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  • How to make custom WCF error handler return JSON response with non-OK http code?

    - by John
    I'm implementing a RESTful web service using WCF and the WebHttpBinding. Currently I'm working on the error handling logic, implementing a custom error handler (IErrorHandler); the aim is to have it catch any uncaught exceptions thrown by operations and then return a JSON error object (including say an error code and error message - e.g. { "errorCode": 123, "errorMessage": "bla" }) back to the browser user along with an an HTTP code such as BadRequest, InteralServerError or whatever (anything other than 'OK' really). Here is the code I am using inside the ProvideFault method of my error handler: fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with Content-Type: application/json, however the status code is 'OK' instead of 'InternalServerError'. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; //rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with the correct status code, however the content-type is now XML. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var response = WebOperationContext.Current.OutgoingResponse; response.ContentType = "application/json"; response.StatusCode = HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; -- This returns with the correct status code and the correct content-type! The problem is that the http body now has the text 'Failed to load source for: http://localhost:7000/bla..' instead of the actual JSON data.. Any ideas? I'm considering using the last approach and just sticking the JSON in the HTTP StatusMessage header field instead of in the body, but this doesn't seem quite as nice?

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  • VBA - Access 03 - Iterating through a list box, with an if statement to evaluate

    - by Justin
    So I have a one list box with values like DeptA, DeptB, DeptC & DeptD. I have a method that causes these to automatically populate in this list box if they are applicable. So in other words, if they populate in this list box, I want the resulting logic to say they are "Yes" in a boolean field in the table. So to accomplish this I am trying to use this example of iteration to cycle through the list box first of all, and it works great: dim i as integer dim myval as string For i = o to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myVal = lstResults.itemdata(i) Next i if i debug.print myval, i get the list of data items that i want from the list box. so now i am trying to evaluate that list so that I can have an UPDATE SQL statement to update the table as i need it to be done. so, i know this is a mistake, but this is what i tried to do (giving it as an example so that you can see what i am trying to get to here) dim sql as string dim i as integer dim myval as string dim db as database sql = "UPDATE tblMain SET " for i = 0 to me.lstResults.listcount - 1 myval = lstResults.itemdata(i) If MyVal = "DeptA" Then sql = sql & "DeptA = Yes" ElseIF myval = "DeptB" Then sql = sql & "DeptB = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptC" Then sql = sql & "DeptC = Yes" ElseIf MyVal = "DeptD" Then sql = sql & "DeptD = Yes" End If Next i debug.print (sql) sql = sql & ";" set db= currentdb db.execute(sql) msgbox "Good Luck!" So you can see why this is going to cause problems because the listbox that these values (DeptA, DeptB, etc) automatically populate in are dynamic....there is rarely one value in the listbox, and the list of values changes per OrderID (what the form I am using this on populates information for in the first place; unique instance). I am looking for something that will evaluate this list one at a time (i.e. iterate through the list of values, and look for "DeptA", and if it is found add yes to the SQL string, and if it not add no to the SQL string, then march on to the next iteration). Even though the listbox populates values dynamically, they are set values, meaning i know what could end up in it. Thanks for any help, Justin

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  • Project References DLL version hell

    - by Mr Shoubs
    We're having problems getting visual studio to pick up the latest version of a DLL from one of our projects. We have multiple class library projects (e.g. BusinessLogic, ReportData) and a number of web services, each has a reference to a Connectivity DLL we've written (this ref to the connectivity DLL is the problem). We always point references to the DLL in the bin/debug folder, (which is where we always build to for any given project) and all custom DLL references have CopyLocal = True and SpecificVersion = False ReportData has a reference to business logic (which also has a reference to connectivity - I don't see why this should cause a problem, but thought it is worth mentioning) The weird thing is, when you click "Add Reference" and browse to Connectivity/bin/debug - you hover the mouse over the DLL file, the correct (latest) version is shown (version and file version are always incremented together), but when you click ok, a previous version number is pulled though. Even when I look in the current projects debug folder (where copy local would put the DLL after compiling) that shows the latest version number. - NO WHERE does can I find the previous version of the DLL outside of visual studio, but in that project references it has the old version - even though the path is correct. I'm at a loss as to where it might be getting the old versions from. Or even why it wants that one. This is possibly the most frustraighting problem I have ever come across. Does anyone know how to ensure the latest version is pulled through (preferably automatically or on compile). EDIT: Although not exactly the scenario I'm dealing with I was reading this article and somewhere it mentions about CLR ignoring revision numbers. Understandable (even though this hasn't been a problem before - we're on revision 39), so I thought I would update the build number, still didn't work. In a vain attempt I though I would update the minor version number and see if that made any difference. I'm not saying this is the answer as I have to check quite a few things first, but on the face of it, this seems to have solved my problem... Further edit: In other class libraries this seems to have solved the problem, however in a test windows application it still pulls a previous version through :( If I increment the minor version number again, the same problem come back and I am left with the wrong version being pulled though. Further Edit - I created an entirly new project, added a reference and still had the exact same problem. This suggests the problem is restriced to the project I am referencing. Wish I knew why! Anyone had this problem before and know how to get around it? HELP!

