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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • How to extract the word and line wrapping information from JTextArea for text with given font

    - by Gábor Lipták
    I have to convert styled text to wrapped simple text (for SVG word wrapping). I cannot beleive that the word wrapping information (how many lines are there, where are the line breaks) cannot be extracted from the JTextArea. So I created a small frame program: package bla; import java.awt.BorderLayout; import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Font; import java.awt.Frame; import java.awt.event.WindowAdapter; import java.awt.event.WindowEvent; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.swing.JTextArea; public class Example1 extends WindowAdapter { private static String content = "01234567890123456789\n" + "0123456 0123456 01234567 01234567"; JTextArea text; public Example1() { Frame f = new Frame("TextArea Example"); f.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Font font = new Font("Serif", Font.ITALIC, 20); text = new JTextArea(); text.setFont(font); text.setForeground(Color.blue); text.setLineWrap(true); text.setWrapStyleWord(true); f.add(text, BorderLayout.CENTER); text.setText(content); // Listen for the user to click the frame's close box f.addWindowListener(this); f.setSize(100, 511); f.show(); } public static List<String> getLines( JTextArea text ) { //WHAT SHOULD I WRITE HERE return new ArrayList<String>(); } public void windowClosing(WindowEvent evt) { List<String> lines = getLines(text); System.out.println( "Number of lines:" + lines.size()); for (String line : lines) { System.out.println( line ); } System.exit(0); } public static void main(String[] args) { Example1 instance = new Example1(); } } If you run it you will see this: And what I expect as output: Number of lines:6 0123456789 0123456789 0123456 0123456 01234567 01234567 What should I write in place of the comment?

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

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  • Why does extend() engage in bizarre behaviour when passed the same list twice?

    - by intuited
    I'm pretty confused by one of the subtleties of the vimscript extend() function. If you use it to extend a list with another list, it does pretty much what you'd expect, which is to insert the second list into the first list at the index given by the third parameter: let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,[1,2,3,4,5,6],5) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6] However if you give it the same list twice it starts tripping out a bit. let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,0) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,1) " [1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,2) " [1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,3) " [1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,4) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,5) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,6) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] Extra-confusingly, this behaviour applies when the list is referenced with two different variables: let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | let list2 = list1 | echo extend(list1,list2,4) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6] This is totally bizarre to me. I can't fathom a use for this functionality, and it seems like it would be really easy to invoke it by accident when you just wanted to insert one list into another and didn't realize that the variables were referencing the same array. The documentation says the following: If they are |Lists|: Append {expr2} to {expr1}. If {expr3} is given insert the items of {expr2} before item {expr3} in {expr1}. When {expr3} is zero insert before the first item. When {expr3} is equal to len({expr1}) then {expr2} is appended. Examples: :echo sort(extend(mylist, [7, 5])) :call extend(mylist, [2, 3], 1) When {expr1} is the same List as {expr2} then the number of items copied is equal to the original length of the List. E.g., when {expr3} is 1 you get N new copies of the first item (where N is the original length of the List). Does this make sense in a way that I'm not getting, or is it just an eccentricity?

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  • ArithmeticException thrown during BigDecimal.divide

    - by polygenelubricants
    I thought java.math.BigDecimal is supposed to be The Answer™ to the need of performing infinite precision arithmetic with decimal numbers. Consider the following snippet: import java.math.BigDecimal; //... final BigDecimal one = BigDecimal.ONE; final BigDecimal three = BigDecimal.valueOf(3); final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three); assert third.multiply(three).equals(one); // this should pass, right? I expect the assert to pass, but in fact the execution doesn't even get there: one.divide(three) causes ArithmeticException to be thrown! Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArithmeticException: Non-terminating decimal expansion; no exact representable decimal result. at java.math.BigDecimal.divide It turns out that this behavior is explicitly documented in the API: In the case of divide, the exact quotient could have an infinitely long decimal expansion; for example, 1 divided by 3. If the quotient has a non-terminating decimal expansion and the operation is specified to return an exact result, an ArithmeticException is thrown. Otherwise, the exact result of the division is returned, as done for other operations. Browsing around the API further, one finds that in fact there are various overloads of divide that performs inexact division, i.e.: final BigDecimal third = one.divide(three, 33, RoundingMode.DOWN); System.out.println(three.multiply(third)); // prints "0.999999999999999999999999999999999" Of course, the obvious question now is "What's the point???". I thought BigDecimal is the solution when we need exact arithmetic, e.g. for financial calculations. If we can't even divide exactly, then how useful can this be? Does it actually serve a general purpose, or is it only useful in a very niche application where you fortunately just don't need to divide at all? If this is not the right answer, what CAN we use for exact division in financial calculation? (I mean, I don't have a finance major, but they still use division, right???).

