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  • Mock Object and Interface

    - by tunl
    I'm a newbie in Unit Test with Mock Object. I use EasyMock. I try to understand this example: import java.io.IOException; public interface ExchangeRate { double getRate(String inputCurrency, String outputCurrency) throws IOException; } import java.io.IOException; public class Currency { private String units; private long amount; private int cents; public Currency(double amount, String code) { this.units = code; setAmount(amount); } private void setAmount(double amount) { this.amount = new Double(amount).longValue(); this.cents = (int) ((amount * 100.0) % 100); } public Currency toEuros(ExchangeRate converter) { if ("EUR".equals(units)) return this; else { double input = amount + cents/100.0; double rate; try { rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); double output = input * rate; return new Currency(output, "EUR"); } catch (IOException ex) { return null; } } } public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Currency) { Currency other = (Currency) o; return this.units.equals(other.units) && this.amount == other.amount && this.cents == other.cents; } return false; } public String toString() { return amount + "." + Math.abs(cents) + " " + units; } } import junit.framework.TestCase; import org.easymock.EasyMock; import java.io.IOException; public class CurrencyTest extends TestCase { public void testToEuros() throws IOException { Currency testObject = new Currency(2.50, "USD"); Currency expected = new Currency(3.75, "EUR"); ExchangeRate mock = EasyMock.createMock(ExchangeRate.class); EasyMock.expect(mock.getRate("USD", "EUR")).andReturn(1.5); EasyMock.replay(mock); Currency actual = testObject.toEuros(mock); assertEquals(expected, actual); } } So, i wonder how to Currency use ExchangeRate in toEuros(..) method. rate = converter.getRate(units, "EUR"); The behavior of getRate(..) method is not specified because ExchangeRate is an interface.

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  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • java multipart POST library

    - by tom
    Is there a multipart POST library out there that achieve the same effect of doing a POST from a html form? for example - upload a file programmingly in Java versus upload the file using a html form. And on the server side, it just blindly expect the request from client side to be a multipart POST request and parse out the data as appropriate. Has anyone tried this? specifically, I am trying to see if I can simulate the following with Java The user creates a blob by submitting an HTML form that includes one or more file input fields. Your app sets blobstoreService.createUploadUrl() as the destination (action) of this form, passing the function a URL path of a handler in your app. When the user submits the form, the user's browser uploads the specified files directly to the Blobstore. The Blobstore rewrites the user's request and stores the uploaded file data, replacing the uploaded file data with one or more corresponding blob keys, then passes the rewritten request to the handler at the URL path you provided to blobstoreService.createUploadUrl(). This handler can do additional processing based on the blob key. Finally, the handler must return a headers-only, redirect response (301, 302, or 303), typically a browser redirect to another page indicating the status of the blob upload. Set blobstoreService.createUploadUrl as the form action, passing the application path to load when the POST of the form is completed. <body> <form action="<%= blobstoreService.createUploadUrl("/upload") %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="myFile"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> </body> Note that this is how the upload form would look if it were created as a JSP. The form must include a file upload field, and the form's enctype must be set to multipart/form-data. When the user submits the form, the POST is handled by the Blobstore API, which creates the blob. The API also creates an info record for the blob and stores the record in the datastore, and passes the rewritten request to your app on the given path as a blob key.

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  • Using XAML + designer to edit Plain Old CLR Objects?

    - by Joe White
    I want to write a POCO in XAML, and use a DataTemplate to display that object in the GUI at runtime. So far, so good; I know how to do all that. Since I'll already have a DataTemplate that can transform my POCO into a WPF visual tree, is there any way to get the Visual Studio designer to play along, and have the Design View show me the POCO+DataTemplate's resulting GUI, as I edit the POCO's XAML? (Obviously the designer wouldn't know how to edit the "design view"; I wouldn't expect the Toolbox or click-and-drag to work on the design surface. That's fine -- I just want to see a preview as I edit.) If you're curious, the POCOs in question would be level maps for a game. (At this point, I'm not planning to ship an end-user map editor, so I'll be doing all the editing myself in Visual Studio.) So the XAML isn't WPF GUI objects like Window and UserControl, but it's still not something where I would want to blindly bang out some XAML and hope for the best. I want to see what I'm doing (the GUI map) as I'm doing it. If I try to make a XAML file whose root is my map object, the designer shows "Intentionally Left Blank - The document root element is not supported by the visual designer." It does this even if I've defined a DataTemplate in App.xaml's <Application.Resources>. But I know the designer can show my POCO, when it's inside a WPF object. One possible way of accomplishing what I want would be to have a ScratchUserControl that just contains a ContentPresenter, and write my POCO XAML inside that ContentPresenter's Content property, e.g.: <UserControl ...> <ContentPresenter> <ContentPresenter.Content> <Maps:Map .../> </ContentPresenter.Content> </ContentPresenter> </UserControl> But then I would have to be sure to copy the content back out into its own file when I was done editing, which seems tedious and error-prone, and I don't like tedious and error-prone. And since I can preview my XAML this way, isn't there some way to do it without the UserControl?