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  • Passing a ManagedObjectContext to a second view

    - by amo
    I'm writing my first iPhone/Cocoa app. It has two table views inside a navigation view. When you touch a row in the first table view, you are taken to the second table view. I would like the second view to display records from the CoreData entities related to the row you touched in the first view. I have the CoreData data showing up fine in the first table view. You can touch a row and go to the second table view. I'm able to pass info from the selected object from the first to the second view. But I cannot get the second view to do its own CoreData fetching. For the life of me I cannot get the managedObjectContext object to pass to the second view controller. I don't want to do the lookups in the first view and pass a dictionary because I want to be able to use a search field to refine results in the second view, as well as insert new entries to the CoreData data from there. Here's the function that transitions from the first to the second view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. NSManagedObject *selectedObject = [[self fetchedResultsController] objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; SecondViewController *secondViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondView" bundle:nil]; secondViewController.tName = [[selectedObject valueForKey:@"name"] description]; secondViewController.managedObjectContext = [self managedObjectContext]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:secondViewController animated:YES]; [secondViewController release]; } And this is the function inside SecondViewController that crashes: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.title = tName; NSError *error; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { // <-- crashes here // Handle the error... } } - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } /* Set up the fetched results controller. */ // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. // **** crashes on the next line because managedObjectContext == 0x0 NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"SecondEntity" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // <snip> ... more code here from Apple template, never gets executed because of the crashing return fetchedResultsController; } Any ideas on what I am doing wrong here? managedObjectContext is a retained property. UPDATE: I inserted a NSLog([[managedObjectContext registeredObjects] description]); in viewDidLoad and it appears managedObjectContext is being passed just fine. Still crashing, though. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'SecondEntity''

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  • C# Nested Property Accessing overloading OR Sequential Operator Overloading

    - by Tim
    Hey, I've been searching around for a solution to a tricky problem we're having with our code base. To start, our code resembles the following: class User { int id; int accountId; Account account { get { return Account.Get(accountId); } } } class Account { int accountId; OnlinePresence Presence { get { return OnlinePresence.Get(accountId); } } public static Account Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } class OnlinePresence { int accountId; bool isOnline; public static OnlinePresence Get(int accountId) { // hits a database and gets back our object. } } What we're often doing in our code is trying to access the account Presence of a user by doing var presence = user.Account.Presence; The problem with this is that this is actually making two requests to the database. One to get the Account object, and then one to get the Presence object. We could easily knock this down to one request if we did the following : var presence = UserPresence.Get(user.id); This works, but sort of requires developers to have an understanding of the UserPresence class/methods that would be nice to eliminate. I've thought of a couple of cool ways to be able to handle this problem, and was wondering if anyone knows if these are possible, if there are other ways of handling this, or if we just need to think more as we're coding and do the UserPresence.Get instead of using properties. Overload nested accessors. It would be cool if inside the User class I could write some sort of "extension" that would say "any time a User object's Account property's Presence object is being accessed, do this instead". Overload the . operator with knowledge of what comes after. If I could somehow overload the . operator only in situations where the object on the right is also being "dotted" it would be great. Both of these seem like things that could be handled at compile time, but perhaps I'm missing something (would reflection make this difficult?). Am I looking at things completely incorrectly? Is there a way of enforcing this that removes the burden from the user of the business logic? Thanks! Tim

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  • iPhone app with tab bar and navigation bar as peers

    - by Mac
    I'm trying to write an application that uses a navigation bar and tab bar in what (I'm gathering) is an unusual manner. Basically, I've got several "pages" ("home", "settings", etc) that each have their own tab. I'd also like to have it so that the "home" page is the root view of the navigation bar, and the other pages are the second-level views of the navigation bar. That is, I should be able to navigate to any page by clicking the appropriate tab bar item, and should be able to navigate to the home page from any other page by clicking the navigation bar's back button. Currently, I have a UINavigationBar (through a UINavigationController) and a UITabBar (through a UITabController) as children of a UIView. The various pages' view controllers are set as the tab controller's viewControllers property, and the home page's controller is also set as the navigation controller's root view. Each page view's tag is set to its index in the tab control. I have the following logic in the tab controller's didSelectViewController delegate method: - (void) tabBarController:(UITabBarController*) tabBarController didSelectViewController:(UIViewController*) viewController { if ([navController.viewControllers count] > 1) [navController popViewControllerAnimated:NO]; [navController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } Also, in the navigation controller's didShowViewController delegate method, I have the following code: - (void) navigationController:(UINavigationController *) navigationController didShowViewController:(UIViewController *)viewController animated:(BOOL)animated { tabController.selectedIndex = viewController.view.tag; } The problem that's occurring is that when I run this, the navigation bar, tab bar and home page all display ok, but the tab bar will not respond to input - I cannot select a different tab. I gather it's more usual to have the tab bar as the child of the navigation control, or vice versa. This doesn't seem to fit my approach, because I don't want to have to individually create the subordinate control each time a change occurs in the parent control - eg: recreate tab bar each time the navigation bar changes. Does anyone have suggestions as to what's wrong and how to fix it? I'm probably missing something obvious, but whatever it is I can't seem to find it. Thanks! EDIT: I'm guessing it has something to do with both controller's trying to have ownership of the page controller, but I can't for the life of me figure out a way around it.

