primary - Page 183 - Developer IT

Stored procedure for generic MERGE

- by GilliVilla

I have a set of 10 tables in a database (DB1). And there are 10 tables in another database (DB2) with exact same schema on the same SQL Server 2008 R2 database server machine. The 10 tables in DB1 are frequently updated with data. I intend to write a stored procedure that would run once every day for synchronizing the 10 tables in DB1 with DB2. The stored procedure would make use of the MERGE statement. Now, my aim is to make this as generic and parametrized as possible. That is, accommodate for more tables down the line... and accommodate different source and target DB names. Definitely no hard coding is intended. This is my algorithm so far: Have the database names as parameters Have the first query within the stored procedure... result in giving the names of the 10 tables from a lookup table (this can be 10, 20 or whatever) Have a generic MERGE statement that does the sync for each of the above set of tables (based on primary key?) This is where I need more inputs on. What is the best way to achieve this stored procedure? SQL syntax would be helpful.

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iPhone - Using sql database - insert statement failing

- by Satyam svv

Hi, I'm using sqlite database in my iphone app. I've a table which has 3 integer columns. I'm using following code to write to that database table. -(BOOL)insertTestResult { NSArray* paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString* documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* dataBasePath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"test21.sqlite3"]; BOOL success = NO; sqlite3* database = 0; if(sqlite3_open([dataBasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { BOOL res = (insertResultStatement == nil) ? createStatement(insertResult, &insertResultStatement, database) : YES; if(res) { int i = 1; sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 0, i); sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 1, i); sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 2, i); int err = sqlite3_step(insertResultStatement); if(SQLITE_ERROR == err) { NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting Result. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); success = NO; } else { success = YES; } sqlite3_finalize(insertResultStatement); insertResultStatement = nil; } } sqlite3_close(database); return success;} The command sqlite3_step is always giving err as 19. I'm not able to understand where's the issue. Tables are created using following queries: CREATE TABLE [Patient] (PID integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT UNIQUE,PFirstName text NOT NULL,PLastName text,PSex text NOT NULL,PDOB text NOT NULL,PEducation text NOT NULL,PHandedness text,PType text) CREATE TABLE PatientResult(PID INTEGER,PFreeScore INTEGER NOT NULL,PForcedScore INTEGER NOT NULL,FOREIGN KEY (PID) REFERENCES Patient(PID)) I've only one entry in Patient table with PID = 1 BOOL createStatement(const char* query, sqlite3_stmt** stmt, sqlite3* database){ BOOL res = (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, query, -1, stmt, NULL) == SQLITE_OK); if(!res) NSLog( @"Error while creating %s => '%s'", query, sqlite3_errmsg(database)); return res;}

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Adding new records in Access without wrecking the form

- by Matt Parker

I'm working on a simple Access 2003 application to keep track of things that need to be done for clients for some colleagues. Each colleague has a set of clients, and each client has a set of actions that need to be taken by a certain date. I've set up a form that consists of a combobox for client ID (indexed), a drop-down for the person who is handling that client's case, and a button for adding new clients (a standard Access-created Add Record button). The actions are listed in a subform below these three elements. The problem I've run into is that the first person I tested this on clicked the button to add a new record, then didn't fill it out and tried to select another client from the drop-down list. Access interprets this as an attempt to set the selected Client ID as the ID for the new record and rightfully throws an error for duplicate primary keys. I can think of a couple of ways around this problem, but I'd much rather hear your elegant solutions than kludge together some junk in a language I don't know. Let me know if you have any questions. Thank you.