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  • Javascript scope problem with object and setTimeout

    - by Shabbyrobe
    I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin that executes a method on a timer. I'd like it to work on multiple elements on a page independently. I've reached a point where the timer executes for each element, but the method called in the setTimeout seems to only know about the last instance of the plugin. I know I'm doing something fundamentally stupid here, but I'm danged if I know what. I know stuff like this has been asked 8 million times on here before, but I've not managed to find an answer that relates to my specific problem. Here's a script that demonstrates the structure of what I'm doing. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="assets/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var crap = 0; (function($) { jQuery.fn.pants = function(options) { var trousers = { id: null, current: 0, waitTimeMs: 1000, begin: function() { var d = new Date(); this.id = crap++; console.log(this.id); // do a bunch of stuff window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, next: function() { this.current ++; console.log(this.id); window.setTimeout(function(self) {return function() {self.next();}}(this), this.waitTimeMs); }, }; options = options || {}; $.extend(trousers, options); this.each(function(index, element) { trousers.begin(); }); return this; }; } )(jQuery); jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("div.wahey").pants(); }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="wahey"></div> <div class="wahey"></div> </body> </html> The output I get is this: 0 1 1 1 1 1 The output I expect to get is this: 0 1 0 1 0 1

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  • Finding the most frequent subtrees in a collection of (parse) trees

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I have a collection of trees whose nodes are labelled (but not uniquely). Specifically the trees are from a collection of parsed sentences (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treebank). I wish to extract the most common subtrees from the collection - performance is not (yet) an issue. I'd be grateful for algorithms (ideally Java) or pointers to tools which do this for treebanks. Note that order of child nodes is important. EDIT @mjv. We are working in a limited domain (chemistry) which has a stylised language so the varirty of the trees is not huge - probably similar to children's readers. Simple tree for "the cat sat on the mat". <sentence> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> <verbPhrase> <verb/> <prepositionPhrase> <preposition/> <nounPhrase> <article/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> </prepositionPhrase> </verbPhrase> </sentence> Here the sentence contains two identical part-of-speech subtrees (the actual tokens "cat". "mat" are not important in matching). So the algorithm would need to detect this. Note that not all nounPhrases are identical - "the big black cat" could be: <nounPhrase> <article/> <adjective/> <adjective/> <noun/> </nounPhrase> The length of sentences will be longer - between 15 to 30 nodes. I would expect to get useful results from 1000 trees. If this does not take more than a day or so that's acceptable. Obviously the shorter the tree the more frequent, so nounPhrase will be very common. EDIT If this is to be solved by flattening the tree then I think it would be related to Longest Common Substring, not Longest Common Sequence. But note that I don't necessarily just want the longest - I want a list of all those long enough to be "interesting" (criterion yet to be decided).

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  • Implementing coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

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  • jquery event namespace bubbling issue

    - by Adrian Adkison
    Hi, I stumbled upon an issue with event namespacing while developing a jQuery plugin. here is the html <div class="parent"> <div class="child"> </div> </div> <a class="btn-a">trigger a</a> <a class="btn-b">trigger b</a> <a class="btn-c">trigger c</a> Here is the jQuery jQuery('#content div.child') .bind('child.a',function(){alert('a-child');}) .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-child');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-child');}); jQuery('#content div.parent') .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-parent');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-parent');}); jQuery('a.btn-a') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.a'); }); jQuery('a.btn-b') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.b'); }); jQuery('a.btn-c') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.c'); }); In sum, I have attached a namespaced event listener to the child and parent and created three buttons that trigger each of the events(a.a, a.b, a.c). Note the parent is only listening to a.b and a.c. When I click on the button that triggers a.a on the child, only the div.child listener for a.a is fired, but the entire 'a' namespace event bubbles up to div.parent listeners, a.b and a.c, and triggers them. My question is, how would I still use event namespacing but only have the intended event bubble up(i.e. a.a is the only event that fires for both child and parent). I am aware of stopPropagation and stopImmediatePropagation. I would not want to put these on the child a.b and a.c listeners because there are times when i do want them to bubble. For instance when I trigger 'a.b' on the child, I would expect the 'a.b' and only the 'a.b' event to be handled by the child and the parent. Thanks

