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  • How to set image Tag URLs programmatically in ASP.NET C# inside of a ListView Control?

    - by loyalpenguin
    Hi, I know how you can set an tag's url attribute programmatically in c#, but it seems when I try to access the image element inside of a tag I cannot access it. The is residing in the . NOTE: I am only having this issue inside the Now the ListView tag is also databound.(this is probably why I cannot access, because it isn't guaranteed that it will even exist perhaps). How can I get around this so that I can display my images programmatically or is there a better solution? Here's the source: <asp:ListView ID="ListView_Comments" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ReviewID,ProductID,Rating" DataSourceID="EDS_CommentsList"> <ItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#EDECB3;color: #000000;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img src='Styles/Images/ReviewRating_d<%# Eval("Rating") %>.gif' alt=""> <br /> </td> <td> <%# Eval("Comments") %> </td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> <AlternatingItemTemplate> <tr style="background-color:#F8F8F8;"> <td><%# Eval("CustomerName") %></td> <td> <img id="rateImage" src="" alt="" runat="server" /> ......

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  • getElementByTagName does not return comment nodes in javascript

    - by Sourabh
    Hi , I want to retrieve all the nodes present in particular DIV element.see the below test page (firefox) <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> New Document </TITLE> <META NAME="Generator" CONTENT="EditPlus"> <META NAME="Author" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Keywords" CONTENT=""> <META NAME="Description" CONTENT=""> <script> function processTags() { var chNodes = document.getElementById('foo').getElementsByTagName('*') ; console.log(chNodes); } </script> </HEAD> <BODY onload="processTags();"> <div id="foo"> <!-- this is a comment -->this is some text ? <span>this is inside span</span> <div><p>test</p>test<div> </div> </BODY> </HTML> But it does not give me comments tag.. what is the best way to retrieve all tags ??

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  • Which technology should I use to transform my latex documents into html documents

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hey, I want to write a little program that transforms my TeX files into HTML. I want to parse the documents and turn the macros (the build-in and of course my own) into HTML pieces. Here are my requirements: predefined rules (e.g. begin{itemize} \item text \end{itemize} = <br> <p>text </p> <br/>) defining own CSS style ability to convert formulars (extract the formulars, load them in an imagecreator and then save the jpg/png) easy to maintain and concise I know there are several technologies out there, but I don't exactly know which is the best for me. Here are the technologies which flow into my mind Ruby (I/O is easy, formular loading via webrat), XML XSLT (I don't think that I need just overhead) perl (there are many libs out there but I'm not quite familiar with it) bash (I worked with sed and was surprised how easy it was to work with regular expressions) latex2html ... (these converters won't work for me and they don't give me freedom in parsing) Any suggestions, hints and comments are welcome. Thanks for your time, folks.

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  • PHP gettext on Windows

    - by Axsuul
    There's some tutorials out there for gettext (w/ Poedit)... unfortunately, it's mostly for a UNIX environment. And even more unfortunate is that I am running my WAMP server on Windows XP (but I am developing for a UNIX environment) and none of the tutorials can get gettext working properly for me. From the man page (http://us3.php.net/manual/en/book.gettext.php), it appears that it's a different process on a Windows environment. I've tried out some of the solutions in the comments but I still can't get it to work! Please, I've spent many hours on this, hopefully someone can point me in the right direction to get this thing to work! (and I'm sure there are others out there who share my frustration). So far with my setup, I'm only getting output "Hello World!" whereas I should be getting the translated string. Here is my setup/code so far: <?php // test.php if (!defined('LC_MESSAGES')) { define('LC_MESSAGES', 6); } $locale = "deu_DEU"; // apparently the locales are different on a WINDOWS platform putenv("LC_ALL=$locale"); setlocale(LC_ALL, $locale); bindtextdomain("greetings", ".\locale"); textdomain("greetings"); echo _("Hello World"); ?> Folder structure root: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www test.php: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site .po: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.po .mo: C:\Program Files\WampServer 2\www\site\locale\deu_DEU\LC_MESSAGES\greetings.mo Please advise! Thanks for your time :)

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  • Why does Android allocate more memory than needed when loading images

    - by Simon
    Folks, I don't think that this is a duplicate and is NOT one of those how do I avoid OOMs questions. This is a genuine quest for knowledge so hold off on those down votes please... Imagine I have a JPEG of 500x500 pixels. I load it as ARGB_8888 which is as "bad as it gets". I would expect Android to allocate 500x500x4 bytes = a little under 1MB however, look at a heap dump and you will see that Android allocates significantly more, often factors of 5-10 times greater. You frequently see questions on here about OOMS where the stack trace shows a heap request of say 15MB and it is ALWAYS much larger than is required simply to hold the bytes of the image. The OP usually catches some downvotes then is bombarded with stock answers and comments about using less memory (thanks Romain!) and in scaling. I think there is more than meets the eye here. Anybody know why this is? If there is no apparent answer, I will put together an SSCCE if it helps. PS. I assume that JPEG vs PNG etc is irrelevant since we're talking about the memory usage of the backing bitmap which is simply x times y times BPP - or am I being slow?