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  • Multiprogramming in Django, writing to the Database

    - by Marcus Whybrow
    Introduction I have the following code which checks to see if a similar model exists in the database, and if it does not it creates the new model: class BookProfile(): # ... def save(self, *args, **kwargs): uniqueConstraint = {'book_instance': self.book_instance, 'collection': self.collection} # Test for other objects with identical values profiles = BookProfile.objects.filter(Q(**uniqueConstraint) & ~Q(pk=self.pk)) # If none are found create the object, else fail. if len(profiles) == 0: super(BookProfile, self).save(*args, **kwargs) else: raise ValidationError('A Book Profile for that book instance in that collection already exists') I first build my constraints, then search for a model with those values which I am enforcing must be unique Q(**uniqueConstraint). In addition I ensure that if the save method is updating and not inserting, that we do not find this object when looking for other similar objects ~Q(pk=self.pk). I should mention that I ham implementing soft delete (with a modified objects manager which only shows non-deleted objects) which is why I must check for myself rather then relying on unique_together errors. Problem Right thats the introduction out of the way. My problem is that when multiple identical objects are saved in quick (or as near as simultaneous) succession, sometimes both get added even though the first being added should prevent the second. I have tested the code in the shell and it succeeds every time I run it. Thus my assumption is if say we have two objects being added Object A and Object B. Object A runs its check upon save() being called. Then the process saving Object B gets some time on the processor. Object B runs that same test, but Object A has not yet been added so Object B is added to the database. Then Object A regains control of the processor, and has allready run its test, even though identical Object B is in the database, it adds it regardless. My Thoughts The reason I fear multiprogramming could be involved is that each Object A and Object is being added through an API save view, so a request to the view is made for each save, thus not a single request with multiple sequential saves on objects. It might be the case that Apache is creating a process for each request, and thus causing the problems I think I am seeing. As you would expect, the problem only occurs sometimes, which is characteristic of multiprogramming or multiprocessing errors. If this is the case, is there a way to make the test and set parts of the save() method a critical section, so that a process switch cannot happen between the test and the set?

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  • Bogus WPF / XAML errors in Visual Studio 2010

    - by epalm
    There are bogus errors hanging around, but at runtime everything works. Right now, I'm getting Cannot locate resource 'img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png'. I've got a simple UserControl called ImageButton (doesn't everyone?): <UserControl x:Class="WinDispatchClientWpf.src.controls.ImageButton" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d"> <Button Name="btnButton" Click="btnButton_Click"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Name="btnImage" Stretch="None" /> <TextBlock Name="btnText" /> </StackPanel> </Button> </UserControl> Which does what you'd expect: [ContentProperty("Text")] public partial class ImageButton : UserControl { public String Image { set { btnImage.Source = GuiUtil.CreateBitmapImage(value); } } public String Text { set { btnText.Text = value; } } public double Gap { set { btnImage.Margin = new Thickness(0, 0, value, 0); } } public bool ToolBarStyle { set { if (value) { btnButton.Style = (Style)FindResource(ToolBar.ButtonStyleKey); } } } public bool IsCancel { set { btnButton.IsCancel = value; } } public bool IsDefault { set { btnButton.IsDefault = value; } } public event RoutedEventHandler Click; public ImageButton() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (Click != null) { Click(sender, e); } } } Where CreateBitmapImage is the following: public static BitmapImage CreateBitmapImage(string imagePath) { BitmapImage icon = new BitmapImage(); icon.BeginInit(); icon.UriSource = new Uri(String.Format("pack://application:,,,/{0}", imagePath)); icon.EndInit(); return icon; } I can't see the design view of any xaml file that uses an ImageButton like such: <Window foo="bar" xmlns:wpfControl="clr-namespace:MyProj.src.controls"> <Grid> <wpfControl:ImageButton ToolBarStyle="True" Gap="3" Click="btnRefresh_Click" Text="Refresh" Image="img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png" /> </Grid> </Window> Why is VS complaining?

