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  • How do I get the next token in a Cstring if I want to use it as an int? (c++)

    - by Van
    My objective is to take directions from a user and eventually a text file to move a robot. The catch is that I must use Cstrings(such as char word[];) rather than the std::string and tokenize them for use. the code looks like this: void Navigator::manualDrive() { char uinput[1]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; cout << "Enter your directions below: \n"; cin.ignore(); cin.getline (uinput, 256); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(token == "forward") { int inches; inches=token+1; travel(inches); } } I've never used Cstrings I've never tokenized anything before, and I don't know how to write this. Our T.A.'s expect us to google and find all the answers because they are aware we've never been taught these methods. Everyone in my lab is having much more trouble than usual. I don't know the code to write but I know what I want my program to do. I want it to execute like this: 1) Ask for directions. 2) cin.getline the users input 3) tokenize the inputed string 4) if the first word token == "forward" move to the next token and find out how many inches to move forward then move forward 5) else if the first token == "turn" move to the next token. if the next token == "left" move to the next token and find out how many degrees to turn left I will have to do this for forward x, backward x, turn left x, turn right x, and stop(where x is in inches or degrees). I already wrote functions that tell the robot how to move forward an inch and turn in degrees. I just need to know how to convert the inputted strings to all lowercase letters and move from token to token and convert or extract the numbers from the string to use them as integers. If all is not clear you can read my lab write up at this link: http://www.cs.utk.edu/~cs102/robot_labs/Lab9.html If anything is unclear please let me know, and I will clarify as best I can.

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  • Unique_ptr compiler errors

    - by Godric Seer
    I am designing and entity-component system for a project, and C++ memory management is giving me a few issues. I just want to make sure my design is legitimate. So to start I have an Entity class which stores a vector of Components: class Entity { private: std::vector<std::unique_ptr<Component> > components; public: Entity() { }; void AddComponent(Component* component) { this -> components.push_back(std::unique_ptr<Component>(component)); } ~Entity(); }; Which if I am not mistaken means that when the destructor is called (even the default, compiler created one), the destructor for the Entity, will call ~components, which will call ~std::unique_ptr for each element in the vector, and lead to the destruction of each Component, which is what I want. The component class has virtual methods, but the important part is its constructor: Component::Component(Entity parent) { parent.addComponent(this) // I am not sure if this would work like I expect // Other things here } As long as passing this to the method works, this also does what I want. My confusion is in the factory. What I want to do is something along the lines of: std::shared_ptr<Entity> createEntity() { std::shared_ptr<Entity> entityPtr(new Entity()); new Component(*parent); // Initialize more, and other types of Components return entityPtr; } Now, I believe that this setup will leave the ownership of the Component in the hands of its Parent Entity, which is what I want. First a small question, do I need to pass the entity into the Component constructor by reference or pointer or something? If I understand C++, it would pass by value, which means it gets copied, and the copied entity would die at the end of the constructor. The second, and main question is that code based on this sample will not compile. The complete error is too large to print here, however I think I know somewhat of what is going on. The compiler's error says I can't delete an incomplete type. My Component class has a purely virtual destructor with an implementation: inline Component::~Component() { }; at the end of the header. However since the whole point is that Component is actually an interface. I know from here that a complete type is required for unique_ptr destruction. The question is, how do I work around this? For reference I am using gcc 4.4.6.

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  • HTML5 Video Tag in Chrome - Why is currentTime ignored when video downloaded from my webserver?

    - by larson4
    I want to be able to play back video from a specific time using the HTML5 video tag (and currently only need to worry about Chrome). This is possible by setting the currentTime property of a video element. That works fine in Chrome with a video sourced from html5rocks.com, but is ignored when the same file is loaded from my own local webserver. Using the sample code from http://playground.html5rocks.com/#video_tag, I have arrived at the following HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <video id="video1" width="320" height="240" volume=".7" controls preload=true autobuffer> <source src="http://playground.html5rocks.com/samples/html5_misc/chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> </video> <input type=button onclick="play()" value="play"> <input type=button onclick="setTime()" value="setTime"> <input type=button onclick="pause()" value="pause"> <script> var play=function() { document.getElementById("video1").play(); } var setTime=function() { document.getElementById("video1").currentTime=2; } var pause=function() { document.getElementById("video1").pause(); } </script> </body> </html> Using Chrome, if you Wait for the video to download for a bit (until the progress bar is about 10% in) Press setTime - you should notice the time jump to 2 seconds press play ...the video will start at 2 seconds in. But if I download the webm file in the source src to my local webserver, and change src to point locally: <source src="chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> ...then setting currentTime is complete ignored. No errors are showing in the developer tools console. Now, my webserver is serving this with mime type "video/webm", but it will be served like any old file -- not streamed. Do I need a webserver that streams in some specific way? What else could be at fault here? Note: The webserver is a proprietary platform and won't have any of the same exact settings or controls one might expect of Tomcat or some other commonly used webserver, though there may be other ways to achieve the same effect.