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  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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  • DevExpress Reporting Session Issue

    - by LeeHull
    This is pretty complicated so I will explain what is going on. I have created an ASP.NET website for displaying images, the way we use our images is, we have a database table that contains the URL where the images are located, however we recently started moving them from the filesystem, and storing them directly into the database as binary, but since we don't want to break older applications, we currently store them both places till they are all updated. Alright, the website I'm working on, is just a reporting website to display images by a date range, I have created an HTTPHandler to display the image, depending if they exist in the database as binary, if the row is DBNull, I just grab the URL from the other table instead, I just read the image, convert it into a byte[] and write it to the response, so it is interpreted as an image. I have created a page to display the report using DevExpress Reporting, I just query the report, save the dataset into a session, and the report reads the session to bind the report, i also have a picturebox in the report bound to "Handler.ashx?id=ImageID", this is because I am not binding a URL to the image, since it is a byte[] Also since there could be a report with 10000+ images, I am reading the dataset from the session inside the handler and just pulling out the image from the passed in ImageID, I am doing this to prevent connecting to the database each and every row. Now the strange thing is, Report loads fine.. data is loading, I have paging on the devexpress report viewer, it is loading the images fine, however here is the issue. When I print or export, I am not getting any images, I am debugged and found out the Session.Count is 0 when it tries to print or export, which is strange since there is more than just the dataset in the session. I have also added IRequiresSessionState to allow sessions in the handler, but the session count is still 0, I have changing the Handler to an aspx page, same issue. Any ideas or suggestions on logic changes, I'm all ears.. this is a very difficult situation since I have to display the images from database as a string AND byte[] since one can be URL and other be the image bytes, but I also can't slam the database on connection calls each row either. I have also reported the issue to DevExpress and they are clueless as well, since they don't dispose the session in the exporting process.

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  • How do I prevent the concurrent execution of a javascript function?

    - by RyanV
    I am making a ticker similar to the "From the AP" one at The Huffington Post, using jQuery. The ticker rotates through a ul, either by user command (clicking an arrow) or by an auto-scroll. Each list-item is display:none by default. It is revealed by the addition of a "showHeadline" class which is display:list-item. HTML for the UL Looks like this: <ul class="news" id="news"> <li class="tickerTitle showHeadline">Test Entry</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry2</li> <li class="tickerTitle">Test Entry3</li> </ul> When the user clicks the right arrow, or the auto-scroll setTimeout goes off, it runs a tickForward() function: function tickForward(){ var $active = $('#news li.showHeadline'); var $next = $active.next(); if($next.length==0) $next = $('#news li:first'); $active.stop(true, true); $active.fadeOut('slow', function() {$active.removeClass('showHeadline');}); setTimeout(function(){$next.fadeIn('slow', function(){$next.addClass('showHeadline');})}, 1000); if(isPaused == true){ } else{ startScroll() } }; This is heavily inspired by Jon Raasch's A Simple jQuery Slideshow. Basically, find what's visible, what should be visible next, make the visible thing fade and remove the class that marks it as visible, then fade in the next thing and add the class that makes it visible. Now, everything is hunky-dory if the auto-scroll is running, kicking off tickForward() once every three seconds. But if the user clicks the arrow button repeatedly, it creates two negative conditions: Rather than advance quickly through the list for just the number of clicks made, it continues scrolling at a faster-than-normal rate indefinitely. It can produce a situation where two (or more) list items are given the .showHeadline class, so there's overlap on the list. I can see these happening (especially #2) because the tickForward() function can run concurrently with itself, producing different sets of $active and $next. So I think my question is: What would be the best way to prevent concurrent execution of the tickForward() method? Some things I have tried or considered: Setting a Flag: When tickForward() runs, it sets an isRunning flag to true, and sets it back to false right before it ends. The logic for the event handler is set to only call tickForward() if isRunning is false. I tried a simple implementation of this, and isRunning never appeared to be changed. The jQuery queue(): I think it would be useful to queue up the tickForward() commands, so if you clicked it five times quickly, it would still run as commanded but wouldn't run concurrently. However, in my cursory reading on the subject, it appears that a queue has to be attached to the object its queue applies to, and since my tickForward() method affects multiple lis, I don't know where I'd attach it.

