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  • wget not behaving via IPC::Open3 vs bash

    - by Ryley
    I'm trying to stream a file from a remote website to a local command and am running into some problems when trying to detect errors. The code looks something like this: use IPC::Open3; my @cmd = ('wget','-O','-','http://10.10.1.72/index.php');#any website will do here my ($wget_pid,$wget_in,$wget_out,$wget_err); if (!($wget_pid = open3($wget_in,$wget_out,$wget_err,@cmd))){ print STDERR "failed to run open3\n"; exit(1) } close($wget_in); my @wget_outs = <$wget_out>; my @wget_errs = <$wget_err>; print STDERR "wget stderr: ".join('',@wget_errs); #page and errors outputted on the next line, seems wrong print STDERR "wget stdout: ".join('',@wget_outs); #clean up after this, not shown is running the filtering command, closing and waitpid'ing When I run that wget command directly from the command-line and redirect stderr to a file, something sane happens - the stdout will be the downloaded page, the stderr will contain the info about opening the given page. wget -O - http://10.10.1.72/index.php 2> stderr_test_file When I run wget via open3, I'm getting both the page and the info mixed together in stdout. What I expect is the loaded page in one stream and STDERR from wget in another. I can see I've simplified the code to the point where it's not clear why I want to use open3, but the general plan is that I wanted to stream stdout to another filtering program as I received it, and then at the end I was going to read the stderr from both wget and the filtering program to determine what, if anything went wrong. Other important things: I was trying to avoid writing the wget'd data to a file, then filtering that file to another file, then reading the output. It's key that I be able to see what went wrong, not just reading $? 8 (i.e. I have to tell the user, hey, that IP address is wrong, or isn't the right kind of website, or whatever). Finally, I'm choosing system/open3/exec over other perl-isms (i.e. backticks) because some of the input is provided by untrustworthy users.

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  • Bogus WPF / XAML errors in Visual Studio 2010

    - by epalm
    There are bogus errors hanging around, but at runtime everything works. Right now, I'm getting Cannot locate resource 'img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png'. I've got a simple UserControl called ImageButton (doesn't everyone?): <UserControl x:Class="WinDispatchClientWpf.src.controls.ImageButton" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d"> <Button Name="btnButton" Click="btnButton_Click"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <Image Name="btnImage" Stretch="None" /> <TextBlock Name="btnText" /> </StackPanel> </Button> </UserControl> Which does what you'd expect: [ContentProperty("Text")] public partial class ImageButton : UserControl { public String Image { set { btnImage.Source = GuiUtil.CreateBitmapImage(value); } } public String Text { set { btnText.Text = value; } } public double Gap { set { btnImage.Margin = new Thickness(0, 0, value, 0); } } public bool ToolBarStyle { set { if (value) { btnButton.Style = (Style)FindResource(ToolBar.ButtonStyleKey); } } } public bool IsCancel { set { btnButton.IsCancel = value; } } public bool IsDefault { set { btnButton.IsDefault = value; } } public event RoutedEventHandler Click; public ImageButton() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btnButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (Click != null) { Click(sender, e); } } } Where CreateBitmapImage is the following: public static BitmapImage CreateBitmapImage(string imagePath) { BitmapImage icon = new BitmapImage(); icon.BeginInit(); icon.UriSource = new Uri(String.Format("pack://application:,,,/{0}", imagePath)); icon.EndInit(); return icon; } I can't see the design view of any xaml file that uses an ImageButton like such: <Window foo="bar" xmlns:wpfControl="clr-namespace:MyProj.src.controls"> <Grid> <wpfControl:ImageButton ToolBarStyle="True" Gap="3" Click="btnRefresh_Click" Text="Refresh" Image="img/icons/silk/arrow_refresh.png" /> </Grid> </Window> Why is VS complaining?

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  • Why does SFINAE not apply to this?