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  • JavaFX - question regarding binding button's disabled state

    - by jamiebarrow
    I'm trying to create a dummy application that maintains a list of tasks. For now, all I'm trying to do is add to the list. I enter a task name in a text box, click on the add task button, and expect the list to be updated with the new item and the task name input to be cleared. I only want to be able to add tasks if the task name is not empty. The below code is my implementation, but I have a question regarding the binding. I'm binding the textbox's text variable to a string in my view model, and the button's disable variable to a boolean in my view model. I have a trigger to update the disabled state when the task name changes. When the binding of the task name happens the boolean is updated accordingly, but the button still appears disabled. But then when I mouse over the button, it becomes enabled. I believe this is due to JavaFX 1.3's binding being lazy - only updates the bound variable when it is read. Also, when I've added the task, I clear the task name in the model, but the textbox's text doesn't change - even though I'm using bind with inverse. Is there a way to make the textbox's text and the button's disabled state update automatically via the binding as I was expecting? Thanks, James AddTaskViewModel.fx: package jamiebarrow; import java.lang.System; public class AddTaskViewModel { function logChange(prop:String,oldValue,newValue):Void { println("{System.currentTimeMillis()} : {prop} [{oldValue}] to [{newValue}] "); } public var newTaskName: String on replace old { logChange("newTaskName",old,newTaskName); isAddTaskDisabled = (newTaskName == null or newTaskName.trim().length() == 0); }; public var isAddTaskDisabled: Boolean on replace old { logChange("isAddTaskDisabled",old,isAddTaskDisabled); }; public var taskItems = [] on replace old { logChange("taskItems",old,taskItems); }; public function addTask() { insert newTaskName into taskItems; newTaskName = ""; } } Main.fx: package jamiebarrow; import javafx.scene.control.Button; import javafx.scene.control.TextBox; import javafx.scene.control.ListView; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.layout.VBox; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.layout.HBox; def viewModel = AddTaskViewModel{}; var txtName: TextBox = TextBox { text: bind viewModel.newTaskName with inverse onKeyTyped: onKeyTyped }; function onKeyTyped(event): Void { txtName.commit(); // ensures model is updated cmdAddTask.disable = viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled;// the binding only occurs lazily, so this is needed } var cmdAddTask = Button { text: "Add" disable: bind viewModel.isAddTaskDisabled with inverse action: onAddTask }; function onAddTask(): Void { viewModel.addTask(); } var lstTasks = ListView { items: bind viewModel.taskItems with inverse }; Stage { scene: Scene { content: [ VBox { content: [ HBox { content: [ txtName, cmdAddTask ] }, lstTasks ] } ] } }

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  • Starting company and getting a good deal

    - by Dan
    Hi, I'm having the possibility to start a small company with someone else. I'm a software programmer and been working on a field where there isn't much competition, at least in the platform I'm developing, which is the one with highest market share. This other person comes from marketing so he would find / provide clients and be in charge of the business side. So initially it would be me, the tech guy with the knowledge to develop our product and products based on my development, and this person who would become CEO (basically a 50/50 share). The idea is getting a product on our own, but also perform projects for others in order to get some cash. The problem is that his idea is doing this without initial capital. He tells me that he could get some customers from past business (which is mostly true as he has been in the business for some time) and then with the money obtained from such development, we could hire some freelance developers and build our own platform. I've already discussed with him that I don't find this the best way, provided that we need to compete against other companies some of who are VC funded and have many developers working fulltime. But most of all, I'm thinking of whether this is a fair deal to do, provided that this person is not providing anything other than clients, and I'd be the one having to do the work and dedicate time, thus also taking most of the risks. In all fairness, I'd expect him to put some initial capital, given that initially I'm putting some of my code which in some way is money given the time I've dedicated to it. So the question here is, does this seem fair to you? Is this the way it is usually done? My only concern here is that I don't have previous experience with such deals, and I ignore whether this is the usual thing to do in other cases. Certainly having a marketing person helps a lot. As you probably know being a programmer doesn't make me the most indicated person for marketing ;-) but at the same time I'm not sure if this could be a good deal or I'd just be making a pretty inconvenient deal. Hope I made my point clear, but feel free to let me know if more details are needed. Thanks in advance

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  • Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

    - by jkp
    I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

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  • f# types' properties in inconsistent order and of slightly differing types

