.1 Full list of used gems is available in this Gemfile.lock or Gemfile. And I am using this configuration files: Guardfile .rspec spec_helper.rb factories.rb If I modify any model (or custom validator in app/validators etc) reloading code doesnt works. I mean when I run specs (hit Enter on guard console) Spork contain "old code" and I got obsolete error messages. But when I manually restart Guard and Spork (CTRC-C CTRL-d guard) everything works fine. But it is getting tired after few times. Questions: Can somebody look at my config files please and fix error which block updating code. Or maybe this is an issue of newest Rails version? PS This problem repeats and repeats over some projects (and on some NOT). But I haven't figured out yet why this is happens. PS2 Perhaps this problem is something to do with ActiveAdmin? When I change file in app/admin code is reloaded.

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  • mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine gives me problems since security patch of MS

    - by Bronzato
    I am busy on this problem since 2 days ago and hope someone can get me out of it. I have Excel 2010 (full install 944Mb) on my Windows 8 computer. It works well. But when I modify my workbook (containing a ListView version 6.0) I am not able to run it on my client's computer. I get the error: Could Not Load An Object. Not Available on This Machine. Even it works well on my dev machine. The reason is: Microsoft applied a Security Patch (near august 2012 I think) on mscomctl.ocx and my Excel 2010 installation files (downloaded not long ago) contains the new version of mscomctl.ocx. The clients using my Excel file don't apply the security patch at this moment. Se everytime I publish my Excel file to client's computers (from my dev environment), I reference the new mscomctl.ocx. That's the problem. I already try to get the old mscomctl.ocx from client's computer and copy & register it on my dev machine but then I got errors (Class not registered, ...) when I create a userform and drag a listview on it. So: mscomctl.ocx on client's machine is version 6.1.98.13 from 2008. mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine is version 6.1.98.34 from 2012. My question: Does someone have an idea how to proceed to have a usable version of mscomctl.ocx on my dev machine? Thank you very much.

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  • ASP.Net MVC: Change Routes dynamically

    - by Frank
    Hi, usually, when I look at a ASP.Net MVC application, the Route table gets configured at startup and is not touched ever after. I have a couple of questions on that but they are closely related to each other: Is it possible to change the route table at runtime? How would/should I avoid threading issues? Is there maybe a better way to provide a dynamic URL? I know that IDs etc. can appear in the URL but can't see how this could be applicable in what I want to achieve. How can I avoid that, even though I have the default controller/action route defined, that default route doesn't work for a specific combination, e.g. the "Post" action on the "Comments" controller is not available through the default route? Background: Comment Spammers usually grab the posting URL from the website and then don't bother to go through the website anymore to do their automated spamming. If I regularly modify my post URL to some random one, spammers would have to go back to the site and find the correct post URL to try spamming. If that URL changes constantly I'd think that that could make the spammers' work more tedious, which should usually mean that they give up on the affected URL.

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  • NVelocity (or Velocity) as a stand-alone formula evaluator

    - by dana
    I am using NVelocity in my application to generate html emails. My application has an event-driven model, where saving and/or updating of objects causes these emails to be sent out. Each event can trigger zero, one or multiple multiple emails. I want to be able to configure which emails get sent out at run-time without having to modify code. I was thinking I could leverage the NVelocity #if() directive to do this. Here is my idea... Step 1) Prior to email sending, the administrator must configure a formula for NVelocity to evaluate. For example: $User.FirstName == "Jack" Step 2) When an object is saved or created, build an NVelocity template in memory based on the input formula. For example: String formula = GetFormulaFromDB(); // $User.FirstName == "Jack" String templ = "#if( " + formula + ") 1 #else 0 #end"; Step 3) Execute the NVelocity engine in memory against the template. Check the results to see if we have to send the email: String result = VelocityMerge(templ); // utility function if( result.Trim() == "1" ) { SendEmail(); } I know this is not exactly what NVelocity was intended to do, but I think it just might work :) One of the benefits of doing things this way is that the same syntax can be used for the formula as is used inside the template. Does anybody have any words of caution or suggestions? Is there a way to execute the #if() directive without jumping through hoops like I have above? Is there a recommended way to validate the formula syntax ahead of time? Thanks.