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JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

- by Shivago

Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

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How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

- by Utensil

thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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mySQL select and group by values

- by Foo

I'd like to count and group rows by specific values. This seems fairly simple, but I can't seem to do it. I have a table set up similar to this: Table: Ratings id pID uID rating 1 1 2 7 2 1 7 7 3 1 5 4 4 1 1 1 id is the primary key, piD and uID are foreign-keys. Rating contains values between 1 and 10, and only between 1 and 10. I want to run some statistics and count the number of ratings with a certain value. In the example above, two have left a rating of 7. So I wrote the following query: SELECT COUNT(*) AS 'count' , 'rating' FROM 'ratings' WHERE pID= '1' GROUP BY `rating` ORDER BY `rating` Which yields the nice result as: count ratings 1 1 1 4 2 7 I'd like to get the mySQL query to include values between 1 and 10 as well. For example: Desired Result count ratings 1 1 0 2 0 3 1 4 0 5 0 6 2 7 0 8 0 9 0 10 Unfortunately, I'm relatively new to SQL and I've been reading through everything I could get my hands on for the past hour, but I can't get it to work. I've been leaning along the lines of a some type of JOIN. If anyone can point me in the right direction, it'd be appreciated. Thanks.

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Capacity Allocation

- by user1708730

I am new to VB in Excel. I have a unique requirement for capacity allocation which I want to automate using excel VB and facing hard time doing so, hope you can help. The objective is to maximize profit by allocating maximum capacity to those products which have highest profit potential first. Every Month I get demand along with backlogs of previous month. I need to allocate capacity to backlogs of previous month first and then only the remaining capacity for fresh demand. There are two primary constraints: 1.The number of working days in a month (variable) 2. Not all products can be made on every production line and out of same product may be different for each production line Also there will be losses whenever there is a change over from one SKU to another depending upon the Variant Type and size of next product. If there is variant change then 8 hours of production loss needs to be accounted and 4 hours in case of size change(8 hours in case of both). I have attached sample data(Actual data has 10 production lines and 50 products) https://rapidshare.com/files/1822719405/Sample%20Data.xlsx?bin=1 Thanks in advance for help!

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Entity framework self referencing loop detected

- by Lyd0n

I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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JQueryMobile 1.1.1 List items not anchoring to the left

- by user1664935

I'm trying to create a simple thumbnail list, the code is pretty much copied off jqm docs pages. However, when I use the code below the button element of the list isn't anchored to the left of the list item and instead appears centered...Can anyone help me? It's driving me crazy! I haven't got any styles in other than what is in the jquerymobile default page template <div id="listDiv" class="ui-content" data-role="main"> <div id="listInformation" data-role="content-primary"> <ul id="swipeMeChildrenList" data-role="listview" class="ui-listview"> <li data-corners="false" data-shadow="false" data-iconshadow="true" data-wrapperels="div" data-icon="arrow-r" data-iconpos="right" data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-icon-right ui-li-has-arrow ui-li ui-btn-up-c"> <div class="ui-btn-inner ui-li"> <div class="ui-btn-text"> <a href="index.html" class="ui-link-inherit"> <img src="images/album-p.jpg" class="ui-li-thumb"> <p>Ha</p> </a> </div> <span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrow-r ui-icon-shadow"> </span> </div> </li> </ul> </div> </div>

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How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

- by ChiggenWingz

Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

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Rails : can't write unknown attribute `url'

- by user2954789

I am new to ruby on rails,and I am learning by creating a blog. I am not able to save to my blogs table and I get this error "can't write unknown attribute url" Blogs migration :db/migrate/ class CreateBlogs < ActiveRecord::Migration --def change --- create_table :blogs do |t| ---- t.string :title ---- t.text :description ---- t.string :slug ---- t.timestamps --- end --end end Blogs Model :/app/models/blogs.rb class Blogs < ActiveRecord::Base --acts_as_url :title --def to_param ---url --end --validates :title, presence:true end Blogs Controller : /app/controllers/blogs_controller.rb class BlogsController < ApplicationController before_action :require_login --def new --- @blogs = Blogs.new --end --def show ---@blogs = Blogs.find(params[:id]) --end --def create ---@blogs = Blogs.new(blogs_params) --if @blogs.save ---flash[:success] = "Your Blog has been created." ---redirect_to home_path --else ---render 'new' --end -end --def blogs_params ---params.require(:blogs).permit(:title,:description) --end private --def require_login ---unless signed_in? ----flash[:error] = "You must be logged in to create a new Blog" ----redirect_to signin_path ---end --end end Blogs Form:/app/views/blogs/new.html.erb Blockquote <%= form_for @blogs, url: blogs_path do |f| %><br/> <%= render 'shared/error_messages_blogs' %><br/> <%= f.label :title %><br/> <%= f.text_field :title %><br/> <%= f.label :description %><br/> <%= f.text_area :description %><br/> <%= f.submit "Submit Blog", class: "btn btn-large btn-primary" %><br/> <% end %><br/> and I have also added "resources :blogs" to my routes.rb file. I get this error in controller at if @blogs.save