    - by Simon Buchan
    I'm writing some simple point code while trying out Visual Studio 10 (Beta 2), and I've hit this code where I would expect SFINAE to kick in, but it seems not to: template<typename T> struct point { T x, y; point(T x, T y) : x(x), y(y) {} }; template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { typedef decltype(T() / U()) type; }; template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, point<U> const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r.x, l.y / r.y); } template<typename T, typename U> point<typename op_div<T, U>::type> operator/(point<T> const& l, U const& r) { return point<typename op_div<T, U>::type>(l.x / r, l.y / r); } int main() { point<int>(0, 1) / point<float>(2, 3); } This gives error C2512: 'point<T>::point' : no appropriate default constructor available Given that it is a beta, I did a quick sanity check with the online comeau compiler, and it agrees with an identical error, so it seems this behavior is correct, but I can't see why. In this case some workarounds are to simply inline the decltype(T() / U()), to give the point class a default constructor, or to use decltype on the full result expression, but I got this error while trying to simplify an error I was getting with a version of op_div that did not require a default constructor*, so I would rather fix my understanding of C++ rather than to just do what works. Thanks! *: the original: template<typename T, typename U> struct op_div { static T t(); static U u(); typedef decltype(t() / u()) type; }; Which gives error C2784: 'point<op_div<T,U>::type> operator /(const point<T> &,const U &)' : could not deduce template argument for 'const point<T> &' from 'int', and also for the point<T> / point<U> overload.

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  • jQuery selectors - parental problems

    - by aressidi
    Hi there, I have an emote selector that opens up when a user clicks an entry in a diary. The way I've worked it is that the emote selector panel lives hidden at the top of the page. When a user clicks on the 'emote control' associated with an entry, I use JavaScript to grab the HTML of the emote selector panel from the top of the page and insert it next to the entry. Using Firebug, here's what the finished product would look like in the page (snippet from element inspect). I'm trying to get the ID for the class 'emote-control-container' which contains the entry id: <td> <div id="1467002" class="emote-select emote-default">&nbsp;</div> <div class="emote-control-container" id="emote-controls-1467002"> <div id="emote-control-selector"> <div id="emote-control-selector-body"> <ul> <li id="emote-1"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-2"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-3"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-4"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> </ul> </div> <div id="emote-control-selector-footer"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </div> </td> I need the entry ID along with the emote ID to make a post via AJAX when a user selects an emote from the selector panel by clicking on it. I'm able to get the emote ID just fine with this, which I'm using to alert-out the selected emote ID: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var emoteId = this.id; alert(emoteId); }); I'm having trouble traversing up DOM to get the element ID from '.emote-control-container. I've tried everything, but I'd expect this to work, but it doesn't: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var entryId = jQuery(this.id).parent(".emote-control-container").attr("id"); alert(entryId); }); What am I doing wrong.? I can't target the ID of the .emote-control-container.

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  • a question about rails general practice with REST, json, and ajax

    - by Nik
    Hi all, I have this question concerning REST I think: I have read a few rest tutorials and the feeling I get from them is that each action in a restful controller tends to be lean and almost single purpose: "Index gives off a collection of a model show gives off one model edit/new a prep place for changing/create a model update/create changes and makes new model deletes removes one model" After reading all these tutorials, rest seems to be to be a means to create an interface for a model, much like active resource type of thing. the mantra seems to be "controller provides data and data only and is also pretty convention over configuration, so expect projects_path to return a bunch of projects" I can understand that, and I like the cleanliness. But here's when I run into some trouble in reality in applying these guidelines: say three models, Project with attrib title, User with attrib name, and Location with attrib address. Say in views/users/index.html.erb, I want to use Ajax to fetch and display a project in a div#project_display when the user clicks on a project element, I know that I can use views/projects/show.js.rjs like this: page.replace_html 'project_display' "#{@project.name}" where in the projects_controller.rb def show @project = Project.find(params[:id]) repsond_to do |format| format.js and other formats... end end I have no problem in doing that for a couple of years now. BUT doesn't that mean that my JS response for the project#show action is LOCkED to present data to div#project_display element and show only whatever I that rjs template says it should show? That's very limiting and doesn't sound very "interface" like. I have never used JSON before or much XML, so I thought, maybe the JS response should send back raw stuff, like JSON and somehow the page on which the ajax request was called has the instruction on what do to with these raw data. That sounds a lot more flexible, doesn't it? Because look back at that exmpale, what if in the views/locations/index.html.erb, I want to do the exact same thing except I want to put the response in div#project_goes_here and the response should be #{project.name} I know this is a trivial change but that's the point: the RJS only allows one template at a time. So I think the JSON route is the way to go, but how does the already loaded page, the one that the ajax call came from, know when or how to "look forward" to incoming data? I read that PrototypeJS has this template thing, I wouldn't mind using it with JSON, but if you can demonstrate this or other means for displaying received-from-ajax data, I am all attention. Thank You