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  • Struts logic:iterate input field

    - by camilos
    I currently have the following code and the data is displayed fine. <logic:iterate name="myList" id="product" indexId="iteration" type="com.mycompany.MyBean"> <tr> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="weight"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="sku"/> </td> <td> <bean:write name="product" property="quantity"/> </td> </tr> </logic:iterate> But now I need to make the "quantity" part modifiable. The user should be able to update that field, press submit and when its sent to the server, "myList" should automatically update with the new quantities. I've tried searching for help on this but all I keep finding is examples on how to display data only, not modify it. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Accessing and inheriting Windows Message for other Windows Message in Delphi

    - by HX_unbanned
    I am using WMSysCommand messages to modify Caption bar button ( Maximize / Minimize ) behaivor and recent update requiered to use WMNCHitTest, but I do not want to split these two related messages in multiplie procedures because of lengthy code. Can I access private declaration ( message ) from other message? And if I can - How to do it? procedure TForm1.WMNCHitTest(var Msg: TWMNCHitTest) ; begin SendMessage(Handle, HTCAPTION, WM_NCHitTest, 0); // or other wParam or lParam ???? end; procedure TForm1.WMSysCommand; begin if (Msg.CmdType = SC_MAXIMIZE or 61488) or (Msg.Result = htCaption or 2) then // if command is Maximize or reciever message of Caption Bar click begin if CheckWin32Version(6, 0) then Constraints.MaxHeight := 507 else Constraints.MaxHeight := 499; Constraints.MaxWidth := 0; end else if (Msg.CmdType = SC_MINIMIZE or 61472) or (Msg.Result = htCaption or 2) then // if command is Minimize begin if (EnsureRange(Width, 252, 510) >= (510 / 2)) then PreviewOpn.Caption := '<' else PreviewOpn.Caption := '>'; end; DefaultHandler(Msg); // reset Message handler to default ( Application ) end; Soo ... do I think correctly and sipmly do not know correct commands or I am thinking total bullsh*t? Regards. Thanks for any help...

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  • Android: Adding header to dynamic listView

    - by cg5572
    I'm still pretty new to android coding, and trying to figure things out. I'm creating a listview dynamically as shown below (and then disabling items dynamically also) - you'll notice that there's no xml file for the activity itself, just for the listitem. What I'd like to do is add a static header to the page. Could someone explain to me how I can modify the code below to EITHER add this programatically within the java file, before the listView, OR edit the code below so that it targets a listView within an xml file! Help would be much appreciated!!! public class Start extends ListActivity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); DataBaseHelper myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(null); myDbHelper = new DataBaseHelper(this); try { myDbHelper.openDataBase(); }catch(SQLException sqle){ throw sqle; } ArrayList<String> categoryList = new ArrayList<String>(); Cursor cur = myDbHelper.getAllCategories(); cur.moveToFirst(); while (cur.isAfterLast() == false) { if (!categoryList.contains(cur.getString(1))) { categoryList.add(cur.getString(1)); } cur.moveToNext(); } cur.close(); Collections.sort(categoryList); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.listitem, categoryList) { @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View view = super.getView(position, convertView, parent); if(Arrays.asList(checkArray3).contains(String.valueOf(position))){ view.setEnabled(false); } else { view.setEnabled(true); } return view; } }); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(v.isEnabled()) { String clickedCat = l.getItemAtPosition(position).toString(); Toast.makeText(this, clickedCat, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); finish(); Intent myIntent = new Intent(getApplicationContext(), Questions.class); myIntent.putExtra("passedCategory", clickedCat); myIntent.putExtra("startTrigger", "go"); startActivity(myIntent); } } }

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  • Automatically converting an A* into a B*

    - by Xavier Nodet
    Hi, Suppose I'm given a class A. I would like to wrap pointers to it into a small class B, some kind of smart pointer, with the constraint that a B* is automatically converted to an A* so that I don't need to rewrite the code that already uses A*. I would therefore want to modify B so that the following compiles... struct A { void foo() {} }; template <class K> struct B { B(K* k) : _k(k) {} //operator K*() {return _k;} //K* operator->() {return _k;} private: K* _k; }; void doSomething(A*) {} void test() { A a; A* pointer_to_a (&a); B<A> b (pointer_to_a); //b->foo(); // I don't need those two... //doSomething(b); B<A>* pointer_to_b (&b); pointer_to_b->foo(); // 'foo' : is not a member of 'B<K>' doSomething(pointer_to_b); // 'doSomething' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'B<K> *' to 'A *' } Note that B inheriting from A is not an option (instances of A are created in factories out of my control)... Is it possible? Thanks.