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  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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  • Uploading files to varbinary(max) in SQL Server -- works on one server, not the other

    - by pjabbott
    I have some code that allows users to upload file attachments into a varbinary(max) column in SQL Server from their web browser. It has been working perfectly fine for almost two years, but all of a sudden it stopped working. And it stopped working on only the production database server -- it still works fine on the development server. I can only conclude that the code is fine and there is something up with the instance of SQL Server itself. But I have no idea how to isolate the problem. I insert a record into the ATTACHMENT table, only inserting non-binary data like the title and the content type, and then chunk-upload the uploaded file using the following code: // get the file stream System.IO.Stream fileStream = postedFile.InputStream; // make an upload buffer byte[] fileBuffer; fileBuffer = new byte[1024]; // make an update command SqlCommand fileUpdateCommand = new SqlCommand("update ATTACHMENT set ATTACHMENT_DATA.WRITE(@Data, NULL, NULL) where ATTACHMENT_ID = @ATTACHMENT_ID", sqlConnection, sqlTransaction); fileUpdateCommand.Parameters.Add("@Data", SqlDbType.Binary); fileUpdateCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ATTACHMENT_ID", newId); while (fileStream.Read(fileBuffer, 0, fileBuffer.Length) > 0) { fileUpdateCommand.Parameters["@Data"].Value = fileBuffer; fileUpdateCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); <------ FAILS HERE } fileUpdateCommand.Dispose(); fileStream.Close(); Where it says "FAILS HERE", it sits for a while and then I get a SQL Server timeout error on the very first iteration through the loop. If I connect to the development database instead, everything works fine (it runs through the loop many, many times and the commit is successful). Both servers are identical (SQL Server 9.0.3042) and the schemas are identical as well. When I open Activity Monitor right after the timeout to see what's going it, it says the last command is (@Data binary(1024),@ATTACHMENT_ID decimal(4,0))update ATTACHMENT set ATTACHMENT_DATA.WRITE(@Data, NULL, NULL) where ATTACHMENT_ID = @ATTACHMENT_ID which I would expect but it also says it has a status of "Suspended" and a wait type of "PAGEIOLATCH_SH". I looked this up and it seems to be a bad thing but I can't find anything specific to my stuation. Ideas?

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  • Why won't C# accept a (seemingly) perfectly good Sql Server CE Query?

    - by VoidKing
    By perfectly good sql query, I mean to say that, inside WebMatrix, if I execute the following query, it works to perfection: SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%o%' Here i am using 'o' as a static search string to search upon. No problem, but not exeactly very dynamic. Now, when I write this query as a string in C# and as I think it should be (and even as I have done before) I get a server-side error indicating that the string was not in the correct format. Here is a pic of that error: And (although I am only testing the output, should I get it to quit erring), here is the actual C# (i.e., the .cshtml) page that queries the database: @{ Layout = "~/Layouts/_secondaryMainLayout.cshtml"; var db = Database.Open("Content"); string searchText = Request.Unvalidated["searchText"]; string selectQueryString = "SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%'"; @:beginning <br/> foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) { @:entry @:@row.location &nbsp; @:@row.occurences &nbsp; @:@row.tableName <br/> } } Since it is erring on the foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) line, that heavily suggests that something is wrong with my query, however, everything seems right to me about the syntax here and it even executes to perfection if I query the database (mind you, un-parameterized) directly. Logically, I would assume that I have erred somewhere with the syntax involved in parameterizing this query, however, my double and triple checking (as well as, my past experience at doing this) insists that everything looks fine here. Have I messed up the syntax involved with parameterizing this query, or is something else at play here that I am overlooking? I know I can tell you, for sure, as it has been previously tested, that the value I am getting from the query string is, indeed, what I would expect it to be, but as there really isn't much else on the .cshtml page yet, that is about all I can tell you.