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  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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  • Why does my ko computed observable not update bound UI elements when its value changes?

    - by Allen
    I'm trying to wrap a cookie in a computed observable (which I'll later turn into a protectedObservable) and I'm having some problems with the computed observable. I was under the opinion that changes to the computed observable would be broadcast to any UI elements that have been bound to it. I've created the following fiddle JavaScript: var viewModel = {}; // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; }, 'read': function () { return privateZipcode; } } }(); viewModel.zipcode = ko.computed({ read: function () { return cookie.read(); }, write: function (value) { cookie.write(value); }, owner: viewModel }); ko.applyBindings(viewModel);? HTML: zipcode: <input type='text' data-bind="value: zipcode"> <br /> zipcode: <span data-bind="text: zipcode"></span>? I'm not using an observable to store privateZipcode since that's really just going to be in a cookie. I'm hoping that the ko.computed will provide the notifications and binding functionality that I need, though most of the examples I've seen with ko.computed end up using a ko.observable underneath the covers. Shouldn't the act of writing the value to my computed observable signal the UI elements that are bound to its value? Shouldn't these just update? Workaround I've got a simple workaround where I just use a ko.observable along side of my cookie store and using that will trigger the required updates to my DOM elements but this seems completely unnecessary, unless ko.computed lacks the signaling / dependency type functionality that ko.observable has. My workaround fiddle, you'll notice that the only thing that changes is that I added a seperateObservable that isn't used as a store, its only purpose is to signal to the UI that the underlying data has changed. // simulating a cookie store, this part isnt as important var cookie = function () { // simulating a value stored in cookies var privateZipcode = "12345"; // extra observable that isnt really used as a store, just to trigger updates to the UI var seperateObservable = ko.observable(privateZipcode); return { 'write' : function (val) { privateZipcode = val; seperateObservable(val); }, 'read': function () { seperateObservable(); return privateZipcode; } } }(); This makes sense and works as I'd expect because viewModel.zipcode depends on seperateObservable and updates to that should (and does) signal the UI to update. What I don't understand, is why doesn't a call to the write function on my ko.computed signal the UI to update, since that element is bound to that ko.computed? I suspected that I might have to use something in knockout to manually signal that my ko.computed has been updated, and I'm fine with that, that makes sense. I just haven't been able to find a way to accomplish that.

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  • Java getInputStreat SocketTimeoutException instead of NoRouteToHostException

    - by Jon
    I have an odd issue happening when trying to open multiple Input Streams (in separate threads) on Linux (RHEL). The behaviour works as expected on windows. I am kicking off 3 threads to open https connections to 3 different servers. All three are invalid IP addresses (in this test case), so I expect an NoRouteToHostException for each of them. The first two return these as expected, and quite quickly. (see stack trace below) However the third (and 4th when I tested it that way) do NOT give a no route exception. They wait for ages, and then give a SocketTimeoutException (see other stack trace below). This takes ages to come back, and does not accurately express the connection issue. The offending line of code is: reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); Has anyone seen something like this before? Are there multi-threading issues with sockets on REHL or some limit somewhere to how many can connect at once...or...something? Expected stack trace, as received for first two: java.net.NoRouteToHostException: No route to host at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234) Unexpected stack trace, as received on 3rd: java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234)