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  • Preventing a heavy process from sinking in the swap file

    - by eran
    Our service tends to fall asleep during the nights on our client's server, and then have a hard time waking up. What seems to happen is that the process heap, which is sometimes several hundreds of MB, is moved to the swap file. This happens at night, when our service is not used, and others are scheduled to run (DB backups, AV scans etc). When this happens, after a few hours of inactivity the first call to the service takes up to a few minutes (consequent calls take seconds). I'm quite certain it's an issue of virtual memory management, and I really hate the idea of forcing the OS to keep our service in the physical memory. I know doing that will hurt other processes on the server, and decrease the overall server throughput. Having that said, our clients just want our app to be responsive. They don't care if nightly jobs take longer. I vaguely remember there's a way to force Windows to keep pages on the physical memory, but I really hate that idea. I'm leaning more towards some internal or external watchdog that will initiate higher-level functionalities (there is already some internal scheduler that does very little, and makes no difference). If there were a 3rd party tool that provided that kind of service is would have been just as good. I'd love to hear any comments, recommendations and common solutions to this kind of problem. The service is written in VC2005 and runs on Windows servers.

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  • Another IE jQuery AJAX/post problem..

    - by Azzyh
    OK so i have this website, http://www.leinstein.dk. You will see "Hello World!" This is from ok.php, ive made a script that refreshes ok.php after 10 seconds. Anyways, This does not show in IE. I dont know why, and i hope you can help me out. Here's My script: function ajax_update() { cache: false /* var wrapperId = '#wtf'; */ var postFile = 'ok.php'; $.post("ok.php", function(data){ cache: false $("#wtf").html(data); }); setTimeout('ajax_update()', 10000); } And here's index.php: <? header("cache-control: no-cache"); ?> <html> <head> <link href="style.css" type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="ajax_framework.js" language="javascript" charset="UTF-8"></script> </head> <!-- AJAX UPDATE COMMENTS BEGIN --> <body onload="ajax_update();"> <!-- AJAX UPDATE END --> <br> <div id="wtf"></div> </body> </html> Thank you in forward..!

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  • Optimizing T-SQL where an array would be nice

    - by Polatrite
    Alright, first you'll need to grab a barf bag. I've been tasked with optimizing several old stored procedures in our database. This SP does the following: 1) cursor loops through a series of "buildings" 2) cursor loops through a week, Sunday-Saturday 3) has a huge set of IF blocks that are responsible for counting how many Objects of what Types are present in a given building Essentially what you'll see in this code block is that, if there are 5 objects of type #2, it will increment @Type_2_Objects_5 by 1. IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_0 = @Type_1_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_1 = @Type_1_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_2 = @Type_1_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_3 = @Type_1_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_1] IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_0 = @Type_2_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_1 = @Type_2_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_2 = @Type_2_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_3 = @Type_2_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_2] In addition to being extremely hacky (and limited to a quantity of 20 objects), it seems like a terrible way of handling this. In a traditional language, this could easily be solved with a 2-dimensional array... objects[type][quantity] += 1; I'm a T-SQL novice, but since writing stored procedures often uses a lot of temporary tables (which could essentially be a 2-dimensional array) I was wondering if someone could illuminate a better way of handling a situation like this with two dynamic pieces of data to store. Requested in comments: The columns are simply Number_Type_1_Objects, Number_Type_2_Objects, Number_Type_3_Objects, Number_Type_4_Objects, Number_Type_5_Objects, and CurrentDateTime. Each row in the table represents 5 minutes. The expected output is to figure out what percentage of time a given quantity of objects is present throughout each day. Sunday - Object Type 1 0 objects - 69 rows, 5:45, 34.85% 1 object - 85 rows, 7:05, 42.93% 2 objects - 44 rows, 3:40, 22.22% On Sunday, there were 0 objects of type 1 for 34.85% of the day. There was 1 object for 42.93% of the day, and 2 objects for 22.22% of the day. Repeat for each object type.