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  • Permanent mutex locking causing deadlock?

    - by Daniel
    I am having a problem with mutexes (pthread_mutex on Linux) where if a thread locks a mutex right again after unlocking it, another thread is not very successful getting a lock. I've attached test code where one mutex is created, along with two threads that in an endless loop lock the mutex, sleep for a while and unlock it again. The output I expect to see is "alive" messages from both threads, one from each (e.g. 121212121212. However what I get is that one threads gets the majority of locks (e.g. 111111222222222111111111 or just 1111111111111...). If I add a usleep(1) after the unlocking, everything works as expected. Apparently when the thread goes to SLEEP the other thread gets its lock - however this is not the way I was expecting it, as the other thread has already called pthread_mutex_lock. I suspect this is the way this is implemented, in that the actice thread has priority, however it causes certain problem in this particular testcase. Is there any way to prevent it (short of adding a deliberately large enough delay or some kind of signaling) or where is my error in understanding? #include <pthread.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/time.h> #include <unistd.h> pthread_mutex_t mutex; void* threadFunction(void *id) { int count=0; while(true) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); usleep(50*1000); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); // usleep(1); ++count; if (count % 10 == 0) { printf("Thread %d alive\n", *(int*)id); count = 0; } } return 0; } int main() { // create one mutex pthread_mutexattr_t attr; pthread_mutexattr_init(&attr); pthread_mutex_init(&mutex, &attr); // create two threads pthread_t thread1; pthread_t thread2; pthread_attr_t attributes; pthread_attr_init(&attributes); int id1 = 1, id2 = 2; pthread_create(&thread1, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id1); pthread_create(&thread2, &attributes, &threadFunction, &id2); pthread_attr_destroy(&attributes); sleep(1000); return 0; }

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  • Representing xml through a single class

    - by Charles
    I am trying to abstract away the difficulties of configuring an application that we use. This application takes a xml configuration file and it can be a bit bothersome to manually edit this file, especially when we are trying to setup some automatic testing scenarios. I am finding that reading xml is nice, pretty easy, you get a network of element nodes that you can just go through and build your structures quite nicely. However I am slowly finding that the reverse is not quite so nice. I want to be able to build a xml configuration file through a single easy to use interface and because xml is composed of a system of nodes I am having a lot of struggle trying to maintain the 'easy' part. Does anyone know of any examples or samples that easily and intuitively build xml files without declaring a bunch of element type classes and expect the user to build the network themselves? For example if my desired xml output is like so <cook version="1.1"> <recipe name="chocolate chip cookie"> <ingredients> <ingredient name="flour" amount="2" units="cups"/> <ingredient name="eggs" amount="2" units="" /> <ingredient name="cooking chocolate" amount="5" units="cups" /> </ingredients> <directions> <direction name="step 1">Preheat oven</direction> <direction name="step 2">Mix flour, egg, and chocolate</direction> <direction name="step 2">bake</direction> </directions> </recipe> <recipe name="hot dog"> ... How would I go about designing a class to build that network of elements and make one easy to use interface for creating recipes? Right now I have a recipe object, an ingredient object, and a direction object. The user must make each one, set the attributes in the class and attach them to the root object which assembles the xml elements and outputs the formatted xml. Its not very pretty and I just know there has to be a better way. I am using python so bonus points for pythonic solutions

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • Need Help with Page Life Cycle(I think it is screwing me up)

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have dragged a empty asp.net table onto my webform. I generate all the rows in the code behind those. Now my table gets filled up and has dropdown lists. When the user hits save I go through all the rows and update the values from the dropdownlist in the db. This works all great. However if 2 columns have each have "Present" then those 2 columns should be not be shown anymore and 2 new columns get put in its place with other dropdown lists. This all works. However you have to refresh the entire page to for the 2 columns that should go away to go away. So what I tried to do is at the end of the button click event. Clear the whole table and then regenerate it. However when I do this then my values are not saved to the database anymore for whatever reason. if (IsPostBack == false) { // check if dummy variables exist in db- If true just generate tables with values in db. If not generate them. } else { // grab the values from the database // generate tables with the values } btn click event { go through all rows in table(foreach loop) update each column in the database with cells in each row. while in foreach loop. //done } So this is how it goes and it works expect(all correct values are saved) the table is just not updated to the user. Does not work if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } // if postback is true do nothing. By the time it gets to the click event it says there is zero rows in the table so nothing happens. btn click event { // same code } Fails also. if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } else { // same code as above but moved into its own method. gernerateTable(); } btn click event { // update all rows // once done clear the Tables rows // call generateTable() } This last one does nothing as for some reason it does not update anything. I don't understand why. So what am I doing wrong with this life cycle something in my process is wrong. The code works just not when I want the table to be updated right away.