    - by philbrowndotcom
    I'm trying to iterate through an array of objects and recursively print out each objects properties. Here is my object model: type firmIdentifier = { firmId: int ; firmName: string ; } type authorIdentifier = { authorId: int ; authorName: string ; firm: firmIdentifier ; } type denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendations = { id: int ; ticker: string ; direction: string ; author: authorIdentifier ; } Here is how I am instantiating my objects: let getMyIdeasIdeas = [| {id=1; ticker="msfqt"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=0; authorName="john Smith"; firm={firmId=12; firmName="Firm1"}};}; {id=2; ticker="goog"; direction="sell"; author={authorId=1; authorName="Bill Jones"; firm={firmId=13; firmName="ABC Financial"}};}; {id=3; ticker="DFHF"; direction="buy"; author={authorId=2; authorName="Ron James"; firm={firmId=2; firmName="DEFFirm"}};}|] And here is my algorithm to iterate, recurse and print: let rec recurseObj (sb : StringBuilder) o= let props : PropertyInfo [] = o.GetType().GetProperties() sb.Append( o.GetType().ToString()) |> ignore for x in props do let getMethod = x.GetGetMethod() let value = getMethod.Invoke(o, Array.empty) ignore <| match value with | :? float | :? int | :? string | :? bool as f -> sb.Append(x.Name + ": " + f.ToString() + "," ) |> ignore | _ -> recurseObj sb value for x in getMyIdeas do recurseObj sb x sb.Append("\r\n") |> ignore If you couldnt tell, I'm trying to create a csv file and am printing out the types for debugging purposes. The problem is, the first element comes through in the order you'd expect, but all subsequent elements come through with a slightly different (and confusing) ordering of the "child" properties like so: RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 1,ticker: msfqt,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorId: 0,authorName: john Smith,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmId: 12,firmName: Firm1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 2,ticker: goog,direction: sell,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Bill Jones,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: ABC Financial,firmId: 13,authorId: 1, RpcMethods+denormalizedSuggestedTradeRecommendationsid: 3,ticker: DFHF,direction: buy,RpcMethods+authorIdentifierauthorName: Ron James,RpcMethods+firmIdentifierfirmName: DEFFirm,firmId: 2,authorId: 2, Any idea what is going on here?

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  • How do I create a Spring 3 + Tiles 2 webapp using REST-ful URLs?

    - by Ichiro Furusato
    I'm having a heck of a time resolving URLs with Spring 3.0 MVC. I'm just building a HelloWorld to try out how to build a RESTful webapp in Spring, nothing theoretically complicated. All of the examples I've been able to find are based on configurations that pay attention to file extensions ("*.htm" or "*.do"), include an artificial directory name prefix ("/foo") or even prefix paths with a dot (ugly), all approaches that use some artificial regex pattern as a signal to the resolver. For a REST approach I want to avoid all that muck and use only the natural URL patterns of my application. I would assume (perhaps incorrectly) that in web.xml I'd set a url-pattern of "/*" and pass everything to the DispatcherServlet for resolution, then just rely on URL patterns in my controller. I can't reliably get my resolver(s) to catch the URL patterns, and in all my trials this results in a resource not found error, a stack overflow (loop), or some kind of opaque Spring 3 ServletException stack trace — one of my ongoing frustrations with Spring generally is that the error messages are not often very helpful. I want to work with a Tiles 2 resolver. I've located my *.jsp files in WEB-INF/views/ and have a single line index.jsp file at the application root redirecting to the index file set by my layout.xml (the Tiles 2 Configurer). I do all the normal Spring 3 high-level configuration: <mvc:annotation-driven /> <mvc:view-controller path="/" view-name="index"/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.acme.web.controller" /> ...followed by all sorts of combinations and configurations of UrlBasedViewResolver, InternalResourceViewResolver, UrlFilenameViewController, etc. with all manner of variantions in my Tiles 2 configuration file. Then in my controller I've trying to pick up my URL patterns. Problem is, I can't reliably even get the resolver(s) to catch the patterns to send to my controller. This has now stretched to multiple days with no real progress on something I thought would be very simple to implement. I'm perhaps trying to do too much at once, though I would think this should be a simple (almost a default) configuration. I'm just trying to create a simple HelloWorld-type application, I wouldn't expect this is rocket science. Rather than me post my own configurations (which have ranged all over the map), does anyone know of an online example that: shows a simple Spring 3 MVC + Tiles 2 web application that uses REST-ful URLs (i.e., avoiding forced URL patterns such as file extensions, added directory names or dots) and relies solely on Spring 3 code/annotations (i.e., nothing outside of Spring MVC itself) to accomplish this? Is there an easy way to do this? Thanks very much for any help.

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  • newbie problems with codeigniter

    - by Patrick
    hi, i'm trying to learn codeigniter (following a book) but don't understand why the web page comes out empty. my controller is class Welcome extends Controller { function Welcome() { parent::Controller(); } function index() { $data['title'] = "Welcome to Claudia's Kids"; $data['navlist'] = $this->MCats->getCategoriesNav(); $data['mainf'] = $this->MProducts->getMainFeature(); $skip = $data['mainf']['id']; $data['sidef'] = $this->MProducts->getRandomProducts(3, $skip); $data['main'] = "home"; $this->load->vars($data); $this->load->view('template'); } the view is: <--doctype declaration etc etc.. --> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <?php $this->load->view('header');?> </div> <div id='nav'> <?php $this->load->view('navigation');?> </div> <div id="main"> <?php $this->load->view($main);?> </div> <div id="footer"> <?php $this->load->view('footer');?> </div> </div> </body> </html> Now I know the model is passing back the right variables, but the page appears completely blank. I would expect at least to see an error, or the basic html structure, but the page is just empty. Moreover, the controller doesn't work even if I modify it as follows: function index() { echo "hello."; } What am I doing wrong? Everything was working until I made some changes to the model - but even if I delete all those new changes, the page is still blank.. i'm really confused! thanks, P.