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  • Hadoop in a RESTful Java Web Application - Conflicting URI templates

    - by user1231583
    I have a small Java Web Application in which I am using Jersey 1.12 and the Hadoop 1.0.0 JAR file (hadoop-core-1.0.0.jar). When I deploy my application to my JBoss 5.0 server, the log file records the following error: SEVERE: Conflicting URI templates. The URI template / for root resource class org.apache.hadoop.hdfs.server.namenode.web.resources.NamenodeWebHdfsMethods and the URI template / transform to the same regular expression (/.*)? To make sure my code is not the problem, I have created a fresh web application that contains nothing but the Jersey and Hadoop JAR files along with a small stub. My web.xml is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <web-app version="2.5" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd"> <servlet> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.jersey.spi.container.servlet.ServletContainer</servlet- class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>ServletAdaptor</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/mytest/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <session-config> <session-timeout> 30 </session-timeout> </session-config> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> My simple RESTful stub is as follows: import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.Path; @Path("/mytest") public class MyRest { @Context private UriInfo context; public MyRest() { } } In my regular application, when I remove the Hadoop JAR files (and the code that is using Hadoop), everything works as I would expect. The deployment is successful and the remaining RESTful services work. I have also tried the Hadoop 1.0.1 JAR files and have had the same problems with the conflicting URL template in the NamenodeWebHdfsMethods class. Any suggestions or tips in solving this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

    - by Kev
    If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

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  • Text Obfuscation using base64_encode()

    - by user271619
    I'm playing around with encrypt/decrypt coding in php. Interesting stuff! However, I'm coming across some issues involving what text gets encrypted into. Here's 2 functions that encrypt and decrypt a string. It uses an Encryption Key, which I set as something obscure. I actually got this from a php book. I modified it slightly, but not to change it's main goal. I created a small example below that anyone can test. But, I notice that some characters show up as the "encrypted" string. Characters like "=" and "+". Sometimes I pass this encrypted string via the url. Which may not quite make it to my receiving scripts. I'm guessing the browser does something to the string if certain characters are seen. I'm really only guessing. is there another function I can use to ensure the browser doesn't touch the string? or does anyone know enough php bas64_encode() to disallow certain characters from being used? I'm really not going to expect the latter as a possibility. But, I'm sure there's a work-around. enjoy the code, whomever needs it! define('ENCRYPTION_KEY', "sjjx6a"); function encrypt($string) { $result = ''; for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)+ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return base64_encode($result)."/".rand(); } function decrypt($string){ $exploded = explode("/",$string); $string = $exploded[0]; $result = ''; $string = base64_decode($string); for($i=0; $i<strlen($string); $i++) { $char = substr($string, $i, 1); $keychar = substr(ENCRYPTION_KEY, ($i % strlen(ENCRYPTION_KEY))-1, 1); $char = chr(ord($char)-ord($keychar)); $result.=$char; } return $result; } echo $encrypted = encrypt("reaplussign.jpg"); echo "<br>"; echo decrypt($encrypted);

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  • Java getInputStreat SocketTimeoutException instead of NoRouteToHostException