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  • git: setting a single tracking remote from a public repo.

    - by Gauthier
    I am confused with remote branches. My local repo: (local) ---A---B---C-master My remote repo (called int): (int) ---A---B---C---D---E-master What I want to do is to setup the local repo's master branch to follow that of int. Local repo: (local) ---A---B---C---D---E-master-remotes/int/master So that when int changes to: (int) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master I can run git pull from the local repo's master and get (local) ---A---B---C---D---E---F-master-remotes/int/master Here's what I have tried: git fetch int gets me all the branches of int into remote branches. This can get messy since int might have hundreds of branches. git fetch int master gets me the commits, but no ref to it, only FETCH_HEAD. No remote branch either. git fetch int master:new_master works but I don't want a new name every time I update, and no remote branch is setup. git pull int master does what I want, but there is still no remote branch setup. I feel that it is ok to do so (that's the best I have now), but I read here and there that with the remote setup it is enough with git pull. git branch --track new_master int/master, as per http://www.gitready.com/beginner/2009/03/09/remote-tracking-branches.html . I get "not a valid object name: int/master". git remote -v does show me that int is defined and points at the correct location (1. worked). What I miss is the int/master branch, which is precisely what I want to get. git fetch in master:int/master. Well, int/master is created, but is no remote. So to summarize, I've tried some stuff with no luck. I would expect 2 to give me the remote branch to master in the repo int. The solution I use now is option 3. I read somewhere that you could change some config file by hand, but isn't that a bit cumbersome? The "cumbersome" way of editting the config file did work: [branch "master"] remote = int merge = master It can be done from command line: $ git config branch.master.remote int $ git config branch.master.merge master Any reason why option 2 above wouldn't do that automatically? Even in that case, git pull fetches all branches from the remote.

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Simple Modal with Autocomplete in ASP.NET

    - by DanielJaymes
    Hello, I am quite new to this so any help is very much appreciated. I am generating a modal pop using Simple Modal, this works ok. I now want to add jquery autocomplete to the element txtEmail. When I run the page outside of Simple Modal I can use Autocomplete, however when the page is loaded through Simple Modal it does not work. I have checked to ensure the element is loaded, and it is allowing me to change the text color, but I can not add autocomplete to it. The code is /** * @author Daniel */ jQuery(function($) { $("input.ema, a.ema").click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $("#osx-modal-content").modal({ appendTo: 'form', overlayId: 'osx-overlay', containerId: 'osx-container', closeHTML: '<div class="close"><a href="#" class="simplemodal-close">X</a></div>', minHeight: 80, opacity: 65, position: ['0', ], overlayClose: true, onOpen: OSX.open, onClose: OSX.close, onShow: OSX.show }); }); var OSX = { container: null, open: function(d) { var self = this; $.ajax({ url: "/Message/UserMessage/", type: 'GET', dataType: 'html', // <-- to expect an html response success: function(result) { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $('div#osx-modal-data').html(result).find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#c00'); if ($('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").length) { // implies *not* zero $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").autocomplete(data); alert('We found img elements on the page using "img"'); } else { alert('No txtEmail elements found'); } } }); self.container = d.container[0]; d.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function() { $("#osx-modal-content", self.container).show(); $('div#osx-modal-title').html("Send Email"); var title = $("#osx-modal-title", self.container); title.show(); d.container.slideDown('slow', function() { setTimeout(function() { var h = $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).height() + title.height() + 20; // padding d.container.animate({ height: h }, 200, function() { $("div.close", self.container).show(); $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).show(); }); }, 300); }); }) }, close: function(d) { var self = this; d.container.animate({ top: "-" + (d.container.height() + 20) }, 500, function() { self.close(); // or $.modal.close(); }); }, show: function(d) { // $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#ccc') } }; });

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  • Issues in Ajax based applications