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  • Hadoop in a RESTful Java Web Application - Conflicting URI templates

    - by user1231583
    I have a small Java Web Application in which I am using Jersey 1.12 and the Hadoop 1.0.0 JAR file (hadoop-core-1.0.0.jar). When I deploy my application to my JBoss 5.0 server, the log file records the following error: SEVERE: Conflicting URI templates. The URI template / for root resource class org.apache.hadoop.hdfs.server.namenode.web.resources.NamenodeWebHdfsMethods and the URI template / transform to the same regular expression (/.*)? To make sure my code is not the problem, I have created a fresh web application that contains nothing but the Jersey and Hadoop JAR files along with a small stub. My web.xml is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app version="2.5" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd"> <servlet> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.jersey.spi.container.servlet.ServletContainer</servlet- class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/mytest/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <session-config> <session-timeout> 30 </session-timeout> </session-config> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> My simple RESTful stub is as follows: import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.Path; @Path("/mytest") public class MyRest { @Context private UriInfo context; public MyRest() { } } In my regular application, when I remove the Hadoop JAR files (and the code that is using Hadoop), everything works as I would expect. The deployment is successful and the remaining RESTful services work. I have also tried the Hadoop 1.0.1 JAR files and have had the same problems with the conflicting URL template in the NamenodeWebHdfsMethods class. Any suggestions or tips in solving this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Text Obfuscation using base64_encode()

    - by user271619
    I'm playing around with encrypt/decrypt coding in php. Interesting stuff! However, I'm coming across some issues involving what text gets encrypted into. Here's 2 functions that encrypt and decrypt a string. It uses an Encryption Key, which I set as something obscure. I actually got this from a php book. I modified it slightly, but not to change it's main goal. I created a small example below that anyone can test. But, I notice that some characters show up as the "encrypted" string. Characters like "=" and "+". Sometimes I pass this encrypted string via the url. Which may not quite make it to my receiving scripts. I'm guessing the browser does something to the string if certain characters are seen. I'm really only guessing. is there another function I can use to ensure the browser doesn't touch the string? or does anyone know enough php bas64_encode() to disallow certain characters from being used? I'm really not going to expect the latter as a possibility. But, I'm sure there's a work-around. enjoy the code, whomever needs it! define('ENCRYPTION_KEY', "sjjx6a"); function encrypt($string) { $result = ''; for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)+ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return base64_encode($result)."/".rand(); } function decrypt($string){ $exploded = explode("/",$string); $string = $exploded[0]; $result = ''; $string = base64_decode($string); for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)-ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return $result; } echo $encrypted = encrypt("reaplussign.jpg"); echo "<br>"; echo decrypt($encrypted);

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  • java timer on current instance

    - by hspim
    import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.Timer; import java.util.TimerTask; public class Boggle { Board board; Player player; Timer timer; boolean active; static Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); public Boggle() { board = new Board(4); timer = new Timer(); } public void newGame() { System.out.println("Please enter your name: "); String line = in.nextLine(); player = new Player(line); active = true; board.shuffle(); System.out.println(board); timer.schedule(new timesUP(), 20000); while(active) { String temp = in.nextLine(); player.addGuess(temp); } } public void endGame() { active = false; int score = Scoring.calculate(player, board); System.out.println(score); } class timesUP extends TimerTask { public void run() { endGame(); } } public static void main(String[] args) { Boggle boggle = new Boggle(); boggle.newGame(); } } I have the above class which should perform a loop for a given length of time and afterwards invoke an instance method. Essentially I need the loop in newGame() to run for a minute or so before endGame() is invoked on the current instance. However, using the Timer class I'm not sure how I would invoke the method I need on the current instance since I can't pass any parameters to the timertasks run method? Is there an easy way to do this or am I going about this the wrong way? (note: this is a console project only, no GUI) ========== code edited I've changed the code to the above following the recommendations, and it works almost as I expect however the thread still doesnt seem to end properly. I was the while loop would die and control would eventually come back to the main method. Any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