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  • Is it possible to read infinity or NaN values using input streams?

    - by Drise
    I have some input to be read by a input filestream (for example): -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0.000000 When I use std::ifstream mystream; to read from the file to some double d1 = -1, d2 = -1, d3 = -1, d4 = -1; (assume mystream has already been opened and the file is valid), mystream >> d1 >> d2 >> d3 >> d4; mystream is in the fail state. I would expect std::cout << d1 << " " << d2 << " " << d3 << " " << d4 << std::endl; to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -1 -1. I would want it to output -365.269511 -0.356123 -Inf 0 instead. This set of data was output using C++ streams. Why can't I do the reverse process (read in my output)? How can I get the functionality I seek? From MooingDuck: #include <iostream> #include <limits> using namespace std; int main() { double myd = std::numeric_limits<double>::infinity(); cout << myd << '\n'; cin >> myd; cout << cin.good() << ":" << myd << endl; return 0; } Input: inf Output: inf 0:inf See also: http://ideone.com/jVvei Also related to this problem is NaN parsing, even though I do not give examples for it.

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  • Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

    - by hvidgaard
    Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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  • Cleaning up a dynamic array of Objects in C++

    - by Dr. Monkey
    I'm a bit confused about handling an array of objects in C++, as I can't seem to find information about how they are passed around (reference or value) and how they are stored in an array. I would expect an array of objects to be an array of pointers to that object type, but I haven't found this written anywhere. Would they be pointers, or would the objects themselves be laid out in memory in an array? In the example below, a custom class myClass holds a string (would this make it of variable size, or does the string object hold a pointer to a string and therefore take up a consistent amount of space. I try to create a dynamic array of myClass objects within a myContainer. In the myContainer.addObject() method I attempt to make a bigger array, copy all the objects into it along with a new object, then delete the old one. I'm not at all confident that I'm cleaning up my memory properly with my destructors - what improvements could I make in this area? class myClass { private string myName; public unsigned short myAmount; myClass(string name, unsigned short amount) { myName = name; myAmount = amount; } //Do I need a destructor here? I don't think so because I don't do any // dynamic memory allocation within this class } class myContainer { int numObjects; myClass * myObjects; myContainer() { numObjects = 0; } ~myContainer() { //Is this sufficient? //Or do I need to iterate through myObjects and delete each // individually? delete [] myObjects; } void addObject(string name, unsigned short amount) { myClass newObject = new myClass(name, amount); myClass * tempObjects; tempObjects = new myClass[numObjects+1]; for (int i=0; i<numObjects; i++) tempObjects[i] = myObjects[i]); tempObjects[numObjects] = newObject; numObjects++; delete newObject; //Will this delete all my objects? I think it won't. //I'm just trying to delete the old array, and have the new array hold // all the objects plus the new object. delete [] myObjects; myObjects = tempObjects; } }

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  • Using a map with set_intersection

    - by Robin Welch
    Not used set_intersection before, but I believe it will work with maps. I wrote the following example code but it doesn't give me what I'd expect: #include <map> #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; struct Money { double amount; string currency; bool operator< ( const Money& rhs ) const { if ( amount != rhs.amount ) return ( amount < rhs.amount ); return ( currency < rhs.currency ); } }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { Money mn[] = { { 2.32, "USD" }, { 2.76, "USD" }, { 4.30, "GBP" }, { 1.21, "GBP" }, { 1.37, "GBP" }, { 6.74, "GBP" }, { 2.55, "EUR" } }; typedef pair< int, Money > MoneyPair; typedef map< int, Money > MoneyMap; MoneyMap map1; map1.insert( MoneyPair( 1, mn[1] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 2, mn[2] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 3, mn[3] ) ); // (3) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 4, mn[4] ) ); // (4) MoneyMap map2; map1.insert( MoneyPair( 3, mn[3] ) ); // (3) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 4, mn[4] ) ); // (4) map1.insert( MoneyPair( 5, mn[5] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 6, mn[6] ) ); map1.insert( MoneyPair( 7, mn[7] ) ); MoneyMap out; MoneyMap::iterator out_itr( out.begin() ); set_intersection( map1.begin(), map1.end(), map2.begin(), map2.end(), inserter( out, out_itr ) ); cout << "intersection has " << out.size() << " elements." << endl; return 0; } Since the pair labelled (3) and (4) appear in both maps, I was expecting that I'd get 2 elements in the intersection, but no, I get: intersection has 0 elements. I'm sure this is something to do with the comparitor on the map / pair but can't figure it out.