    - by Sinuhe
    I'm very interested in developing Ajax based applications. This is, loading almost all of the content of the application via XMLHttpRequest, instead of only some combos and widgets. But if I try to do this form scratch, soon I find some problems without an easy solution. I wonder if there is some framework (both client and server side) to deal with this issues. As far as I know, there isn't (but I've searched mainly in Java world). So I am seriously thinking of doing my own framework, at least for my projects. Therefore, in this question I ask for several things. First, the possible problems of an ajax based development. Then, I'm looking for some framework or utility in order to deal with them. Finally, if there is no framework available, what features must it have. Here are the issues I thought: 1 - JavaScript must be enabled. Security paranoia isn't the only problem: a lot of mobile devices couldn't use the application, too. 2 - Sometimes you need to update more than one DIV (e.g. main content, menu and breadcrumbs). 3 - Unknown response type: when you make an Ajax call, you set the callback function too, usually specifying if expected response is a javascript object or in which DIV put the result. But this fails when you get another type of response: for example when the session has expired and the user must log in again. 4 - Browser's refresh, back and forward buttons can be a real pain. User will expect different behaviors depending on the situation. 5 - When search engines indexes a site, only follow links. Thus, content load by Ajax won't "exist" for who doesn't know about it yet. 6 - Users can ask for open a link in a different window/tab. 7 - Address bar doesn't show the "real" page you are in. So, you can't copy the location and send it to a friend or bookmark the page. 8 - If you want to monetize the site, you can put some advertisings. As you don't refresh entire page and you want to change the ad after some time, you have to refresh only the DIV where the ad is. But this can violate the Terms and Conditions of your ad service. In fact, it can go against AdSense TOS. 9 - When you refresh an entire page, all JavaScript gets "cleaned". But in Ajax calls, all JavaScript objects will remain. 10 - You can't easily change your CSS properties.

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  • Race condition for thread startup

    - by Ozzah
    A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

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  • A case-insensitive related implementation problem

    - by Robert
    Hi All, I am going through a final refinement posted by the client, which needs me to do a case-insesitive query. I will basically walk through how this simple program works. First of all, in my Java class, I did a fairly simple webpage parsing: title=(String)results.get("title"); doc = docBuilder.parse("http://" + server + ":" + port + "/exist/rest/db/wb/xql/media_lookup.xql?" + "&title=" + title); This Java statement references an XQuery file "media_lookup.xql" which is stored on localhost, and the only parameter we are passing is the string "title". Secondly, let's take at look at that XQuery file: $title := request:get-parameter('title',""), $mediaNodes := doc('/db/wb/portfolio/media_data.xml'), $query := $mediaNodes//media[contains(title,$title)], Then it will evaluate that query. This XQuery will get the "title" parameter that are passes from our Java class, and query the "media_data" xml file stored in the database, which contains a bunch of media nodes with a 'title' element node. As you may expect, this simple query will just match those media nodes whose 'title' element contains a substring of what the value of string 'title' is. So if our 'title' is "Chi", it will return media nodes whose title may be "Chicago" or "Chicken". The refinment request posted by the client is that there should be NO case-sensitivity. The very intuitive way is to modify the XQuery statement by using a lower-case funtion in it, like: $query := $mediaNodes//media[contains(lower-case(title/text(),lower-case($title))], However, the question comes: this modified query will run my machine into memory overflow. Since my "media_data.xml" is quite huge and contains thouands of millions of media nodes, I assume the lower-case() function will run on each of the entries, thus causing the machine to crash. I've talked with some experienced XQuery programmer, and they think I should use an index to solve this problem, and I will definitely research into that. But before that, I am just posting this problem here to get other ideas or any suggestions, do you think any other way may help? for example, could I tweak the Java parse statement to realize the case-insensitivity? Since I think I saw some people did some string concatination by using "contains." in Java before passing it to the server. Any idea or help is welcomed, thanks in advance.