    - by Kev
    If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

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  • Correct way to make datasources/resources a deploy-time setting

    - by Draemon
    I have a web-app that requires two settings: A JDBC datasource A string token I desperately want to be able to deploy one .war to various different containers (jetty,tomcat,gf3 minimum) and configure these settings at application level within the container. My code does this: InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); Context envCtx = (javax.naming.Context) ctx.lookup("java:comp/env"); token = (String)envCtx.lookup("token"); ds = (DataSource)envCtx.lookup("jdbc/datasource") Let's assume I've used the glassfish management interface to create two jdbc resources: jdbc/test-datasource and jdbc/live-datasource which connect to different copies of the same schema, on different servers, different credentials etc. Say I want to deploy this to glassfish with and point it at the test datasource, I might have this in my sun-web.xml: ... <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/datasource</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jdbc/test-datasource</jndi-name> </resource-ref> ... but sun-web.xml goes inside my war, right? surely there must be a way to do this through the management interface Am I even trying to do the right thing? Do other containers make this any easier? I'd be particularly interested in how jetty 7 handles this since I use it for development. EDIT Tomcat has a reasonable way to do this: Create $TOMCAT_HOME/conf/Catalina/localhost/webapp.xml with: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiResourceLocking="false" privileged="true"> <!-- String resource --> <Environment name="token" value="value of token" type="java.lang.String" override="false" /> <!-- Linking to a global resource --> <ResourceLink name="jdbc/datasource1" global="jdbc/test" type="javax.sql.DataSource" /> <!-- Derby --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource2" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDataSource" url="jdbc:derby:test;create=true" /> <!-- H2 --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource3" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.h2.jdbcx.JdbcDataSource" url="jdbc:h2:~/test" username="sa" password="" /> </Context> Note that override="false" means the opposite. It means that this setting can't be overriden by web.xml. I like this approach because the file is part of the container configuration not the war, but it's not part of the global configuration; it's webapp specific. I guess I expect a bit more from glassfish since it is supposed to have a full web admin interface, but I would be happy enough with something equivalent to the above.

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  • Why do I get rows of zeros in my 2D fft?

    - by Nicholas Pringle
    I am trying to replicate the results from a paper. "Two-dimensional Fourier Transform (2D-FT) in space and time along sections of constant latitude (east-west) and longitude (north-south) were used to characterize the spectrum of the simulated flux variability south of 40degS." - Lenton et al(2006) The figures published show "the log of the variance of the 2D-FT". I have tried to create an array consisting of the seasonal cycle of similar data as well as the noise. I have defined the noise as the original array minus the signal array. Here is the code that I used to plot the 2D-FT of the signal array averaged in latitude: import numpy as np from numpy import ma from matplotlib import pyplot as plt from Scientific.IO.NetCDF import NetCDFFile ### input directory indir = '/home/nicholas/data/' ### get the flux data which is in ### [time(5day ave for 10 years),latitude,longitude] nc = NetCDFFile(indir + 'CFLX_2000_2009.nc','r') cflux_southern_ocean = nc.variables['Cflx'][:,10:50,:] cflux_southern_ocean = ma.masked_values(cflux_southern_ocean,1e+20) # mask land nc.close() cflux = cflux_southern_ocean*1e08 # change units of data from mmol/m^2/s ### create an array that consists of the seasonal signal fro each pixel year_stack = np.split(cflux, 10, axis=0) year_stack = np.array(year_stack) signal_array = np.tile(np.mean(year_stack, axis=0), (10, 1, 1)) signal_array = ma.masked_where(signal_array > 1e20, signal_array) # need to mask ### average the array over latitude(or longitude) signal_time_lon = ma.mean(signal_array, axis=1) ### do a 2D Fourier Transform of the time/space image ft = np.fft.fft2(signal_time_lon) mgft = np.abs(ft) ps = mgft**2 log_ps = np.log(mgft) log_mgft= np.log(mgft) Every second row of the ft consists completely of zeros. Why is this? Would it be acceptable to add a randomly small number to the signal to avoid this. signal_time_lon = signal_time_lon + np.random.randint(0,9,size=(730, 182))*1e-05 EDIT: Adding images and clarify meaning The output of rfft2 still appears to be a complex array. Using fftshift shifts the edges of the image to the centre; I still have a power spectrum regardless. I expect that the reason that I get rows of zeros is that I have re-created the timeseries for each pixel. The ft[0, 0] pixel contains the mean of the signal. So the ft[1, 0] corresponds to a sinusoid with one cycle over the entire signal in the rows of the starting image. Here are is the starting image using following code: plt.pcolormesh(signal_time_lon); plt.colorbar(); plt.axis('tight') Here is result using following code: ft = np.fft.rfft2(signal_time_lon) mgft = np.abs(ft) ps = mgft**2 log_ps = np.log1p(mgft) plt.pcolormesh(log_ps); plt.colorbar(); plt.axis('tight') It may not be clear in the image but it is only every second row that contains completely zeros. Every tenth pixel (log_ps[10, 0]) is a high value. The other pixels (log_ps[2, 0], log_ps[4, 0] etc) have very low values.