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AngularJS not validating email field in form

- by idipous

I have the html below where I have a form that I want to submit to the AngularJS Controller. <div class="newsletter color-1" id="subscribe" data-ng-controller="RegisterController"> <form name="registerForm"> <div class="col-md-6"> <input type="email" placeholder="[email protected]" data-ng-model="userEmail" required class="subscribe"> </div> <div class="col-md-2"> <button data-ng-click="register()" class="btn btn-primary pull-right btn-block">Subsbcribe</button> </div> </form> </div> And the controller is below app.controller('RegisterController', function ($scope,dataFactory) { $scope.users = dataFactory.getUsers(); $scope.register = function () { var userEmail = $scope.userEmail; dataFactory.insertUser(userEmail); $scope.userEmail = null; $scope.ThankYou = "Thank You!"; } }); The problem is that no validation is taking place when I click the button. It is always routed to the controller although I do not supply a correct email. So every time I click the button I get the {{ThankYou}} variable displayed. Maybe I do not understand something.

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ActionScript 3.0 Color Output Error?

- by TheDarkIn1978

I'm employing color in a current AS3 project, and have come across what appears to be an error in the Flash Player (version 10). it might also be an error with Apple's DigitalColor Meter (version 3.7.2), which is what i'm using to sample the displayed colors on Mac OS X Snow Leopard (version 10.6.3). //Primary, secondary, and tertiary colors of the RGB color wheel var red:Number = 0xFF0000; var orange:Number = 0xFF7D00; var yellow:Number = 0xFFFF00; var chartreuse:Number = 0x7DFF00; var green:Number = 0x00FF00; var spring:Number = 0x00FF7D; var cyan:Number = 0x00FFFF; var azure:Number = 0x007DFF; //reads 0x0077FF var blue:Number = 0x0000FF; var violet:Number = 0x7D00FF; var magenta:Number = 0xFF00FF; //reads 0xFF00F8 var rose:Number = 0xFF007D; //reads 0xFF0077 all of these colors display normally except for 3: Azure, Magenta and Rose. they are coded with the appropriate number, but when i use the color meter to sample the displayed colors, those 3 return inaccurate results. anyone have any insight about this issue? what is causing the error, the Flash runtime or the color sampler? if it's the Flash player, could this problem be much deeper? *sampling this image will return inaccurate results due to .jpg compression. it's simply for illustration

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Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

- by Lail

I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "ÃšbeÂ® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

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Index question: Select * with WHERE clause. Where and how to create index

- by Mestika

Hi, I’m working on optimizing some of my queries and I have a query that states: select * from SC where c_id ="+c_id” The schema of ** SC** looks like this: SC ( c_id int not null, date_start date not null, date_stop date not null, r_t_id int not null, nt int, t_p decimal, PRIMARY KEY (c_id, r_t_id, date_start, date_stop)); My immediate bid on how the index should be created is a covering index in this order: INDEX(c_id, date_start, date_stop, nt, r_t_id, t_p) The reason for this order I base on: The WHERE clause selects from c_id thus making it the first sorting order. Next, the date_start and date_stop to specify a sort of “range” to be defined in these parameters Next, nt because it will select the nt Next the r_t_id because it is a ID for a specific type of my r_t table And last the t_p because it is just a information. I don’t know if it is at all necessary to order it in a specific way when it is a SELECT ALL statement. I should say, that the SC is not the biggest table. I can say how many rows it contains but a estimate could be between <10 and 1000. The next thing to add is, that the SC, in different queries, inserts the data into the SC, and I know that indexes on tables which have insertions can be cost ineffective, but can I somehow create a golden middle way to effective this performance. Don't know if it makes a different but I'm using IBM DB2 version 9.7 database Sincerely Mestika

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Has anyone ever had OpenCV work with Python 2.7 on MacOS 10.6?