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  • C++ adding friend to a template class in order to typecast

    - by user1835359
    I'm currently reading "Effective C++" and there is a chapter that contains code similiar to this: template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } }; template <typename T> Num<T> operator*(const Num<T>& lhs, const Num<T>& rhs) { ... } Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); The book says that this won't work (and indeed it doesn't) because you can't expect the compiler to use implicit typecasting to specialize a template. As a soluting it is suggested to use the "friend" syntax to define the function inside the class. //It works template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend Num operator*(const Num& lhs, const Num& rhs) { ... } }; Num<int> n = 5 * Num<int>(10); And the book suggests to use this friend-declaration thing whenever I need implicit conversion to a template class type. And it all seems to make sense. But why can't I get the same example working with a common function, not an operator? template <typename T> class Num { public: Num(int n) { ... } friend void doFoo(const Num& lhs) { ... } }; doFoo(5); This time the compiler complaints that he can't find any 'doFoo' at all. And if i declare the doFoo outside the class, i get the reasonable mismatched types error. Seems like the "friend ..." part is just being ignored. So is there a problem with my understanding? What is the difference between a function and an operator in this case?

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  • General ORM design question

    - by Calvin
    Suppose you have 2 classes, Person and Rabbit. A person can do a number of things to a rabbit, s/he can either feed it, buy it and become its owner, or give it away. A rabbit can have none or at most 1 owner at a time. And if it is not fed for a while, it may die. Class Person { Void Feed(Rabbit r); Void Buy(Rabbit r); Void Giveaway(Person p, Rabbit r); Rabbit[] rabbits; } Class Rabbit { Bool IsAlive(); Person pwner; } There are a couple of observations from the domain model: Person and Rabbit can have references to each other Any actions on 1 object can also change the state of the other object Even if no explicit actions are invoked, there can still be a change of state in the objects (e.g. Rabbit can be starved to death, and that causes it to be removed from the Person.rabbits array) As DDD is concerned, I think the correct approach is to synchronize all calls that may change the states in the domain model. For instance, if a Person buys a Rabbit, s/he would need to acquire a lock in Person to make a change to the rabbits array AND also another lock in Rabbit to change its owner before releasing the first one. This would prevent a race condition where 2 Persons claim to be the owner of the little Rabbit. The other approach is to let the database to handle all these synchronizations. Who makes the first call wins, but then the DB needs to have some kind of business logics to figure out if it is a valid transaction (e.g. if a Rabbit already has an owner, it cannot change its owner unless the Person gives it away). There are both pros/cons in either approach, and I’d expect the “best” solution would be somewhere in-between. How would you do it in real life? What’s your take and experience? Also, is it a valid concern that there can be another race condition the domain model has committed its change but before it is fully committed in the database? And for the 3rd observation (i.e. state change due to time factor). How will you do it?

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  • node.js callback getting unexpected value for variable

    - by defrex
    I have a for loop, and inside it a variable is assigned with var. Also inside the loop a method is called which requires a callback. Inside the callback function I'm using the variable from the loop. I would expect that it's value, inside the callback function, would be the same as it was outside the callback during that iteration of the loop. However, it always seems to be the value from the last iteration of the loop. Am I misunderstanding scope in JavaScript, or is there something else wrong? The program in question here is a node.js app that will monitor a working directory for changes and restart the server when it finds one. I'll include all of the code for the curious, but the important bit is the parse_file_list function. var posix = require('posix'); var sys = require('sys'); var server; var child_js_file = process.ARGV[2]; var current_dir = __filename.split('/'); current_dir = current_dir.slice(0, current_dir.length-1).join('/'); var start_server = function(){ server = process.createChildProcess('node', [child_js_file]); server.addListener("output", function(data){sys.puts(data);}); }; var restart_server = function(){ sys.puts('change discovered, restarting server'); server.close(); start_server(); }; var parse_file_list = function(dir, files){ for (var i=0;i<files.length;i++){ var file = dir+'/'+files[i]; sys.puts('file assigned: '+file); posix.stat(file).addCallback(function(stats){ sys.puts('stats returned: '+file); if (stats.isDirectory()) posix.readdir(file).addCallback(function(files){ parse_file_list(file, files); }); else if (stats.isFile()) process.watchFile(file, restart_server); }); } }; posix.readdir(current_dir).addCallback(function(files){ parse_file_list(current_dir, files); }); start_server(); The output from this is: file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/ejs.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/templates file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/web file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/server.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/settings.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/apps file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/dev_server.js file assigned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js stats returned: /home/defrex/code/node/main_urls.js For those from the future: node.devserver.js