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  • MySQL Update query with left join and group by

    - by Rob
    I am trying to create an update query and making little progress in getting the right syntax. The following query is working: SELECT t.Index1, t.Index2, COUNT( m.EventType ) FROM Table t LEFT JOIN MEvents m ON (m.Index1 = t.Index1 AND m.Index2 = t.Index2 AND (m.EventType = 'A' OR m.EventType = 'B') ) WHERE (t.SpecialEventCount IS NULL) GROUP BY t.Index1, t.Index2 It creates a list of triplets Index1,Index2,EventCounts. It only does this for case where t.SpecialEventCount is NULL. The update query I am trying to write should set this SpecialEventCount to that count, i.e. COUNT(m.EventType) in the query above. This number could be 0 or any positive number (hence the left join). Index1 and Index2 together are unique in Table t and they are used to identify events in MEvent. How do I have to modify the select query to become an update query? I.e. something like UPDATE Table SET SpecialEventCount=COUNT(m.EventType)..... but I am confused what to put where and have failed with numerous different guesses.

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  • How to perform a Depth First Search iteratively using async/parallel processing?

    - by Prabhu
    Here is a method that does a DFS search and returns a list of all items given a top level item id. How could I modify this to take advantage of parallel processing? Currently, the call to get the sub items is made one by one for each item in the stack. It would be nice if I could get the sub items for multiple items in the stack at the same time, and populate my return list faster. How could I do this (either using async/await or TPL, or anything else) in a thread safe manner? private async Task<IList<Item>> GetItemsAsync(string topItemId) { var items = new List<Item>(); var topItem = await GetItemAsync(topItemId); Stack<Item> stack = new Stack<Item>(); stack.Push(topItem); while (stack.Count > 0) { var item = stack.Pop(); items.Add(item); var subItems = await GetSubItemsAsync(item.SubId); foreach (var subItem in subItems) { stack.Push(subItem); } } return items; } EDIT: I was thinking of something along these lines, but it's not coming together: var tasks = stack.Select(async item => { items.Add(item); var subItems = await GetSubItemsAsync(item.SubId); foreach (var subItem in subItems) { stack.Push(subItem); } }).ToList(); if (tasks.Any()) await Task.WhenAll(tasks); UPDATE: If I wanted to chunk the tasks, would something like this work? foreach (var batch in items.BatchesOf(100)) { var tasks = batch.Select(async item => { await DoSomething(item); }).ToList(); if (tasks.Any()) { await Task.WhenAll(tasks); } } The language I'm using is C#.

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  • Visual C# Winforms App Not Displaying Graphical Elements in Design Mode

    - by Sev
    I wrote a bunch of code in the .cs file in c# for a winforms application. The application runs fine, and everything is in it's place. Something like this: using.. namespace Temp { public class Temp : Form { Button b1; TextBox t1; Temp() { b1.Text = "Some Text"; b1.Size = new Size(50,20); ... } void function1() { // stuff } static void Main() { Application.Run(new Temp()); } } } How can I modify my code (or fix it somehow) so that the design view displays the elements in their correct positions and view so that I can visually edit them instead of having to trial/error everything. Edit for Clarification My application runs fine. The problem is, that I didn't use designer to create the application and so in the designer view, the app is empty. But not empty when I run it, since everything is positioned programmatically in the .cs file. My question is, how can I fix this, so that the designer shows the objects correctly. There is no quick fix other than to redesign everything?

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  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

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  • mysql query not running correctly from inside the application

    - by Mala
    I am completely stumped. Here is my php (CodeIgniter) code: function mod() { $uid = $this->session->userdata('uid'); $pid = $this->input->post('pid'); if ($this->_verify($uid,$pid)) { $name = $this->input->post('name'); $price = $this->input->post('price'); $curr = $this->input->post('curr'); $url = $this->input->post('url'); $query = $this->db->query("UPDATE items SET name=".$this->db->escape($name).", price=".$this->db->escape($price).", currency=".$this->db->escape($curr),", url=".$this->db->escape($url)." WHERE pid=".$this->db->escape($pid)." LIMIT 1"); } header('location: '.$this->session->userdata('current')); } The purpose of this code is to modify the properties (name, price, currency, url) of a row in the 'items' table (priary key is pid). However, for some reason, allowing this function to run once modifies the name, price, currency and url of ALL entries in the table, regardless of their pid and of the LIMIT 1 thing I tacked on the end of the query. It's as if the last line of the query is being completely ignored. As if this wasn't strance enough, I replaced "$query = $this->db->query(" with an "echo" to see the SQL query being run, and it outputs a query much like I would expect: UPDATE items SET name='newname', price='newprice', currency='newcurrency', url='newurl' WHERE pid='10' LIMIT 1 Copy-pasting this into a MySQL window acts exactly as I want: it modifies the row with the selected pid. What is going on here???