- by ?????

I've been trying on and off for the past 6 months to get OpenCV to work with Python on MacOS. Every time there's a new release, I try again and fail. I've tried both 64-bit and 32-bit, and both the xcode gcc and gcc installed via macports. I just spend the past two days on it, hopeful that the latest OpenCV release, that appears to include Python support directly would work. It doesn't. I've also tried and failed to use this: http://code.google.com/p/pyopencv/ I've been using OpenCV with C++ or Microsoft C++/CLI for the past few years, but I'd love to use it with Python on a Mac because that is my primary development environment. I'd love to hear from anyone who's actually been able to get the opencv python examples to run under Mac OS 10.6, either 32 or 64-bit. My last attempt was to follow the instructions on this page http://recursive-design.com/blog/2010/12/14/face-detection-with-osx-and-python/ with a clean, fresh install of 10.6 on a 64-bit capable Mac. My PYTHONPATH is set, and I can see the cv library in it. But an "import cv" from python fails. Previously, the closest I've ever gotten (again, staring on a clean, fresh 10.6 install) was this: Python 2.7.1 (r271:86882M, Nov 30 2010, 10:35:34) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5664)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import cv Fatal Python error: Interpreter not initialized (version mismatch?) Abort trap thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ I've seen a lot of folks answering similar questions here, but have never seen an definitive answer for it.

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MySQL PHP | "SELECT FROM table" using "alphanumeric"-UUID. Speed vs. Indexed Integer / Indexed Char

- by dropson

At the moment, I select rows from 'table01' using: SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE UUID = 'whatever'; The UUID column is a unique index. I know this isn't the fastest way to select data from the database, but the UUID is the only row-identifier that is available to the front-end. Since I have to select by UUID, and not ID, I need to know what of these two options I should go for, if say the table consists of 100'000 rows. What speed differences would I look at, and would the index for the UUID grow to large, and lag the DB? Get the ID before doing the "big" select 1. $id = "SELECT ID FROM table01 WHERE UUID = '{alphanumeric character}'"; 2. $rows = SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE ID = $id; Or keep it the way it is now, using the UUID. 1. SELECT FROM table01 WHERE UUID '{alphanumeric character}'; Side note: All new rows are created by checking if the system generated uniqueid exists before trying to insert a new row. Keeping the column always unique. The "example" table. CREATE TABLE Table01 ( ID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, UUID char(15), name varchar(100), url varchar(255), `date` datetime ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE UNIQUE INDEX UUID ON Table01 (UUID);

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Connecting a django application to a drupal database?

- by Hans

I have a 3 - 4000 nodes in a drupal 6 installation on mysql and want to access these data through my django application. I have used manage.py inspectdb to get a skeleton of a model structure. I guess that there are good/historical reasons for drupal's database schemes, but find that there are some hard to understand structure and that there are some challenges in applying django models on the database. Some experiences this far are: node and node revision are intertwined and I solved this by using a OneToOneField (don't need the versions). This meens that the node's body gets accessible through node.vid.body, but it works. Foreign keys need to define the proper db_column to sort out the primary keys. Terms need to use an intermediary table with ManyToManyField.through. Drupal stores both the original and the thumbnailed/resized versions of any image as files in the files table. Does anyone have experiences in accessing drupal data in django? Are there better solution to for example the node <- node revision relationship? Drupal stores time/dates as unix-style timestamps in integerfields. Any recommendations? How about time zones?