    - by Jon
    I have an odd issue happening when trying to open multiple Input Streams (in separate threads) on Linux (RHEL). The behaviour works as expected on windows. I am kicking off 3 threads to open https connections to 3 different servers. All three are invalid IP addresses (in this test case), so I expect an NoRouteToHostException for each of them. The first two return these as expected, and quite quickly. (see stack trace below) However the third (and 4th when I tested it that way) do NOT give a no route exception. They wait for ages, and then give a SocketTimeoutException (see other stack trace below). This takes ages to come back, and does not accurately express the connection issue. The offending line of code is: reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); Has anyone seen something like this before? Are there multi-threading issues with sockets on REHL or some limit somewhere to how many can connect at once...or...something? Expected stack trace, as received for first two: java.net.NoRouteToHostException: No route to host at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234) Unexpected stack trace, as received on 3rd: java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) at java.net.Socket.connect(Socket.java:529) at com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.SSLSocketImpl.connect(SSLSocketImpl.java:559) at sun.net.NetworkClient.doConnect(NetworkClient.java:158) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:394) at sun.net.www.http.HttpClient.openServer(HttpClient.java:529) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.(HttpsClient.java:272) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsClient.New(HttpsClient.java:329) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.getNewHttpClient(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:172) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.plainConnect(HttpURLConnection.java:916) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.connect(AbstractDelegateHttpsURLConnection.java:158) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getInputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:1177) at sun.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnectionImpl.getInputStream(HttpsURLConnectionImpl.java:234)

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  • CLR 4.0 inlining policy? (maybe bug with MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)

    - by ControlFlow
    I've testing some new CLR 4.0 behavior in method inlining (cross-assembly inlining) and found some strage results: Assembly ClassLib.dll: using System.Diagnostics; using System; using System.Reflection; using System.Security; using System.Runtime.CompilerServices; namespace ClassLib { public static class A { static readonly MethodInfo GetExecuting = typeof(Assembly).GetMethod("GetExecutingAssembly"); public static Assembly Foo(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // explicit call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } public static Assembly Bar(out StackTrace stack) // 25 bytes { // reflection call to GetExecutingAssembly() stack = new StackTrace(); return (Assembly) GetExecuting.Invoke(null, null); } public static Assembly Baz(out StackTrace stack) // 9 bytes { stack = new StackTrace(); return null; } public static Assembly Bob(out StackTrace stack) // 13 bytes { // call of non-inlinable method! return SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out stack); } [SecurityCritical, MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] static Assembly SomeSecurityCriticalMethod(out StackTrace stack) { stack = new StackTrace(); return Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly(); } } } Assembly ConsoleApp.exe using System; using ClassLib; using System.Diagnostics; class Program { static void Main() { Console.WriteLine("runtime: {0}", Environment.Version); StackTrace stack; Console.WriteLine("Foo: {0}\n{1}", A.Foo(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bar: {0}\n{1}", A.Bar(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Baz: {0}\n{1}", A.Baz(out stack), stack); Console.WriteLine("Bob: {0}\n{1}", A.Bob(out stack), stack); } } Results: runtime: 4.0.30128.1 Foo: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Foo(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Bar: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at ClassLib.A.Bar(StackTrace& stack) at Program.Main() Baz: at Program.Main() Bob: ClassLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null at Program.Main() So questions are: Why JIT does not inlined Foo and Bar calls as Baz does? They are lower than 32 bytes of IL and are good candidates for inlining. Why JIT inlined call of Bob and inner call of SomeSecurityCriticalMethod that is marked with the [MethodImpl(MethodImplOptions.NoInlining)] attribute? Why GetExecutingAssembly returns a valid assembly when is called by inlined Baz and SomeSecurityCriticalMethod methods? I've expect that it performs the stack walk to detect the executing assembly, but stack will contains only Program.Main() call and no methods of ClassLib assenbly, to ConsoleApp should be returned.