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  • Browser detection Plugin?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have a website that I made and I am planning to redo it. The current version of the site used a jquery callout plugin that did not fully work in IE6. This got me thinking about browser detection. At first I was just going to put the supported browsers on the home page but then today on Digg I saw some post about some jquery plugins and wordpress and in the article there was a plugin for detecting IE. So I started to look around for some browser detection plugins. I found a few of them but they where over the top like this one sevenup Its nice but it makes a huge popup and tells them to update. This one is better then another one I found where they basically forced the user to update or they could not continue on the site. So I found this one jquery plugin This one is pretty nice since it looks at the major browsers and does detection on them too expect for chrome which I noticed triggers and an outdated browser with this plugin. So I started to look at the jquery documentation to see if they had a browser detection for chrome this is when I saw that they "Deprecated" and now recommend "Support". So now I am just confused like "Support" seems to be good and I read many posts on this site saying you should use it. But then it does not support stuff like .png detection that might have been useful to me since of that plugin(however I probably will not be using the plugin anymore since I think the author just gave up on it). Plus I don't know if this is something I am looking for at this time. Like I am guessing with "Support" you use it to detect something that is not supported and then do some alternative thing for that browser? For me I am more looking for something to tell the user "Hey look I tested this browser in the these versions of Firefox(3.5+), IE(8+), Opera(9.5+),Chrome(Something), Safari(Something). If your not using these versions you may not being seeing the site how it was intended" Of course I would try to have something shorter then that message but that the gyst. I am also assuming that the site would work in future versions of these browsers. I still check to see if my site works(they usually do) and is half decent in IE 6 but I won't spend hours fixing stuff that might be off in older browsers like IE 6. I won't test my site in older version of other browsers like firefox since I would think the user have to the sense to update so no point testing firefox 2.0 or whatever. So is there a plugin that fits this description? Or can "Support" do what I want? Thanks

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  • Strange problem publishing a fresh Ruby on Rails 3 application on localhost (Apache, Passenger and VirtualHosts)

    - by user502052
    I recently created a new Ruby on Rails 3 application locally on a Mac OS, named "test". Since I use apache2, in the private/etc/apache2/httpd.conf I set the VirtualHost for the "test" application: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost:443 DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName test.pjtmain.localhost DocumentRoot "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public" RackEnv development <Directory "/Users/<my_user_name>/Sites/test/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> Of course I restart apache2, but trying to access to http://test.pjtmain.localhost/ I have this error message from: FIREFOX Oops! Firefox could not find test.pjtmain.localhost Suggestions: * Search on Google: ... SAFARI Safari can’t find the server. Safari can’t open the page “http://test.pjtmain.localhost/” because Safari can’t find the server “test.pjtmain.localhost”. I have other RoR3 applications setted like that above in the httpd.conf file and all them work. What is the problem (maybe it is not related to apache...)? Notes: 1. Using the 'Network Uility' I did a Ping with the following result: ping: cannot resolve test.pjtmain.localhost: Unknown host and I did a Lookup with the follonwing result: ; <<>> DiG 9.6.0-APPLE-P2 <<>> test.pjtmain.localhost +multiline +nocomments +nocmd +noquestion +nostats +search ;; global options: +cmd <MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. 115 IN SOA dns1.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. dnsmaster.<MY_BROADBAND_TELECOMUNICATIONS_COMPANY_NAME>.com. ( 2010110500 ; serial 10800 ; refresh (3 hours) 900 ; retry (15 minutes) 604800 ; expire (1 week) 86400 ; minimum (1 day) ) 2. I am using Phusion Passenger 3. Since I not changed nothing to the new "test" application, I expect to see the default RoR index.html page: 4. It seems that in the 'Console Messages' there is any warning or error

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  • .NET: Is there a way to finagle a default namespace in an XPath 1.0 query?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm building a tool that performs xpath 1.0 queries on XHTML documents. The requirement to use a namespace prefix in the query is killing me. The query looks like this: html/body/div[@class='contents']/div[@class='body']/ div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/h2[a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ul[1]/li/a (all on one line) ...which is bad enough, except because it's xpath 1.0, I need to use an explicit namespace prefix on each QName, so it looks like this: ns1:html/ns1:body/ns1:div[@class='contents']/ns1:div[@class='body']/ ns1:div[@class='pgdbbyauthor']/ns1:h2[ns1:a[@name][starts-with(.,'Quick')]]/ following-sibling::ns1:ul[1]/ns1:li/ns1:a To set up the query, I do something like this: var xpathDoc = new XPathDocument(new StringReader(theText)); var nav = xpathDoc.CreateNavigator(); var xmlns = new XmlNamespaceManager(nav.NameTable); foreach (string prefix in xmlNamespaces.Keys) xmlns.AddNamespace(prefix, xmlNamespaces[prefix]); XPathNodeIterator selection = nav.Select(xpathExpression, xmlns); But what I want is for the xpathExpression to use the implicit default namespace. Is there a way for me to transform the unadorned xpath expression, after it's been written, to inject a namespace prefix for each element name in the query? I'm thinking, anything between two slashes, I could inject a prefix there. Excepting of course axis names like "parent::" and "preceding-sibling::" . And wildcards. That's what I mean by "finagle a default namespace". Is this hack gonna work? Addendum Here's what I mean. suppose I have an xpath expression, and before passing it to nav.Select(), I transform it. Something like this: string FixupWithDefaultNamespace(string expr) { string s = expr; s = Regex.Replace(s, "^(?!::)([^/:]+)(?=/)", "ns1:$1"); // beginning s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([^/:]+)(?=/)", "/ns1:$1"); // stanza s = Regex.Replace(s, "::([A-Za-z][^/:*]*)(?=/)", "::ns1:$1"); // axis specifier s = Regex.Replace(s, "\\[([A-Za-z][^/:*\\(]*)(?=[\\[\\]])", "[ns1:$1"); // predicate s = Regex.Replace(s, "/([A-Za-z][^/:]*)(?!<::)$", "/ns1:$1"); // end s = Regex.Replace(s, "^([A-Za-z][^/:]*)$", "ns1:$1"); // edge case s = Regex.Replace(s, "([-A-Za-z]+)\\(([^/:\\.,\\)]+)(?=[,\\)])", "$1(ns1:$2"); // xpath functions return s; } This actually works for simple cases I tried. To use the example from above - if the input is the first xpath expression, the output I get is the 2nd one, with all the ns1 prefixes. The real question is, is it hopeless to expect this Regex.Replace approach to work, as the xpath expressions get more complicated?