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Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

- by Kettch19

I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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PHP Pass Dynamic Array name to function

- by Brad

How do I pass an array key to a function to pull up the right key's data? // The array <?php $var['TEST1'] = Array ( 'Description' => 'This is a Description', 'Version' => '1.11', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ); $var['TEST2'] = Array ( 'Description' =? 'This is the 2nd Description', 'Version' => '2.1', 'fields' => Array( 'ID' => array( 'type' => 'int', 'length' =>'11', 'misc' =>'auto_increment' ), 'DATA' => array( 'type' => 'varchar', ' length' => '255' ) ) // The function <?php $obj = 'TEST1'; print_r($schema[$obj]); // <-- Fives me output. But calling the function doesn't. echo buildStructure($obj); /** * @TODO to add auto_inc support */ function buildStructure($obj) { $output = ''; $primaryKey = $schema["{$obj}"]['primary key']; foreach ($schema["{$obj}"]['fields'] as $name => $tag) // #### ERROR #### Invalid argument supplied for foreach() { $type = $tag['type']; $length = $tag['length']; $default = $tag['default']; $description = $tag['description']; $length = (isset($length)) ? "({$length})" : ''; $default = ($default == NULL ) ? "NULL" : $default; $output .= "`{$name}` {$type}{$length} DEFAULT {$default} COMMENT `{$DESCRIPTION}`, "; } return $output; }

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do not allow integrated windows authentication for one of the domains

- by MK

We have an ASP.NET web application which uses integrated windows authentication. It is accessed by users from two domains, A and B. A is the primary domain and B is an older domain which is going away. Web application is authenticating users using a group policy which only exists in domain A. Every user in domain B has an account in domain A. The application lives in domain A. There was no trust between the domains. So users from domain A would get silently authenticated and logged into the site. Users from domain B didn't get authenticated automatically and were prompted with the IE popup, to which they authenticated using their domain A credentials and everything worked. Now somebody has set up a trust between the domains and users from domain B get authenticated silently to IIS, and then their login fails (no group policy). So the question is: can I either programmatically or in IIS configuration make it so that users from domain B still get prompted even though there is trust between the domains? Is there a way to tell the server where IIS is running to ignore the trust relationship maybe?

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Slow query. Wrong database structure?

- by Tin

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What's a good way to write batch scripts in C#?

- by Scott Bilas

I would like to write simple scripts in C#. Stuff I would normally use .bat or 4NT .btm files for. Copying files, parsing text, asking user input, and so on. Fairly simple but doing this stuff right in a batch file is really hard (no exceptions for example). I'm familiar with command line "scripting" wrappers like AxScript so that gets me part of the way there. What I'm missing is the easy file-manipulation framework. I want to be able to do cd(".."), copy(srcFile, destFile) type functionality. Tools I have tried: NANT, which we use in our build process. Not a good scripting tool. Insanely verbose XML syntax and to add a simple function you must write an extension assembly. Can't do it inline. PowerShell. Looks great, but I just haven't been able to switch over to this as my primary shell. Too many differences from 4NT. Whatever I do needs to run from an ordinary command prompt and not require a special shell to run it through. Can PowerShell be used as a script executor? Perl/Python/Ruby. Really hate learning an entirely new language and framework just to do batch file operations. Haven't been able to dedicate the time I need to do this. Plus, we're a 99% .NET shop for our toolchain and I really want to leverage our existing experience and codebase. Are there frameworks out there that are trying to solve this problem of "make a batch file in C#" that you have used? I want the power of C#/.NET with the immediate-mode type functionality of a typical cmd.exe shell language. Am I alone in wanting something like this?

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Bootstrap stop Modal showing on page load

- by Subby

I only want the Modal to show when I click on a certain button. At the moment, the Modal shows itself whenever I load the page. Can someone please tell me where I am going horribly wrong? <a href="#myModal" role="button" class="btn" data-toggle="modal">Launch demo modal</a> <div class="modal" id="myModal" tabindex="-1" role="dialog" aria-labelledby="myModalLabel" aria-hidden="true"> <div class="modal-header"> <button type="button" class="close" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true">×</button> <h3 id="myModalLabel">Modal header</h3> </div> <div class="modal-body"> <p>One fine body…</p> </div> <div class="modal-footer"> <button class="btn" data-dismiss="modal" aria-hidden="true">Close</button> <button class="btn btn-primary">Save changes</button> </div> </div> I am using ASP.NET MVC 3 EDIT: I am NOT using any Javascript at the moment.

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How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

- by RememberME

I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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