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  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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  • Multiprogramming in Django, writing to the Database

    - by Marcus Whybrow
    Introduction I have the following code which checks to see if a similar model exists in the database, and if it does not it creates the new model: class BookProfile(): # ... def save(self, *args, **kwargs): uniqueConstraint = {'book_instance': self.book_instance, 'collection': self.collection} # Test for other objects with identical values profiles = BookProfile.objects.filter(Q(**uniqueConstraint) & ~Q(pk=self.pk)) # If none are found create the object, else fail. if len(profiles) == 0: super(BookProfile, self).save(*args, **kwargs) else: raise ValidationError('A Book Profile for that book instance in that collection already exists') I first build my constraints, then search for a model with those values which I am enforcing must be unique Q(**uniqueConstraint). In addition I ensure that if the save method is updating and not inserting, that we do not find this object when looking for other similar objects ~Q(pk=self.pk). I should mention that I ham implementing soft delete (with a modified objects manager which only shows non-deleted objects) which is why I must check for myself rather then relying on unique_together errors. Problem Right thats the introduction out of the way. My problem is that when multiple identical objects are saved in quick (or as near as simultaneous) succession, sometimes both get added even though the first being added should prevent the second. I have tested the code in the shell and it succeeds every time I run it. Thus my assumption is if say we have two objects being added Object A and Object B. Object A runs its check upon save() being called. Then the process saving Object B gets some time on the processor. Object B runs that same test, but Object A has not yet been added so Object B is added to the database. Then Object A regains control of the processor, and has allready run its test, even though identical Object B is in the database, it adds it regardless. My Thoughts The reason I fear multiprogramming could be involved is that each Object A and Object is being added through an API save view, so a request to the view is made for each save, thus not a single request with multiple sequential saves on objects. It might be the case that Apache is creating a process for each request, and thus causing the problems I think I am seeing. As you would expect, the problem only occurs sometimes, which is characteristic of multiprogramming or multiprocessing errors. If this is the case, is there a way to make the test and set parts of the save() method a critical section, so that a process switch cannot happen between the test and the set?

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  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

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  • bundler/capistrano is not installing gems with correct ruby version

    - by Douglas
    I'm trying to deploy my first app on a server with Capistrano, and I'm a bit lost with managing gemsets and ruby version. These are my (server and workstation) versions : Rails 3.2.8 RVM 1.16.17 Gem 1.8.24 Bundler 1.2.1 pg gem 0.14.1 My gemset are : Gemsets for ruby-1.9.3-p194 (found in /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.3-p194) (default) global = rail3dev20120606 I set the default gemset with : rvm use 1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606 --default --passenger When I run a : cap bundle:install The task end with success, but when I do a : gem list There are many missing gems though they are present in my Gemfile. When I go to check my gems in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/ I find a folder called 1.9.1 and in /var/www/opf/shared/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/gems/ I can fond all of my needed gems (specified in Gemfile). I'm sure there is a problem with ruby version, but how do I solve this ? At the moment, if I do any rake command, I got a ruby crash [Bug] Segmentation fault, as it try to access the db and using postgresql_adapter. I think as many gems are missing there must have some gem dependencies not verified, and maybe a gem is using an incompatible ruby version 1.9.1 though it expect a 1.9.3. I think the issue is around managing ruby versions and gems. I'm certainly doing some mix with gemset and my capistrano deployement. I'm missing experience and info. Could anybody advise me how to handle this on the server ? What are the best practices ? How am I suppose to update my ruby version ? with Capistrano deploy.rb ? manually ? with/without rvm ? I saw a new version of ruby 1.9.3-p327 has just released. Should I use gemset or not ? What about the :rvm_ruby_string in my deploy.rb. Is it correctly spelled or should I remove the p194 part ? Should I Remove the :rvm_ruby_string ? Keep it ? Use a .rvmrc file ??? I'm really lost and some kind help would be welcome. This is my config/deploy.rb in any case : require 'bundler/capistrano' require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'deploy') + '/capistrano_database' set :rvm_type, :system set :rvm_ruby_string, 'ruby-1.9.3-p194@rail3dev20120606' require 'rvm/capistrano' set :application, 'opf' set :deploy_to, '/var/www/opf' set :rails_env, 'production' set :user, 'the_user' set :use_sudo, false set :group_writable, false set :scm, :git set :repository, '[email protected]:user/opf.git' set :branch, 'master' default_run_options[:pty] = true set :deploy_via, :remote_cache server '192.168.5.200', :web, :app, :db, :primary => true # If you are using Passenger mod_rails uncomment this: namespace :deploy do task :start do ; end task :stop do ; end task :restart, :roles => :app, :except => { :no_release => true } do run "#{try_sudo} touch #{File.join(current_path,'tmp','restart.txt')}" end end Thanks for any help