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  • SQL/Schema comparison and upgrade

    - by Workshop Alex
    I have a simple situation. A large organisation is using several different versions of some (desktop) application and each version has it's own database structure. There are about 200 offices and each office will have it's own version, which can be one of 7 different ones. The company wants to upgrade all applications to the latest versions, which will be version 8. The problem is that they don't have a separate database for each version. Nor do they have a separate database for each office. They have one single database which is handled by a dedicated server, thus keeping things like management and backups easier. Every office has it's own database schema and within the schema there's the whole database structure for their specific application version. As a result, I'm dealing with 200 different schema's which need to be upgraded, each with 7 possible versions. Fortunately, every schema knows the proper version so checking the version isn't difficult. But my problem is that I need to create upgrade scripts which can upgrade from version 1 to version 2 to version 3 to etc... Basically, all schema's need to be bumped up one version until they're all version 8. Writing the code that will do this is no problem. the challenge is how to create the upgrade script from one version to the other? Preferably with some automated tool. I've examined RedGate's SQL Compare and Altova's DatabaseSpy but they're not practical. Altova is way too slow. RedGate requires too much processing afterwards, since the generated SQL Script still has a few errors and it refers to the schema name. Furthermore, the code needs to become part of a stored procedure and the code generated by RedGate doesn't really fit inside a single procedure. (Plus, it's doing too much transaction-handling, while I need everything within a single transaction. I have been considering using another SQL Comparison tool but it seems to me that my case is just too different from what standard tools can deliver. So I'm going to write my own comparison tool. To do this, I'll be using ADOX with Delphi to read the catalogues for every schema version in the database, then use this to write the SQL Statements that will need to upgrade these schema's to their next version. (Comparing 1 with 2, 2 with 3, 3 with 4, etc.) I'm not unfamiliar with generating SQL-Script-Generators so I don't expect too many problems. And I'll only be upgrading the table structures, not any of the other database objects. So, does anyone have some good tips and tricks to apply when doing this kind of comparisons? Things to be aware of? Practical tips to increase speed?

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  • AngularJS service returning promise unit test gives error No more request expected

    - by softweave
    I want to test a service (Bar) that invokes another service (Foo) and returns a promise. The test is currently failing with this error: Error: Unexpected request: GET foo.json No more request expected Here are the service definitions: // Foo service returns new objects having get function returning a promise angular.module('foo', []). factory('Foo', ['$http', function ($http) { function FooFactory(config) { var Foo = function (config) { angular.extend(this, config); }; Foo.prototype = { get: function (url, params, successFn, errorFn) { successFn = successFn || function (response) {}; errorFn = errorFn || function (response) {}; return $http.get(url, {}).then(successFn, errorFn); } }; return new Foo(config); }; return FooFactory; }]); // Bar service uses Foo service angular.module('bar', ['foo']). factory('Bar', ['Foo', function (Foo) { var foo = Foo(); return { getCurrentTime: function () { return foo.get('foo.json', {}, function (response) { return Date.parse(response.data.now); }); } }; }]); Here is my current test: 'use strict'; describe('bar tests', function () { var currentTime, currentTimeInMs, $q, $rootScope, mockFoo, mockFooFactory, Foo, Bar, now; currentTime = "March 26, 2014 13:10 UTC"; currentTimeInMs = Date.parse(currentTime); beforeEach(function () { // stub out enough of Foo to satisfy Bar service: // create mock object with function get: function(url, params, successFn, errorFn) // that promises to return a response with this property // { data: { now: "March 26, 2014 13:10 UTC" }}) mockFoo = { get: function (url, params, successFn, errorFn) { successFn = successFn || function (response) {}; errorFn = errorFn || function (response) {}; // setup deferred promise var deferred = $q.defer(); deferred.resolve({data: { now: currentTime }}); return (deferred.promise).then(successFn, errorFn); } }; // create mock Foo service mockFooFactory = function(config) { return mockFoo; }; module(function ($provide) { $provide.value('Foo', mockFooFactory); }); module('bar'); inject(function (_$q_, _$rootScope_, _Foo_, _Bar_) { $q = _$q_; $rootScope = _$rootScope_; Foo = _Foo_; Bar = _Bar_; }); }); it('getCurrentTime should return currentTimeInMs', function () { Bar.getCurrentTime().then(function (serverCurrentTime) { now = serverCurrentTime; }); $rootScope.$apply(); // resolve Bar promise expect(now).toEqual(currentTimeInMs); }); }); The error is being thrown at $rootScope.$apply(). I also tried using $rootScope.$digest(), but it gives the same error. Thanks in advance for any insight you can give me.