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  • ClassCastException when casting custom View subclass

    - by Jens Jacob
    Hi I've run into an early problem with developing for android. I've made my own custom View (which works well). In the beginning i just added it to the layout programmatically, but i figured i could try putting it into the XML layout instead (for consistency). So what i got is this: main.xml: [...] <sailmeter.gui.CompassView android:id="@+id/compassview1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@id/widget55" android:background="@color/white" /> [...] CompassView.java: public class CompassView extends View { } SailMeter.java (activity class): public class SailMeter extends Activity implements PropertyChangeListener { public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); compassview = (CompassView) findViewById(R.id.compassview1); [...] } } (Theres obviously more, but you get the point) Now, this is the stacktrace: 05-23 16:32:01.991: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{sailmeter.gui/sailmeter.gui.SailMeter}: java.lang.ClassCastException: android.view.View 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2596) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2621) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2200(ActivityThread.java:126) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1932) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4595) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): Caused by: java.lang.ClassCastException: android.view.View 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at sailmeter.gui.SailMeter.onCreate(SailMeter.java:51) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2544) 05-23 16:32:02.051: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(10742): ... 11 more Why cant i cast my custom view? I need it to be that type since it has a few extra methods in it that i want to access. Should i restructure it and have another class handle the logic, and then just having the view being a view? Thanks for any help.

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  • Java JMS Messaging

    - by London
    Hello, I have a working example of sending message to server and server receiving it via qpid messaging. Here is simple hello world to send to server : http://pastebin.com/M7mSECJn And here is server which receives requests and sends response(the current client doesn't receive response) : http://pastebin.com/2mEeuzrV Here is my property file : http://pastebin.com/TLEFdpXG They all work perfectly, I can see the messages in the qpid queue via Qpid JMX management console. These examples are downloaded from https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/qpid/trunk/qpid/java/client/example (someone may need it also). I've done Jboss messaging using spring before, but I can't manage to do the same with qpid. With jboss inside applicationsContext I had beans jndiTemplate, conectionFactory, destinationQueue, and jmscontainer like this : <!-- Queue configuration --> <bean id="jndiTemplate" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiTemplate"> <property name="environment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">org.jnp.interfaces.NamingContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">jnp://localhost:1099</prop> <prop key="java.naming.factory.url.pkgs">org.jboss.naming:org.jnp.interfaces</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.principal">admin</prop> <prop key="java.naming.security.credentials">admin</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="connectionFactory" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName" value="ConnectionFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="queueDestination" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiTemplate" ref="jndiTemplate" /> <property name="jndiName"> <value>queue/testQueue</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="jmsContainer" class="org.springframework.jms.listener.DefaultMessageListenerContainer"> <property name="connectionFactory" ref="connectionFactory" /> <property name="destination" ref="queueDestination" /> <property name="messageListener" ref="listener" /> </bean> and of course sender and listener : Now I'd like to rewrite this qpid example using spring context logic. Can anyone help me?

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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  • Java: error handling with try-catch, empty-try-catch, dummy-return

    - by HH
    A searh uses recursively defined function that easily throws exceptions. I have tried 3 ways to handle exeptions: to ignore with an empty-try-catch() add-dummy-return stop err-propagation due to exeption throw a specific except. (this part I don't really understand. If I throw except, can I force it to continue elsewhere, not continuing the old except-thrown-path?) Some exceptions I do not realy care like during execution removed files -exception (NullPointer) but some I really do like unknown things. Possible exceptions: // 1. if a temp-file or some other file removed during execution -> except. // 2. if no permiss. -> except. // 3. ? --> except. The code is Very import for the whole program. I earlier added clittered-checks, try-catches, avoided-empty-try-catches but it really blurred the logic. Some stoned result here would make the code later much easier to maintain. It was annoying to track random exeptions due to some random temp-file removal! How would you handle exceptions for the critical part? Code public class Find { private Stack<File> fs=new Stack<File>(); private Stack<File> ds=new Stack<File>(); public Stack<File> getD(){ return ds;} public Stack<File> getF(){ return fs;} public Find(String path) { // setting this type of special checks due to errs // propagation makes the code clittered if(path==null) { System.out.println("NULL in Find(path)"); System.exit(9); } this.walk(path); } private void walk( String path ) { File root = new File( path ); File[] list = root.listFiles(); //TODO: dangerous with empty try-catch?! try{ for ( File f : list ) { if ( f.isDirectory() ) { walk( f.getAbsolutePath() ); ds.push(f); } else { fs.push(f); } } }catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();} } } Code refactored from here.

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  • Qt4: QPrinter / QPainter only prints the first document