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  • C++ adding friend to a template class in order to typecast

    - by user1835359
    I'm currently reading "Effective C++" and there is a chapter that contains code similiar to this: template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } }; template <typename T> Num<T> operator*(const Num<T>& lhs, const Num<T>& rhs) { ... } Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); The book says that this won't work (and indeed it doesn't) because you can't expect the compiler to use implicit typecasting to specialize a template. As a soluting it is suggested to use the "friend" syntax to define the function inside the class. //It works template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend Num operator*(const Num& lhs, const Num& rhs) { ... } }; Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); And the book suggests to use this friend-declaration thing whenever I need implicit conversion to a template class type. And it all seems to make sense. But why can't I get the same example working with a common function, not an operator? template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend void doFoo(const Num& lhs) { ... } }; doFoo(5); This time the compiler complaints that he can't find any 'doFoo' at all. And if i declare the doFoo outside the class, i get the reasonable mismatched types error. Seems like the "friend ..." part is just being ignored. So is there a problem with my understanding? What is the difference between a function and an operator in this case?

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • Is it possible to read infinity or NaN values using input streams?

    - by Drise
    I have some input to be read by a input filestream (for example): -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0.000000 When I use std::ifstream mystream; to read from the file to some double d1 = -1, d2 = -1, d3 = -1, d4 = -1; (assume mystream has already been opened and the file is valid), mystream >> d1 >> d2 >> d3 >> d4; mystream is in the fail state. I would expect std::cout << d1 << " " << d2 << " " << d3 << " " << d4 << std::endl; to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -1 -1. I would want it to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0 instead. This set of data was output using C++ streams. Why can't I do the reverse process (read in my output)? How can I get the functionality I seek? From MooingDuck: #include <iostream> #include <limits> using namespace std; int main() { double myd = std::numeric_limits<double>::infinity(); cout << myd << '\n'; cin >> myd; cout << cin.good() << ":" << myd << endl; return 0; } Input: inf Output: inf 0:inf See also: http://ideone.com/jVvei Also related to this problem is NaN parsing, even though I do not give examples for it.

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  • Is it possible to reliably auto-decode user files to Unicode? [C#]

    - by NVRAM
    I have a web application that allows users to upload their content for processing. The processing engine expects UTF8 (and I'm composing XML from multiple users' files), so I need to ensure that I can properly decode the uploaded files. Since I'd be surprised if any of my users knew their files even were encoded, I have very little hope they'd be able to correctly specify the encoding (decoder) to use. And so, my application is left with task of detecting before decoding. This seems like such a universal problem, I'm surprised not to find either a framework capability or general recipe for the solution. Can it be I'm not searching with meaningful search terms? I've implemented BOM-aware detection (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byte_order_mark) but I'm not sure how often files will be uploaded w/o a BOM to indicate encoding, and this isn't useful for most non-UTF files. My questions boil down to: Is BOM-aware detection sufficient for the vast majority of files? In the case where BOM-detection fails, is it possible to try different decoders and determine if they are "valid"? (My attempts indicate the answer is "no.") Under what circumstances will a "valid" file fail with the C# encoder/decoder framework? Is there a repository anywhere that has a multitude of files with various encodings to use for testing? While I'm specifically asking about C#/.NET, I'd like to know the answer for Java, Python and other languages for the next time I have to do this. So far I've found: A "valid" UTF-16 file with Ctrl-S characters has caused encoding to UTF-8 to throw an exception (Illegal character?) (That was an XML encoding exception.) Decoding a valid UTF-16 file with UTF-8 succeeds but gives text with null characters. Huh? Currently, I only expect UTF-8, UTF-16 and probably ISO-8859-1 files, but I want the solution to be extensible if possible. My existing set of input files isn't nearly broad enough to uncover all the problems that will occur with live files. Although the files I'm trying to decode are "text" I think they are often created w/methods that leave garbage characters in the files. Hence "valid" files may not be "pure". Oh joy. Thanks.