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  • log4bash: Cannot find a way to add MaxBackupIndex to this logger implementation

    - by Syffys
    I have been trying to modify this log4bash implementation but I cannot manage to make it work. Here's a sample: #!/bin/bash TRUE=1 FALSE=0 ############### Added for testing log4bash_LOG_ENABLED=$TRUE log4bash_rootLogger=$TRACE,f,s log4bash_appender_f=file log4bash_appender_f_dir=$(pwd) log4bash_appender_f_file=test.log log4bash_appender_f_roll_format=%Y%m log4bash_appender_f_roll=$TRUE log4bash_appender_f_maxBackupIndex=10 #################################### log4bash_abs(){ if [ "${1:0:1}" == "." ]; then builtin echo ${rootDir}/${1} else builtin echo ${1} fi } log4bash_check_app_dir(){ if [ "$log4bash_LOG_ENABLED" -eq $TRUE ]; then dir=$(log4bash_abs $1) if [ ! -d ${dir} ]; then #log a seperation line mkdir $dir fi fi } # Delete old log files # $1 Log directory # $2 Log filename # $3 Log filename suffix # $4 Max backup index log4bash_delete_old_files(){ ##### Added for testing builtin echo "Running log4bash_delete_old_files $@" &2 ##### if [ "$log4bash_LOG_ENABLED" -eq $TRUE ] && [ -n "$3" ] && [ "$4" -gt 0 ]; then local directory=$(log4bash_abs $1) local filename=$2 local maxBackupIndex=$4 local suffix=$(echo "${3}" | sed -re 's/[^.]/?/g') local logFileList=$(find "${directory}" -mindepth 1 -maxdepth 1 -name "${filename}${suffix}" -type f | xargs ls -1rt) local fileCnt=$(builtin echo -e "${logFileList}" | wc -l) local fileToDeleteCnt=$(($fileCnt-$maxBackupIndex)) local fileToDelete=($(builtin echo -e "${logFileList}" | head -n "${fileToDeleteCnt}" | sed ':a;N;$!ba;s/\n/ /g')) ##### Added for testing builtin echo "log4bash_delete_old_files About to start deletion ${fileToDelete[@]}" &2 ##### if [ ${fileToDeleteCnt} -gt 0 ]; then for f in "${fileToDelete[@]}"; do #### Added for testing builtin echo "Removing file ${f}" &2 #### builtin eval rm -f ${f} done fi fi } #Appender # $1 Log directory # $2 Log file # $3 Log file roll ? # $4 Appender Name log4bash_filename(){ builtin echo "Running log4bash_filename $@" &2 local format local filename log4bash_check_app_dir "${1}" if [ ${3} -eq 1 ];then local formatProp=${4}_roll_format format=${!formatProp} if [ -z ${format} ]; then format=$log4bash_appender_file_format fi local suffix=.`date "+${format}"` filename=${1}/${2}${suffix} # Old log files deletion local previousFilenameVar=int_${4}_file_previous local maxBackupIndexVar=${4}_maxBackupIndex if [ -n "${!maxBackupIndexVar}" ] && [ "${!previousFilenameVar}" != "${filename}" ]; then builtin eval export $previousFilenameVar=$filename log4bash_delete_old_files "${1}" "${2}" "${suffix}" "${!maxBackupIndexVar}" else builtin echo "log4bash_filename $previousFilenameVar = ${!previousFilenameVar}" fi else filename=${1}/${2} fi builtin echo $filename } ######################## Added for testing filename_caller(){ builtin echo "filename_caller Call $1" output=$(log4bash_abs $(log4bash_filename "${log4bash_appender_f_dir}" "${log4bash_appender_f_file}" "1" "log4bash_appender_f" )) builtin echo ${output} } #### Previous logs generation for i in {1101..1120}; do file="${log4bash_appender_f_file}.2012${i:2:3}" builtin echo "${file} $i" touch -m -t "2012${i}0000" ${log4bash_appender_f_dir}/$file done for i in {1..4}; do filename_caller $i done I expect log4bash_filename function to step into the following if only when the calculated log filename is different from the previous one: if [ -n "${!maxBackupIndexVar}" ] && [ "${!previousFilenameVar}" != "${filename}" ]; then For this scenario to apply, I'd need ${!previousFilenameVar} to be correctly set, but it's not the case, so log4bash_filename steps into this if all the time which is really not necessary... It looks like the issue is due to the following line not working properly: builtin eval export $previousFilenameVar=$filename I have a some theories to explain why: in the original code, functions are declared and exported as readonly which makes them unable to modify global variable. I removed readonly declarations in the above sample, but probleme persists. Function calls are performed in $() which should make them run into seperated shell instances so variable modified are not exported to the main shell But I cannot manage to find a workaround to this issue... Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance!

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