    - by hurikhan77
    The problem is that my application only prints the first document fine. The second document is empty, only the page number is printed, the rest of the page is empty. In Qt4, I'm initializing the printer in the main.cpp in the following way: mw->printer = new QPrinter(QPrinter::HighResolution); mw->printer->setPaperSize(QPrinter::A5); mw->printer->setNumCopies(2); mw->printer->setColorMode(QPrinter::GrayScale); QPrintDialog *dialog = new QPrintDialog(mw->printer, mw); dialog->setWindowTitle(QObject::tr("Printer Setup")); if (dialog->exec() == QDialog::Accepted) { mw->printer->setFullPage(TRUE); return a.exec (); } This works fine for printing the first document from the application: qDebug("Printing"); QPainter p; if (!p.begin(printer)) { qDebug("Printing aborted"); return; } Q3PaintDeviceMetrics metrics(p.device()); int dpiy = metrics.logicalDpiY(); int dpix = metrics.logicalDpiX(); int tmargin = (int) ((marginTop / 2.54) * dpiy); int bmargin = (int) ((marginBottom / 2.54) * dpiy); int lmargin = (int) ((marginLeft / 2.54) * dpix); int rmargin = (int) ((marginRight / 2.54) * dpix); QRect body(lmargin, tmargin, metrics.width() - (lmargin + rmargin), metrics.height() - (tmargin + bmargin)); QString document; /* ... app logic to write a richtext document */ Q3SimpleRichText richText(QString("<qt>%1</qt>").arg(document), QFont("Arial", fontSize)); richText.setWidth(&p, body.width()); QRect view(body); int page = 1; do { // draw text richText.draw(&p, body.left(), body.top(), view, colorGroup()); view.moveBy(0, body.height()); p.translate(0, -body.height()); // insert page number p.drawText(view.right() - p.fontMetrics().width(QString::number(page)), view.bottom() + p.fontMetrics().ascent() + 5, QString::number(page)); // exit loop on last page if (view.top () >= richText.height ()) break; printer->newPage(); page++; } while (TRUE); if (!p.end()) qDebug("Print painter yielded failure"); But when this routine runs the second time, it does not print the document. It will just print an empty page but still with the page number on it. This worked fine before with Qt3.

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  • Advice on displaying and allowing editing of data using ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Remnant
    I am embarking upon my first ASP.NET MVC project and I would like to get some input on possible ways to display database data and general best practice. In short, the body of my webpage will show data from my database in a table like format, with each table row showing similar data. For example: Name Age Position Date Joined Jon Smith 23 Striker 18th Mar 2005 John Doe 38 Defender 3rd Jan 1988 In terms of functionality, primarily I’d like to give the user the ability to edit the data and, after the edit, commit the edit to the database and refresh the view.The reason I want to refresh the view is because the data is date ordered and I will need to re-sort if the user edits a date field. My main question is what architecture / tools would be best suited to this fulfil my requirements at a high level? From the research I have done so far my initial conclusions were: ADO.NET for data retrieval. This is something I have used before and feel comfortable with. I like the look of LINQ to SQL but don’t want to make the learning curve any steeper for my first outing into MVC land just yet. Partial Views to create a template and then iterate through a datatable that I have pulled back from my database model. jQuery to allow the user to edit data in the table, error check edited data entries etc. Also, my intial view was that caching the data would not be a key requirement here. The only field a user will be able to update is the field and, if they do, I will need to commit that data to the database immediately and then refresh the view (as the data is date sorted). Any thoughts on this? Alternatively, I have seen some jQuery plug-ins that emulate a datagrid and provide associated functionality. My first thoughts are that I do not need all the functionality that comes with these plug-ins (e.g. zebra striping, ability to sort by column using sort glyph in column headers etc .) and I don’t really see any benefit to this over and above the solution I have outlined above. Again, is there reason to reconsider this view? Finally, when a user edits a date , I will need to refresh the view. In order to do this I had been reading about Html.RenderAction and this seemed like it may be a better option than using Partial Views as I can incorporate application logic into the action method. Am I right to consider Html.RenderAction or have I misunderstood its usage? Hope this post is clear and not too long. I did consider separate posts for each topic (e.g. Partial View vs. Html.RenderAction, when to use jQury datagrid plug-in) but it feels like these issues are so intertwined that they need to be dealt with in contect of each other. Thanks

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  • How to implement login page using Spring Security so that it works with Spring web flow?

    - by simon
    I have a web application using Spring 2.5.6 and Spring Security 2.0.4. I have implemented a working login page, which authenticates the user against a web service. The authentication is done by defining a custom authentincation manager, like this: <beans:bean id="customizedFormLoginFilter" class="org.springframework.security.ui.webapp.AuthenticationProcessingFilter"> <custom-filter position="AUTHENTICATION_PROCESSING_FILTER" /> <beans:property name="defaultTargetUrl" value="/index.do" /> <beans:property name="authenticationFailureUrl" value="/login.do?error=true" /> <beans:property name="authenticationManager" ref="customAuthenticationManager" /> <beans:property name="allowSessionCreation" value="true" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="customAuthenticationManager" class="com.sevenp.mobile.samplemgmt.web.security.CustomAuthenticationManager"> <beans:property name="authenticateUrlWs" value="${WS_ENDPOINT_ADDRESS}" /> </beans:bean> The authentication manager class: public class CustomAuthenticationManager implements AuthenticationManager, ApplicationContextAware { @Transactional @Override public Authentication authenticate(Authentication authentication) throws AuthenticationException { //authentication logic return new UsernamePasswordAuthenticationToken(principal, authentication.getCredentials(), grantedAuthorityArray); } The essential part of the login jsp looks like this: <c:url value="/j_spring_security_check" var="formUrlSecurityCheck"/> <form method="post" action="${formUrlSecurityCheck}"> <div id="errorArea" class="errorBox"> <c:if test="${not empty param.error}"> ${sessionScope["SPRING_SECURITY_LAST_EXCEPTION"].message} </c:if> </div> <label for="loginName"> Username: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="1" id="login" name="j_username" /> </label> <label for="password"> Password: <input style="width:125px;" tabindex="2" id="password" name="j_password" type="password" /> </label> <input type="submit" tabindex="3" name="login" class="formButton" value="Login" /> </form> Now the problem is that the application should use Spring Web Flow. After the application was configured to use Spring Web Flow, the login does not work anymore - the form action to "/j_spring_security_check" results in a blank page without error message. What is the best way to adapt the existing login process so that it works with Spring Web Flow?