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  • Mysql random rows

    - by n00b
    please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

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  • Strange behaviour of NSScanner on simple whitespace removal

    - by Michael Waterfall
    I'm trying to replace all multiple whitespace in some text with a single space. This should be a very simple task, however for some reason it's returning a different result than expected. I've read the docs on the NSScanner and it seems like it's not working properly! NSScanner *scanner = [[NSScanner alloc] initWithString:@"This is a test of NSScanner !"]; NSMutableString *result = [[NSMutableString alloc] init]; NSString *temp; NSCharacterSet *whitespace = [NSCharacterSet whitespaceCharacterSet]; while (![scanner isAtEnd]) { // Scan upto and stop before any whitespace [scanner scanUpToCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:&temp]; // Add all non whotespace characters to string [result appendString:temp]; // Scan past all whitespace and replace with a single space if ([scanner scanCharactersFromSet:whitespace intoString:NULL]) { [result appendString:@" "]; } } But for some reason the result is @"ThisisatestofNSScanner!" instead of @"This is a test of NSScanner !". If you read through the comments and what each line should achieve it seems simple enough!? scanUpToCharactersFromSet should stop the scanner just as it encounters whitespace. scanCharactersFromSet should then progress the scanner past the whitespace up to the non-whitespace characters. And then the loop continues to the end. What am I missing or not understanding?

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  • Generic validate input data via regex. Input error when match.count == 0

    - by Valamas
    Hi, I have a number of types of data fields on an input form, for example, a web page. Some fields are like, must be an email address, must be a number, must be a number between, must have certain characters. Basically, the list is undefinable. I wish to come up with a generic way of validating the data inputed. I thought I would use regex to validate the data. The fields which need validation would be related to a "regex expression" and a "regex error message" stating what the field should contain. My current mock up has that when the match count is zero, that would signify an error and to display the message. While still a white belt regex designer I have come to understand that in certain situations that it is difficult to write a regex which results in a match count of zero for every case. A complex regex case I looked for help on was Link Here. The forum post was a disaster because I confused people helping me. But one of the statements said that it was difficult to make a regex with a match count of zero meaning the input data was invalid; that the regex was very difficult to write that for. Does anyone have comments or suggestions on this generic validation system I am trying to create? thanks

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  • Round date to 10 minutes interval

    - by Peter Lang
    I have a DATE column that I want to round to the next-lower 10 minute interval in a query (see example below). I managed to do it by truncating the seconds and then subtracting the last digit of minutes. WITH test_data AS ( SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:00:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:05:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:09:59', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2010-01-01 10:10:00', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual UNION SELECT TO_DATE('2099-01-01 10:00:33', 'YYYY-MM-DD HH24:MI:SS') d FROM dual ) -- #end of test-data SELECT d, TRUNC(d, 'MI') - MOD(TO_CHAR(d, 'MI'), 10) / (24 * 60) FROM test_data And here is the result: 01.01.2010 10:00:00    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:05:00    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:09:59    01.01.2010 10:00:00 01.01.2010 10:10:00    01.01.2010 10:10:00 01.01.2099 10:00:33    01.01.2099 10:00:00 Works as expected, but is there a better way? EDIT: I was curious about performance, so I did the following test with 500.000 rows and (not really) random dates. I am going to add the results as comments to the provided solutions. DECLARE t TIMESTAMP := SYSTIMESTAMP; BEGIN FOR i IN ( WITH test_data AS ( SELECT SYSDATE + ROWNUM / 5000 d FROM dual CONNECT BY ROWNUM <= 500000 ) SELECT TRUNC(d, 'MI') - MOD(TO_CHAR(d, 'MI'), 10) / (24 * 60) FROM test_data ) LOOP NULL; END LOOP; dbms_output.put_line( SYSTIMESTAMP - t ); END; This approach took 03.24 s.

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  • Why is my quick sort so slow?