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  • HTTP caching confusion

    - by Keith
    I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

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  • What does these FindBug messages show?

    - by Hans Klock
    Not every description from from http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html is clear to me. Sure, I can study the implementation but if somebody is more experienced then me, some explanation and examples would be great. Do you have some examples for UI_INHERITANCE_UNSAFE_GETRESOURCE when this is getting a problem? In BX_UNBOXED_AND_COERCED_FOR_TERNARY_OPERATOR I don't see the problem either. If one type is "bigger" then the other, for example int and float, then the result is float. If its Integer and Float its the wrapper Float too. That's what I expect. Does the GC_UNRELATED_TYPES really help to find errors? Isn't it the job of the compiler to check, if--taking the given example--Foo can't go into a Collection<String>. Does HE_SIGNATURE_DECLARES_HASHING_OF_UNHASHABLE_CLASS mean something like bla(Foo f){hashtable.put(f);}, where ´Foo´ is not hashable? Does FingBugs "see" the subclasses too? NP_GUARANTEED_DEREF_ON_EXCEPTION_PATH is stronger "wrong" then NP_ALWAYS_NULL_EXCEPTION? Why two error cases and with NP_NULL_ON_SOME_PATH_EXCEPTION even one more? Sounds very similar to me. What is an example of SIO_SUPERFLUOUS_INSTANCEOF? Something like foo(String s){if (s intenceof String) .... This does a null check too, but this is not the test here... NN_NAKED_NOTIFY. I my opinion the description is not clear. A change of the state is not necessary. If I use new Object() to wait and notify on I don't change the object state. Or is state the lock-state? I don't get it. SP_SPIN_ON_FIELD. Can this really happen that a compiler will move this outside from a loop? This doesn't make sense to me because from outside a Thread can always change the values. And if the variable is volatile the JVM can't cache the value. So what's the meaning? That is the difference between STCAL_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE and STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_CALENDAR_INSTANCE or STCAL_INVOKE_ON_STATIC_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE/STCAL_STATIC_SIMPLE_DATE_FORMAT_INSTANCE? Why is XXXX.class in WL_USING_GETCLASS_RATHER_THAN_CLASS_LITERAL better then getClass()? A getClass() in a superclass called from the subclass will always return the Class object from the subclass which is good I think. What exactly does EQ_UNUSUAL do? It should check that the argument is of the same type of the class itself but it does't? Did you ever had problems with breaks? Is there real value with SF_SWITCH_FALLTHROUGH? Sounds to strong for me. No idea what TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_ALWAYS_SINK and TQ_EXPLICIT_UNKNOWN_SOURCE_VALUE_REACHES_NEVER_SINK could be.