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  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

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  • Parameters not being passed into template when using the .Net transform classes

    - by Chris F
    I am using the .Net XslCompiledTranform to run some simple XSLT (see below for a simplified example). The example XSLT is meant to do simply show the value of the parameter that is passed in to the template. The output is what I expect it to be (i.e. <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA>valueA</valueOfParamA> </result> when I use Saxon 9.0, but when I use XslCompiledTransform (XslTransform) in .net I get <result xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <valueOfParamA></valueOfParamA> </result> The problem is that that the parameter value of paramA is not being passed into the template when I use the .Net classes. I completely stumped as to why. when I step through in Visual Studio, the debugger says that the template will be called with paramA='valueA' but when execution switches to the template the value of paramA is blank. Can anyone explain why this is happening? Is this a bug in the MS implementation or (more likely) am I doing something that is forbidden in XSLT? Any help greatly appreciated. This is the XSLT that I am using <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" exclude-result-prefixes="extfn" xmlns:p1="http://www.doesnotexist.com"> <!-- Replace msxml with xmlns:extfn="http://exslt.org/common" xmlns:extfn="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" --> <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="resultTreeFragment"> <p1:foo> </p1:foo> </xsl:variable> <xsl:variable name="nodeset" select="extfn:node-set($resultTreeFragment)"/> <result> <xsl:apply-templates select="$nodeset" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:with-param name="paramA" select="'valueA'"/> </xsl:apply-templates> </result> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@* | node()" mode="AParticularMode"> <xsl:param name="paramA"/> <valueOfParamA> <xsl:value-of select="$paramA"/> </valueOfParamA> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • Correct way to make datasources/resources a deploy-time setting

    - by Draemon
    I have a web-app that requires two settings: A JDBC datasource A string token I desperately want to be able to deploy one .war to various different containers (jetty,tomcat,gf3 minimum) and configure these settings at application level within the container. My code does this: InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); Context envCtx = (javax.naming.Context) ctx.lookup("java:comp/env"); token = (String)envCtx.lookup("token"); ds = (DataSource)envCtx.lookup("jdbc/datasource") Let's assume I've used the glassfish management interface to create two jdbc resources: jdbc/test-datasource and jdbc/live-datasource which connect to different copies of the same schema, on different servers, different credentials etc. Say I want to deploy this to glassfish with and point it at the test datasource, I might have this in my sun-web.xml: ... <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/datasource</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jdbc/test-datasource</jndi-name> </resource-ref> ... but sun-web.xml goes inside my war, right? surely there must be a way to do this through the management interface Am I even trying to do the right thing? Do other containers make this any easier? I'd be particularly interested in how jetty 7 handles this since I use it for development. EDIT Tomcat has a reasonable way to do this: Create $TOMCAT_HOME/conf/Catalina/localhost/webapp.xml with: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiResourceLocking="false" privileged="true"> <!-- String resource --> <Environment name="token" value="value of token" type="java.lang.String" override="false" /> <!-- Linking to a global resource --> <ResourceLink name="jdbc/datasource1" global="jdbc/test" type="javax.sql.DataSource" /> <!-- Derby --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource2" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDataSource" url="jdbc:derby:test;create=true" /> <!-- H2 --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource3" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.h2.jdbcx.JdbcDataSource" url="jdbc:h2:~/test" username="sa" password="" /> </Context> Note that override="false" means the opposite. It means that this setting can't be overriden by web.xml. I like this approach because the file is part of the container configuration not the war, but it's not part of the global configuration; it's webapp specific. I guess I expect a bit more from glassfish since it is supposed to have a full web admin interface, but I would be happy enough with something equivalent to the above.