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  • In MySQL, what is the most effective query design for joining large tables with many to many relatio

    - by lighthouse65
    In our application, we collect data on automotive engine performance -- basically source data on engine performance based on the engine type, the vehicle running it and the engine design. Currently, the basis for new row inserts is an engine on-off period; we monitor performance variables based on a change in engine state from active to inactive and vice versa. The related engineState table looks like this: +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ | vehicle | engine | engine_state | state_start_time | state_end_time | engine_variable | +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ | 080025 | E01 | active | 2008-01-24 16:19:15 | 2008-01-24 16:24:45 | 720 | | 080028 | E02 | inactive | 2008-01-24 16:19:25 | 2008-01-24 16:22:17 | 304 | +---------+-----------+---------------+---------------------+---------------------+-----------------+ For a specific analysis, we would like to analyze table content based on a row granularity of minutes, rather than the current basis of active / inactive engine state. For this, we are thinking of creating a simple productionMinute table with a row for each minute in the period we are analyzing and joining the productionMinute and engineEvent tables on the date-time columns in each table. So if our period of analysis is from 2009-12-01 to 2010-02-28, we would create a new table with 129,600 rows, one for each minute of each day for that three-month period. The first few rows of the productionMinute table: +---------------------+ | production_minute | +---------------------+ | 2009-12-01 00:00 | | 2009-12-01 00:01 | | 2009-12-01 00:02 | | 2009-12-01 00:03 | +---------------------+ The join between the tables would be engineState AS es LEFT JOIN productionMinute AS pm ON es.state_start_time <= pm.production_minute AND pm.production_minute <= es.event_end_time. This join, however, brings up multiple environmental issues: The engineState table has 5 million rows and the productionMinute table has 130,000 rows When an engineState row spans more than one minute (i.e. the difference between es.state_start_time and es.state_end_time is greater than one minute), as is the case in the example above, there are multiple productionMinute table rows that join to a single engineState table row When there is more than one engine in operation during any given minute, also as per the example above, multiple engineState table rows join to a single productionMinute row In testing our logic and using only a small table extract (one day rather than 3 months, for the productionMinute table) the query takes over an hour to generate. In researching this item in order to improve performance so that it would be feasible to query three months of data, our thoughts were to create a temporary table from the engineEvent one, eliminating any table data that is not critical for the analysis, and joining the temporary table to the productionMinute table. We are also planning on experimenting with different joins -- specifically an inner join -- to see if that would improve performance. What is the best query design for joining tables with the many:many relationship between the join predicates as outlined above? What is the best join type (left / right, inner)?

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  • Can LINQ-to-SQL omit unspecified columns on insert so a database default value is used?

    - by Todd Ropog
    I have a non-nullable database column which has a default value set. When inserting a row, sometimes a value is specified for the column, sometimes one is not. This works fine in TSQL when the column is omitted. For example, given the following table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Table1]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [col1] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [col2] [nvarchar](50) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Table1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([id] ASC) ) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Table1] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_Table1_col1] DEFAULT ('DB default') FOR [col1] The following two statements will work: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES ('test value', '') INSERT INTO Table1 (col2) VALUES ('') In the second statement, the default value is used for col1. The problem I have is when using LINQ-to-SQL (L2S) with a table like this. I want to produce the same behavior, but I can't figure out how to make L2S do that. I want to be able to run the following code and have the first row get the value I specify and the second row get the default value from the database: var context = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var row1 = new Table1 { col1 = "test value", col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row1); context.SubmitChanges(); var row2 = new Table1 { col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row2); context.SubmitChanges(); If the Auto Generated Value property of col1 is False, the first row is created as desired, but the second row fails with a null error on col1. If Auto Generated Value is True, both rows are created with the default value from the database. I've tried various combinations of Auto Generated Value, Auto-Sync and Nullable, but nothing I've tried gives the behavior I want. L2S does not omit the column from the insert statement when no value is specified. Instead it does something like this: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES (null, '') ...which of course causes a null error on col1. Is there some way to get L2S to omit a column from the insert statement if no value is given? Or is there some other way to get the behavior I want? I need the default value at the database level because not all row inserts are done via L2S, and in some cases the default value is a little more complex than a hard coded value (e.g. creating the default based on another field) so I'd rather avoid duplicating that logic.

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  • Java: why is declaration not sufficient in interface?