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • Calling data from different model in Rails

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I need to be able to call data from a different model - not just one field, but any of them. At the moment I have the following models: kase person company party I can call information from the company to the kase and from the person to the kase using this: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> Those two work, however if I add the following: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> Any idea whats wrong? Thanks, Danny EDIT: I get the following error message: NoMethodError in Kases#show Showing app/views/kases/show.html.erb where line #37 raised: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.personname The lines that are noted are as follows: 34: <div id="clientinfo_showhide" style="display:none"> 35: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> 36: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> 37: <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> 38: <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> 39: <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> 40: </div> The model for the kase is as follows: class Kase belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table The model for the person is as follows: class Person has_many :kases # foreign key in join table belongs_to :company The model for the company is as follows: class Company has_many :kases has_many :people def to_s; companyname; end Hope this helps!

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  • Parameters not being passed into template when using the .Net transform classes

    - by Chris F
    I am using the .Net XslCompiledTranform to run some simple XSLT (see below for a simplified example). The example XSLT is meant to do simply show the value of the parameter that is passed in to the template. The output is what I expect it to be (i.e. <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA>valueA</valueOfParamA> </result> when I use Saxon 9.0, but when I use XslCompiledTransform (XslTransform) in .net I get <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA></valueOfParamA> </result> The problem is that that the parameter value of paramA is not being passed into the template when I use the .Net classes. I completely stumped as to why. when I step through in Visual Studio, the debugger says that the template will be called with paramA='valueA' but when execution switches to the template the value of paramA is blank. Can anyone explain why this is happening? Is this a bug in the MS implementation or (more likely) am I doing something that is forbidden in XSLT? Any help greatly appreciated. This is the XSLT that I am using <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" exclude-result-prefixes="extfn" xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <!-- Replace msxml with xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" xmlns:extfn="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" --> <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="resultTreeFragment"> <p1:foo> </p1:foo> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="nodeset" select="extfn:node-set($resultTreeFragment)"/> <result> <xsl:apply-templates select="$nodeset" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:with-param name="paramA" select="'valueA'"/> </xsl:apply-templates> </result> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@* | node()" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:param name="paramA"/> <valueOfParamA> <xsl:value-of select="$paramA"/> </valueOfParamA> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • Question about DBD::CSB Statement-Functions

    - by sid_com
    From the SQL::Statement::Functions documentation: Function syntax When using SQL::Statement/SQL::Parser directly to parse SQL, functions (either built-in or user-defined) may occur anywhere in a SQL statement that values, column names, table names, or predicates may occur. When using the modules through a DBD or in any other context in which the SQL is both parsed and executed, functions can occur in the same places except that they can not occur in the column selection clause of a SELECT statement that contains a FROM clause. # valid for both parsing and executing SELECT MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM MyFunc(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE MyFuncs(args); SELECT * FROM x WHERE y < MyFuncs(args); # valid only for parsing (won't work from a DBD) SELECT MyFunc(args) FROM x WHERE y; Reading this I would expect that the first SELECT-statement of my example shouldn't work and the second should but it is quite the contrary. #!/usr/bin/env perl use warnings; use strict; use 5.010; use DBI; open my $fh, '>', 'test.csv' or die $!; say $fh "id,name"; say $fh "1,Brown"; say $fh "2,Smith"; say $fh "7,Smith"; say $fh "8,Green"; close $fh; my $dbh = DBI->connect ( 'dbi:CSV:', undef, undef, { RaiseError => 1, f_ext => '.csv', }); my $table = 'test'; say "\nSELECT 1"; my $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT MAX( id ) FROM $table WHERE name LIKE 'Smith'" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); say "\nSELECT 2"; $sth = $dbh->prepare ( "SELECT * FROM $table WHERE id = MAX( id )" ); $sth->execute (); $sth->dump_results(); outputs: SELECT 1 '7' 1 rows SELECT 2 Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2893. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. DBD::CSV::db prepare failed: Unknown function 'MAX' at /usr/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.10.0/SQL/Parser.pm line 2894. [for Statement "SELECT * FROM test WHERE id = MAX( id )"] at ./so_3.pl line 30. Could someone explaine me this behavior?

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  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

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