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  • Building simple jQuery plugin, need assistance

    - by kirisu_kun
    Hi there, I'm building my first ever jQuery plugin (it's just a simple experiment). Here's what I have so far: (function($){ $.fn.extend({ auchieFader: function(options) { var defaults = { mask: '', topImg : '', } var options = $.extend(defaults, options); return this.each(function() { var o = options; var obj = $(this); var masker = $(o.mask, obj); masker.hover(function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "0" }, "slow"); }, function () { $(o.topImg).stop().animate({ "opacity": "1" }, "slow"); }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I'm then calling the plugin using: $('.fader').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); If I then add another request say: $('.fader2').auchieFader({mask: ".mask", topImg: ".top"}); Then no matter what instance of my 2 faders I hover both of them will trigger. I know this is because my mask mask and topImg options have the same class - but how can I modify the plugin to allow for these items to have the same class? I know it's probably something really simple, but I'm still finding my way with jQuery and Javascript in general. Any other tips on improving my code would also be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Chris

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  • Best ways to construct Dynamic Search Conditions for Sql

    - by CoolBeans
    I have always wondered what's the best way to achieve this task. In most web based applications you have to provide search options on many different criteria. Based on what criteria is chosen behind the scene you modify your SQL. Generally, this is how I tend to go about it:- Have a base SQL template. In the base template have conditions like this WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] .. so on and so forth. So an example SQL might look something like SELECT NAME,AGE FROM PERSONS [,#TABLE2] [,#TABLE3] WHERE [#PRE_COND1] AND [#PRE_COND2] ORDER BY [#ORD_COND1] AND [#ORD_COND2] etc. During run time after figuring out the all the search criteria user has entered, I replace the [#PRE_COND1]s and [#ORD_COND1]s with the appropriate SQLs and then execute the query. I personally do not like this brute force method. However, I never came across a better approach either. How do you accomplish such tasks generally given you are either using native JDBC or Spring JDBC? It is almost like I need a C MACRO like functionality in Java to do this.

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  • Help Redirecting A Page to Another Page with adverts for 5 seconds, and then redirecting to another page.

    - by XcodeDev
    Hey, I am trying to redirect a page to another page, and that was working successfully. However I am trying to redirect the first page to another page with adverts. This page will then redirect to another page after five seconds. I am trying to do that by doing this: <?php include('ads.php'); ?> <?php sleep(2); $url = $_GET['url']; header("Location: ".$url.""); exit; ?> However it is showing the advert in ads.php perfectly, but it is not redirecting after five seconds. I am receiving this error in my web browser: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/ads.php:1) in /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/index.php on line 7 A typical link I would be redirecting to would be this: http://nucleusiphone.com/adverts/index.php/?url=http%3A%2F%2Fitunes.apple.com%2Fmx%2Falbum%2Fstill-got-the-blues%2Fid14135178%3Fi%3D14135158 Thanks in advanced. PS. I don't know any php so any code helps!

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  • Waiting until one event has happened before moving onto the next.