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  • File Output using Gforth

    - by sheepez
    As a first project I have been writing a short program to render the Mandelbrot fractal. I have got to the point of trying to output my results to a file ( e.g. .bmp or .ppm ) and got stuck. I have not really found any examples of exactly what I am trying to do, but I have found two examples of code to copy from one file to another. The examples in the Gforth documentation ( Section 3.27 ) did not work for me ( winXP ) in fact they seemed to open and create files but not write to files properly. This is the Gforth documentation example that copies the contents of one file to another: 0 Value fd-in 0 Value fd-out : open-input ( addr u -- ) r/o open-file throw to fd-in ; : open-output ( addr u -- ) w/o create-file throw to fd-out ; s" foo.in" open-input s" foo.out" open-output : copy-file ( -- ) begin line-buffer max-line fd-in read-line throw while line-buffer swap fd-out write-line throw repeat ; I found this example ( http://rosettacode.org/wiki/File_IO#Forth ) which does work. The main problem is that I can't isolate the part that writes to a file and have it still work. The main confusion is that r doesn't seem to consume TOS as I might expect. : copy-file2 ( a1 n1 a2 n2 -- ) r/o open-file throw >r w/o create-file throw r> begin pad maxstring 2 pick read-file throw ?dup while pad swap 3 pick write-file throw repeat close-file throw close-file throw ; \ Invoke it like this: s" output.txt" s" input.txt" copy-file I would be very grateful if someone could explain exactly how the open, create read and write -file words actually work, as my investigation keeps resulting in somewhat bizarre stacks. Any clues as to why the Gforth examples do not work might help too. In summary, I want to output from Gforth to a file and so far have been thwarted. Can anyone offer any help? Thank you Vijay, I think that I understand the example that you gave. However when I try to use something like this ( which I think is similar ): 0 value test-file : write-test s" testfile.out" w/o create-file throw to test-file s" test text" test-file write-line ; I get ok but nothing is put into the file, have I made a mistake? It seems that the problem was due to not flushing the relevant buffers or explicitly closing the file. Adding something like test-file flush-file throw or test-file close-file throw between write-line and ; makes it work. Thanks again Vijay for helping.

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • IE browser caching and the jQuery Form Plugin

    - by Harfleur
    Like so many lost souls before me, I'm floundering in the snake pit that is Ajax form submission and IE browser caching. I'm trying to write a simple script using the jQuery Form Plugin to Ajaxify Wordpress comments. It's working fine in Firefox, Chrome, Safari, et. al., but in IE, the response text is cached with the result that Ajax is pulling in the wrong comment. jQuery(this).ajaxSubmit({ success: function(data) { var response = $("<ol>"+data+"</ol>"); response.find('.commentlist li:last').hide().appendTo(jQuery('.commentlist')).slideDown('slow'); } }); ajaxSubmit sends the comment to wp-comments-post.php, which inelegantly spits back the entire page as a response. So, despite the fact that it's ugly as toads, I'm sticking the response text in a variable, using :last to isolate the most recent comment, and sliding it down in its place. IE, however, is returning the cached version of the page, which doesn't include the new comment. So ".commentlist li:last" selects the previous comment, a duplicate of which then uselessly slides down beneath the original. I've tried setting "cache: false" in the ajaxSubmit options, but it has no effect. I've tried setting a url option and tacking on a random number or timestamp, but it winds up being attached to the POST that submits the comment to the server rather than the GET that returns the response, and so has no effect. I'm not sure what else to try. Everything works fine in IE if I turn off browser caching, but that's obviously not something I can expect anyone viewing the page to do. Any help will be hugely appreciated. Thanks in advance! EDIT WITH A PROGRESS REPORT: A couple of people have suggested using PHP headers to prevent caching, and this does indeed work. The trouble is that wp-comments-post is spitting back the entire page when a new comment is submitted, and the only way I can see to add headers is to put them in the Wordpress post template, which disables caching on all posts at all times--not quite the behavior I'm looking for. Is there a way to set a php conditional--"if is_ajax" or something like that--that would keep the headers from being applied during regular pageloads, but plug them in if the page was called by an Ajax GET?

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