    - by HH
    Big class contains Format-interfcase and Format-class. The Format-class contains the methods and the interface has the values of the fields. I could have the fields in the class Format but the goal is with Interface. So do I just create dummy-vars to get the errors away, design issue or something ELSE? KEY: Declaration VS Initialisation Explain by the terms, why you have to init in interface. What is the logic behind it? To which kind of problems it leads the use of interface? Sample Code having the init-interface-problem import java.util.*; import java.io.*; public class FormatBig { private static class Format implements Format { private static long getSize(File f){return f.length();} private static long getTime(File f){return f.lastModified();} private static boolean isFile(File f){if(f.isFile()){return true;}} private static boolean isBinary(File f){return Match.isBinary(f);} private static char getType(File f){return Match.getTypes(f);} private static String getPath(File f){return getNoErrPath(f);} //Java API: isHidden, --- SYSTEM DEPENDED: toURI, toURL Format(File f) { // PUZZLE 0: would Stack<Object> be easier? size=getSize(f); time=getTime(f); isfile=isFile(f); isBinary=isBinary(f); type=getType(f); path=getPath(f); //PUZZLE 1: how can simplify the assignment? values.push(size); values.push(time); values.push(isfile); values.push(isBinary); values.push(type); values.push(path); } } public static String getNoErrPath(File f) { try{return f.getCanonicalPath(); }catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();} } public static final interface Format { //ERR: IT REQUIRES "=" public long size; public long time; public boolean isFile=true; //ERROR goes away if I initialise wit DUMMY public boolean isBinary; public char type; public String path; Stack<Object> values=new Stack<Object>(); } public static void main(String[] args) { Format fm=new Format(new File(".")); for(Object o:values){System.out.println(o);} } }

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  • Calculating multiple column average in SQLite3

    - by Benjamin Oakes
    I need to average some values in a row-wise fashion, rather than a column-wise fashion. (If I were doing a column-wise average, I could just use avg()). My specific application of this requires me ignore NULLs in averaging. It's pretty straightforward logic, but seems awfully difficult to do in SQL. Is there an elegant way of doing my calculation? I'm using SQLite3, for what it's worth. Details If you need more details, here's an illustration: I have a a table with a survey: | q1 | q2 | q3 | ... | q144 | |----|-------|-------|-----|------| | 1 | 3 | 7 | ... | 2 | | 4 | 2 | NULL | ... | 1 | | 5 | NULL | 2 | ... | 3 | (Those are just some example values and simple column names. The valid values are 1 through 7 and NULL.) I need to calculate some averages like so: q7 + q33 + q38 + q40 + ... + q119 / 11 as domain_score_1 q10 + q11 + q34 + q35 + ... + q140 / 13 as domain_score_2 ... q2 + q5 + q13 + q25 + ... + q122 / 12 as domain_score_14 ...but i need to pull out the nulls and average based on the non-nulls. So, for domain_score_1 (which has 11 items), I would need to do: Input: 3, 5, NULL, 7, 2, NULL, 3, 1, 5, NULL, 1 (3 + 5 + 7 + 2 + 3 + 1 + 5 + 1) / (11 - 3) 27 / 8 3.375 A simple algorithm I'm considering is: Input: 3, 5, NULL, 7, 2, NULL, 3, 1, 5, NULL, 1 Coalesce each value to 0 if NULL: 3, 5, 0, 7, 2, 0, 3, 1, 5, 0, 1 Sum: 27 Get the number of non-zeros by converting values 0 to 1 and sum: 3, 5, 0, 7, 2, 0, 3, 1, 5, 0, 1 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 1, 0, 1 8 Divide those two numbers 27 / 8 3.375 But that seems like a lot more programming than this should take. Is there an elegant way of doing this that I'm not aware of? Update: Unless I'm misunderstanding something, avg() won't work for this. Example of what I would want to do: select avg(q7, q33, q38, ..., q119) from survey; Output: SQL error near line 3: wrong number of arguments to function avg()

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  • How to represent different entities that have identical behavior?

    - by Dominik
    I have several different entities in my domain model (animal species, let's say), which have a few properties each. The entities are readonly (they do not change state during the application lifetime) and they have identical behavior (the differ only by the values of properties). How to implement such entities in code? Unsuccessful attempts: Enums I tried an enum like this: enum Animals { Frog, Duck, Otter, Fish } And other pieces of code would switch on the enum. However, this leads to ugly switching code, scattering the logic around and problems with comboboxes. There's no pretty way to list all possible Animals. Serialization works great though. Subclasses I also thought about where each animal type is a subclass of a common base abstract class. The implementation of Swim() is the same for all Animals, though, so it makes little sense and serializability is a big issue now. Since we represent an animal type (species, if you will), there should be one instance of the subclass per application, which is hard and weird to maintain when we use serialization. public abstract class AnimalBase { string Name { get; set; } // user-readable double Weight { get; set; } Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); { /* swim implementation; the same for all animals but depends uses the value of Weight */ } } public class Otter: AnimalBase{ public Otter() { Name = "Otter"; Weight = 10; Habitat = "North America"; } } // ... and so on Just plain awful. Static fields This blog post gave me and idea for a solution where each option is a statically defined field inside the type, like this: public class Animal { public static readonly Animal Otter = new Animal { Name="Otter", Weight = 10, Habitat = "North America"} // the rest of the animals... public string Name { get; set; } // user-readable public double Weight { get; set; } public Habitat Habitat { get; set; } public void Swim(); } That would be great: you can use it like enums (AnimalType = Animal.Otter), you can easily add a static list of all defined animals, you have a sensible place where to implement Swim(). Immutability can be achieved by making property setters protected. There is a major problem, though: it breaks serializability. A serialized Animal would have to save all its properties and upon deserialization it would create a new instance of Animal, which is something I'd like to avoid. Is there an easy way to make the third attempt work? Any more suggestions for implementing such a model?