    - by jaasum
    I currently have a scrolling anchor animation that also adds an "active" class to the anchor clicked. I am trying to fit the below function into the works as well, so say someone clicks "anchor 1", "anchor 1" will get an active class and the window will scroll to that location. But, after that has happened say the user manually begins scrolling down the page, I want the active class to be removed. The problem I am running up against now is that the below function will happen when the scrolling animation from a clicked anchor is taking place. How can I disable this only when the window is being scrolled from a clicked anchor? $(window).scroll(function() { $('a[href^=#]').removeClass('active'); }); Here is the scrolling anchor script I am working with. /******* *** Anchor Slider by Cedric Dugas *** *** Http://www.position-absolute.com *** Never have an anchor jumping your content, slide it. Don't forget to put an id to your anchor ! You can use and modify this script for any project you want, but please leave this comment as credit. *****/ jQuery.fn.anchorAnimate = function(settings) { settings = jQuery.extend({ speed : 500 }, settings); return this.each(function(){ var caller = this $(caller).click(function (event) { event.preventDefault() var locationHref = window.location.href var elementClick = $(caller).attr("href") var destination = $(elementClick).offset().top; $("html:not(:animated),body:not(:animated)").animate({ scrollTop: destination}, settings.speed, 'easeOutCubic', function() { window.location.hash = elementClick }); return false; }) }) } And lastly, my jQuery // Scrolling Anchors $('[href^=#]').anchorAnimate(); // Active Class For Clicked Anchors var anchorscroll = $('a[href^=#]') anchorscroll.click(function(){ var anchorlocation = $(this).attr("href"); anchorscroll.removeClass('active'); $(this).addClass('active'); $('a[href='+anchorlocation+']').addClass('active'); });

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  • Is Safari on iOS 6 caching $.ajax results?

    - by user1684978
    Since the upgrade to iOS 6, we are seeing Safari's web view take the liberty of caching $.ajax calls. This is in the context of a PhoneGap application so it is using the Safari WebView. Our $.ajax calls are POST methods and we have cache set to false {cache:false}, but still this is happening. We tried manually adding a timestamp to the headers but it did not help. We did more research and found that Safari is only returning cached results for web services that have a function signature that is static and does not change from call to call. For instance, imagine a function called something like: getNewRecordID(intRecordType) This function receives the same input parameters over and over again, but the data it returns should be different every time. Must be in Apple's haste to make iOS 6 zip along impressively they got too happy with the cache settings. Has anyone else seen this behavior on iOS 6? If so, what exactly is causing it? The workaround that we found was to modify the function signature to be something like this: getNewRecordID(intRecordType, strTimestamp) and then always pass in a timestamp parameter as well, and just discard that value on the server side. This works around the issue. I hope this helps some other poor soul who spends 15 hours on this issue like I did!

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  • Html 5 Time Tag not recognized by IE8 when cloning

    - by matsientst
    I have been having trouble getting IE to recognize the new Time tag in this context. This all works great in FF. Here is the code: var origComment = $('.articleComment:first div'); if (origComment.length > 0) { var commentHtml = origComment.clone(true); commentHtml.find('time').text('today'); var html = '<article class="' + ((side == 'LEFT') ? '' : 'that') + '">' + commentHtml.html() + '</article>'; $(html).insertAfter('.articleComment:last'); The HTML looks something like this: <article class="articleComment that"> <div id="156" class="parent"> <div class="byline"> <p>Posted <time pubdate="pubdate" datetime="2010-05-07T09:11:08">today</time> by<br/> <a class="username" href="/u/matt">matt</a> </p> <p class="report"><a href="#">Report?</a></p> </div> <div class="comment">left</div> </div> </article> IE can find the Time tag but it returns a collection of 2 elements. I assume the beginning and ending. However, I cannot access it to modify it. I have tried val(), html() and text(). I also can't drop to the actual HTMLElement. I can't get(0).innerHTML. But, if I .get(0).tagName it actually is the Time tag I've got. Any ideas? I hope this makes sense.

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  • Add Source file link to the default ASP.NET Server Error page?

    - by Max Schilling
    Has anyone ever thought to attempt to modify the default ASP.NET Server error page to provide a link BACK to the error source in Visual Studio? Consider the following standard error page in ASP.NET: Server Error in '/myproject' Application. Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'usp_DoSomething'. Source Error: Line 4323: cmd.CommandText = "usp_DoSomething"; Line 4324: Line 4325: using (var dr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) Line 4326: { Line 4327: if (dr != null) Source File: c:\development\myproject\myproject.components\providers\sql\sqldataprovider.cs Line: 4325 When an error like this is generated, the HTML has the source back to the file the error occurs in and the line number. Has anyone ever written or thought of writing some mechanism to turn the text into a link back to the error in Visual Studio? I've never seen anything that does it, but it just seems like it would be a helluva nice feature and I think about it in the back of my mind every time an error occurs when I have to manually go find it in the source. It would just be nice to be able to click a link to take me straight there. Anyone written any, or know of any solutions for this. I use Chrome or Firefox as my browsers of choice, but I'd even consider using IE again if someone found a plugin that did this. Thanks, Max

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