    - by user513075
    Hello, I am practicing writing sorting algorithms as part of some interview preparation, and I am wondering if anybody can help me spot why this quick sort is not very fast? It appears to have the correct runtime complexity, but it is slower than my merge sort by a constant factor of about 2. I would also appreciate any comments that would improve my code that don't necessarily answer the question. Thanks a lot for your help! Please don't hesitate to let me know if I have made any etiquette mistakes. This is my first question here. private class QuickSort implements Sort { @Override public int[] sortItems(int[] ts) { List<Integer> toSort = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for (int i : ts) { toSort.add(i); } toSort = partition(toSort); int[] ret = new int[ts.length]; for (int i = 0; i < toSort.size(); i++) { ret[i] = toSort.get(i); } return ret; } private List<Integer> partition(List<Integer> toSort) { if (toSort.size() <= 1) return toSort; int pivotIndex = myRandom.nextInt(toSort.size()); Integer pivot = toSort.get(pivotIndex); toSort.remove(pivotIndex); List<Integer> left = new ArrayList<Integer>(); List<Integer> right = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for (int i : toSort) { if (i > pivot) right.add(i); else left.add(i); } left = partition(left); right = partition(right); left.add(pivot); left.addAll(right); return left; } }

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  • Draw a comparison between an integer in a specific row and a count

    - by XCoderX
    This is a follow-up question to this one: Check for specific integer in a row WHERE user = $name I want a user to be able to comment on my site for exactly five times a day. After this five times, the user has to wait 24 hours. In order to accomplish that I raise a counter in my MYSQL database, right next to the user. So where the name of the user is, there is where the counter gets raised. When it reaches 5 it should stop counting and reset after 24 hours. In order to check the time I use a timestamp. I check if the timestamp is older than 24 hours. If that is the case, the counter gets reseted (-5) and the user can comment again. In order to do that, I use the following code, however it never stops at five, my guess is that my comparison is wrong somehow: $counter = "SELECT FROM table VALUES CommentCounterReset WHERE Name = '$name'"; if(!isset($_SESSION['ts'])); { $_SESSION['ts'] = time(); } if ($counter >= 5) { if (time() - $_SESSION['ts'] <= 60*60*24){ echo "You already wrote five comments."; } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset-5 WHERE Name = '$name'"; } } else { $sql = "UPDATE table SET CommentCounterReset = CommentCounterReset+1 WHERE Name = '$name'"; echo "Your comment has been added."; }

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  • Ruby: counters, counting and incrementing

    - by Shyam
    Hi, If you have seen my previous questions, you'd already know I am a big nuby when it comes to Ruby. So, I discovered this website which is intended for C programming, but I thought whatever one can do in C, must be possible in Ruby (and more readable too). The challenge is to print out a bunch of numbers. I discovered this nifty method .upto() and I used a block (and actually understanding its purpose). However, in IRb, I got some unexpected behavior. class MyCounter def run 1.upto(10) { |x| print x.to_s + " " } end end irb(main):033:0> q = MyCounter.new => #<MyCounter:0x5dca0> irb(main):034:0> q.run 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 => 1 I have no idea where the = 1 comes from :S Should I do this otherwise? I am expecting to have this result: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Thank you for your answers, comments and feedback!

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  • Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?

    - by Mike
    Part of my code goes like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); Do Some Stuff; last if some condition is met; } Problem is: I want the music to be always on when I'm in the Do Some Stuff stage in the while loop. But the length of the music is so short that it will come to a full stop before I go to the next stage, so I want the music to repeat itself, but the Win32::Mediaplayer module does not seem to have a repeat mode, so I'm thinking of doing an infinite loop for the music playing part. Like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); } while(2){ Do some stuff; last if some condition is met } But based on my current Perl knowledge if I'm in the while(1) part, I can never go to the while(2) part. Even if it comes to a nested loop, I have to do something to break out of the inside loop before going to the other part of the outside loop. The answer to my question "Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?" may be a NO, but I assume there is some way of handling such situation. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks as always for any comments/suggestions :) UPDATE I really appreciate the help from everyone. Thanks :) So the answer to my question is a YES, not a NO. I'm happy that I've learned how to use fork() and threads to solve a real problem :)

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  • tiemout for a function that waits indefiinitely (like listen())

    - by Fantastic Fourier
    Hello, I'm not quite sure if it's possible to do what I'm about to ask so I thought I'd ask. I have a multi-threaded program where threads share a memory block to communicate necessary information. One of the information is termination of threads where threads constantly check for this value and when the value is changed, they know it's time for pthread_exit(). One of the threads contains listen() function and it seems to wait indefinitely. This can be problematic if there are nobody who wants to make connection and the thread needs to exit but it can't check the value whether thread needs to terminate or not since it's stuck on listen() and can't move beyond. while(1) { listen(); ... if(value == 1) pthread_exit(NULL); } My logic is something like that if it helps illustrate my point better. What I thought would solve the problem is to allow listen() to wait for a duration of time and if nothing happens, it moves on to next statement. Unfortunately, none of two args of listen() involves time limit. I'm not even sure if I'm going about the right way with multi-threaded programming, I'm not much experienced at all. So is this a good approach? Perhaps there is a better way to go about it? Thanks for any insightful comments.