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  • How do you handle EF Data Contexts combined with asp.net custom membership/role providers

    - by KallDrexx
    I can't seem to get my head around how to implement a custom membership provider with Entity Framework data contexts into my asp.net MVC application. I understand how to create a custom membership/role provider by itself (using this as a reference). Here's my current setup: As of now I have a repository factory interface that allows different repository factories to be created (right now I only have a factory for EF repositories and and in memory repositories). The repository factory looks like this: public class EFRepositoryFactory : IRepositoryFactory { private EntitiesContainer _entitiesContext; /// <summary> /// Constructor that generates the necessary object contexts /// </summary> public EFRepositoryFactory() { _entitiesContext = new EntitiesContainer(); } /// <summary> /// Generates a new entity framework repository for the specified entity type /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="T">Type of entity to generate a repository for </typeparam> /// <returns>Returns an EFRepository</returns> public IRepository<T> GenerateRepository<T>() where T : class { return new EFRepository<T>(_entitiesContext); } } Controllers are passed an EF repository factory via castle Windsor. The controller then creates all the service/business layer objects it requires and passes in the repository factory into it. This means that all service objects are using the same EF data contexts and I do not have to worry about objects being used in more than one data context (which of course is not allowed and causes an exception). As of right now I am trying to decide how to generate my user and authorization service layers, and have run against a design roadblock. The User/Authization service will be a central class that handles the logic for logging in, changing user details, managing roles and determining what users have access to what. The problem is, using the current methodology the asp.net mvc controllers will initialize it's own EF repository factory via Windsor and the asp.net membership/role provider will have to initialize it's own EF repository factory. This means that each part of the site will then have it's own data context. This seems to mean that if asp.net authenticates a user, that user's object will be in the membership provider's data context and thus if I try to retrieve that user object in the service layer (say to change the user's name) I will get a duplication exception. I thought of making the repository factory class a singleton, but I don't see a way for that to work with castle Windsor. How do other people handle asp.net custom providers in a MVC (or any n-tier) architecture without having object duplication issues?

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  • How to create a compiler in vb.net

    - by Cyclone
    Before answering this question, understand that I am not asking how to create my own programming language, I am asking how, using vb.net code, I can create a compiler for a language like vb.net itself. Essentially, the user inputs code, they get a .exe. By NO MEANS do I want to write my own language, as it seems other compiler related questions on here have asked. I also do not want to use the vb.net compiler itself, nor do I wish to duplicate the IDE. The exact purpose of what I wish to do is rather hard to explain, but all I need is a nudge in the right direction for writing a compiler (from scratch if possible) which can simply take input and create a .exe. I have opened .exe files as plain text before (my own programs) to see if I could derive some meaning from what I assumed would be human readable text, yet I was obviously sorely disappointed to see the random ascii, though it is understandable why this is all I found. I know that a .exe file is simply lines of code, being parsed by the computer it is on, but my question here really boils down to this: What code makes up a .exe? How could I go about making one in a plain text editor if I wanted to? (No, I do not want to do that, but if I understand the process my goals will be much easier to achieve.) What makes an executable file an executable file? Where does the logic of the code fit in? This is intended to be a programming question as opposed to a computer question, which is why I did not post it on SuperUser. I know plenty of information about the System.IO namespace, so I know how to create a file and write to it, I simply do not know what exactly I would be placing inside this file to get it to work as an executable file. I am sorry if this question is "confusing", "dumb", or "obvious", but I have not been able to find any information regarding the actual contents of an executable file anywhere. One of my google searches Something that looked promising EDIT: The second link here, while it looked good, was an utter fail. I am not going to waste hours of my time hitting keys and recording the results. "Use the "Alt" and the 3-digit combinations to create symbols that do not appear on the keyboard but that you need in the program." (step 4) How the heck do I know what symbols I need??? Thank you very much for your help, and my apologies if this question is a nooby or "bad" one. To sum this up simply: I want to create a program in vb.net that can compile code in a particular language to a single executable file. What methods exist that can allow me to do this, and if there are none, how can I go about writing my own from scratch?

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  • C# XMLSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    Help... I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp") The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong... Thanks in advance // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; } }

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