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  • Calling data from different model in Rails

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I need to be able to call data from a different model - not just one field, but any of them. At the moment I have the following models: kase person company party I can call information from the company to the kase and from the person to the kase using this: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> Those two work, however if I add the following: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> Any idea whats wrong? Thanks, Danny EDIT: I get the following error message: NoMethodError in Kases#show Showing app/views/kases/show.html.erb where line #37 raised: You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.personname The lines that are noted are as follows: 34: <div id="clientinfo_showhide" style="display:none"> 35: <li>Client Company Address: <span class="address"><%=h @kase.company.companyaddress %></span></li> 36: <li>Client Company Fax: <span><%=h @kase.company.companyfax %></span></li> 37: <li>Case Handler: <span><%=h @kase.person.personname %></span></li> 38: <li>Case Handler Tel: <span><%=h @kase.person.personmobile %></span></li> 39: <li>Case Handler Email: <span><%=h @kase.person.personemail %></span></li> 40: </div> The model for the kase is as follows: class Kase belongs_to :company # foreign key: company_id belongs_to :person # foreign key in join table The model for the person is as follows: class Person has_many :kases # foreign key in join table belongs_to :company The model for the company is as follows: class Company has_many :kases has_many :people def to_s; companyname; end Hope this helps!

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  • Why does extend() engage in bizarre behaviour when passed the same list twice?

    - by intuited
    I'm pretty confused by one of the subtleties of the vimscript extend() function. If you use it to extend a list with another list, it does pretty much what you'd expect, which is to insert the second list into the first list at the index given by the third parameter: let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,[1,2,3,4,5,6],5) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6] However if you give it the same list twice it starts tripping out a bit. let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,0) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,1) " [1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,2) " [1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,3) " [1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,4) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,5) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 1, 6] let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | echo extend(list1,list1,6) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6] Extra-confusingly, this behaviour applies when the list is referenced with two different variables: let list1 = [1,2,3,4,5,6] | let list2 = list1 | echo extend(list1,list2,4) " [1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6] This is totally bizarre to me. I can't fathom a use for this functionality, and it seems like it would be really easy to invoke it by accident when you just wanted to insert one list into another and didn't realize that the variables were referencing the same array. The documentation says the following: If they are |Lists|: Append {expr2} to {expr1}. If {expr3} is given insert the items of {expr2} before item {expr3} in {expr1}. When {expr3} is zero insert before the first item. When {expr3} is equal to len({expr1}) then {expr2} is appended. Examples: :echo sort(extend(mylist, [7, 5])) :call extend(mylist, [2, 3], 1) When {expr1} is the same List as {expr2} then the number of items copied is equal to the original length of the List. E.g., when {expr3} is 1 you get N new copies of the first item (where N is the original length of the List). Does this make sense in a way that I'm not getting, or is it just an eccentricity?

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  • java timer on current instance

    - by hspim
    import java.util.Scanner; import java.util.Timer; import java.util.TimerTask; public class Boggle { Board board; Player player; Timer timer; boolean active; static Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); public Boggle() { board = new Board(4); timer = new Timer(); } public void newGame() { System.out.println("Please enter your name: "); String line = in.nextLine(); player = new Player(line); active = true; board.shuffle(); System.out.println(board); timer.schedule(new timesUP(), 20000); while(active) { String temp = in.nextLine(); player.addGuess(temp); } } public void endGame() { active = false; int score = Scoring.calculate(player, board); System.out.println(score); } class timesUP extends TimerTask { public void run() { endGame(); } } public static void main(String[] args) { Boggle boggle = new Boggle(); boggle.newGame(); } } I have the above class which should perform a loop for a given length of time and afterwards invoke an instance method. Essentially I need the loop in newGame() to run for a minute or so before endGame() is invoked on the current instance. However, using the Timer class I'm not sure how I would invoke the method I need on the current instance since I can't pass any parameters to the timertasks run method? Is there an easy way to do this or am I going about this the wrong way? (note: this is a console project only, no GUI) ========== code edited I've changed the code to the above following the recommendations, and it works almost as I expect however the thread still doesnt seem to end properly. I was the while loop would die and control would eventually come back to the main method. Any ideas?

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