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  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • Problems breaking out of nested loops

    - by user1040281
    I have problems breaking out off these nested loops correctly. What the code is trying to do is to indicate that a customer has rented a certain movie. Both the movie and customer are compared to properties of arraylist objects and then if all checks out the name property and ID property of a movie object are added as a string to another arraylist. All this works correctly as long as I use the first movie (from movies) and the first customer (from customers) but if I try renting other movies further down my arraylist with other customers then it adds the rented movie to the customerRentedMovies arraylist but prints out the "else message". I figure I need to break out of the foreach(blabla) loops aswell? or could goto be used? Comments was removed (looked kinda messy, can explain further if needed) public void RentMovie(string titel, int movieID, string name, int customerID) { foreach (Customer customer in customers) { if (name == customer.Name && customerID == customer.CustomerID) { foreach (MovieInfo movie in movies) { if (titel == movie.Titel && movieID == movie.MovieID) { movie.rented = true; string rentedMovie = string.Format("{0} ID: {1}", movie.Titel, movie.MovieID); customer.customerRentedMovies.Add(rentedMovie); break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No movie with that titel and ID!"); } } break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No customer with that ID and name"); } } }

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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  • Can anyone explain this strange behaviour?

    - by partizan
    Hi, guys. Here is the example with comments: class Program { // first version of structure public struct D1 { public double d; public int f; } // during some changes in code then we got D2 from D1 // Field f type became double while it was int before public struct D2 { public double d; public double f; } static void Main(string[] args) { // Scenario with the first version D1 a = new D1(); D1 b = new D1(); a.f = b.f = 1; a.d = 0.0; b.d = -0.0; bool r1 = a.Equals(b); // gives true, all is ok // The same scenario with the new one D2 c = new D2(); D2 d = new D2(); c.f = d.f = 1; c.d = 0.0; d.d = -0.0; bool r2 = c.Equals(d); // false! this is not the expected result } } So, what do you think about this?

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  • reading newlines with FORMAT statement

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I'm writing a preprocessor and postprocessor for Fortran input and output using FORMAT-like statements (there are reasons not to use a FORTRAN library). I want to treat the new line ("/") character correctly. I don't have a Fortran compiler immediately to hand. Is there a simple algorithm for working out how many newlines are written or consumed (This post just gives reading examples) [Please assume a FORTRAN77-like mentality in the FORTRAN code and correct any FORTRAN syntax on my part] UPDATE: no comments yet so I am reduced to finding a compiler and running it myself. I'll post the answers if I'm not beaten to it. No-one commented I had the format syntax wrong. I've changed it but there may still be errors Assume datafile 1 a b c d etc... (a) does the READ command always consume a newline? does READ(1, '(A)') A READ(1, '(A)') B give A='a' and B='b' (b) what does READ(1,'(A,/)') A READ(1,'(A)') B give for B? (I would assume 'c') (c) what does READ(1, '(/)') READ(1, '(A)') A give for A (is it 'b' or 'c') (d) what does READ(1,'(A,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'b' and 'c') (e) what does READ(1,'(A,/,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'c' and 'd')? Are there any cases in which the '/' is redundant?

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  • Unable to use certain Fonts programatically in ASP.Net

    - by TooFat
    I am trying to programatically create a bitmap with a specified font in ASP.Net. The idea is that the text, font name, size color etc. will be passed in from variables and a bitmap of the text using the font etc will be returned. However, I have been finding that I am only able to do so using the following code with certain fonts. <div> <% string fontName = "Segoe Script"; //Change Font here System.Drawing.Bitmap bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(100, 100); System.Drawing.Graphics graph = System.Drawing.Graphics.FromImage(bmp); System.Drawing.Font fnt = new System.Drawing.Font(fontName, 20); System.Drawing.SolidBrush brush = new System.Drawing.SolidBrush(System.Drawing.Color.Red); graph.DrawString("Help", fnt, brush, new System.Drawing.Point(10, 10)); bmp.Save(@"C:\Development\Path\image1.bmp"); this.Image1.ImageUrl = "http://mysite/Images/image1.bmp"; %> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" Font-Names="Segoe Script"> <%Response.Write("Help"); %></asp:Label> //Change font here <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" /> </div> If I change the font name in the areas indicated by the comments to Arial or Verdana both the image and the label appear with the correct font. If however, I change the font name in both locations to something "Segoe Script" the Label will show up in Segoe Script but the image is in what looks like Arial.

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  • when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

    - by SARAVAN
    HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

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