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• Tagging in Subversion - how do I make the decision about continuing to work on my trunk vs. the new

  - by Howiecamp

  I'm running Tortoise SVN to manage a project. Obviously the principles around tagging apply to any implementation of SVN but in this question I'll be referring to some TortoiseSVN-specific dialog boxes and messages. My working directory and the subversion repository structure both have a Source root directory and the Trunk, Tags and Branches directories underneath. (I couldn't figure out how to do a multilevel indented hierarchy in markdown without using bullets, so if someone could edit and fix this I'd appreciate it.) I'm working out of the Trunk directory in my working copy and it's pointing at the Trunk directory in the repo. I want to apply a Tag "Release1" so I click the "Branch/tag..." menu option and set the repo path as my [repo_path/bla/Source/Tags/Release1" tag. This dialog box gives me the option to "Switch my working copy to new branch/tag". I understand that if this option is left unchecked, the new "Release1" branch under /Tags" will be created but my working copy will remain on the previous "Trunk" path. If I do check this option (or use the Switch command) I understand that my working copy will switch to the new "Release1" branch under "/Tags". Where I'm missing a concept is how to make this decision. It doesn't seem like I want to switch my working directory to the recently created tag since by definition (?) I want that tag to be a snapshot of my code as of a point in time. If I don't switch the working directory, I'll continue working off Trunk and when I'm ready to take another snapshot I'll make another tag. And so on... Am I understanding this right or am I stating something incorrectly in the previous paragraph (e.g. the statement about not wanting to switch to the tag since the tag should represent a point in time snapshot) or otherwise missing something regarding how to make this decision?

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• Android lifecycle of thread-based game

  - by ehehhh

  I ran into a bit of trouble while trying to get my game to work correctly after being put to the background by the user or a phone call for example. My app has a SurfaceView class called GameView, which has the onDraw() method to do all the necessary drawing for my game and two threads - one for calling the onDraw() and one for doing the necessary calculations for the game's logic. I succesfully implemented onPause() and onResume(). (I paused both threads when back button was pressed and resumed them after user cancelled in the AlertDialog.) Now I would like to have the game paused the same way when onStop() gets called. I put both threads on pause and saved my characters location in the savedInstanceState, but when I start my app again, no method gets called (I checked with Logcat). I believe onRestart() should be called first, then onStart() and then onResume(), but none of that happens. What am I doing wrong? (Didn't include any code, because it seems to be a problem of me not understanding the lifecycle, not a problem in code. If it seems necessary, I'll post the parts you request.)

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• How do I loop through elements inside a div?

  - by crosenblum

  I have to make a custom function for search/replace text, because firefox counts text nodes differently than IE, Google Chrome, etc.. I am trying to use this code, that I saw at Firefox WhiteSpace Issue since in my other function, I am looping numerically through nodes, which serves my functional needs perfectly, in other browsers. But refuses to work, as part of a search/replace function that takes place after some ajax content is loaded. Here is the code, that I have tried to get to work, but I must be missing the correct understanding of the context of how to loop thru elements inside a div. // get all childnodes inside div function div_translate(divid) { // list child nodes of parent if (divid != null) { // var children = parent.childNodes, child; var parentNode = divid; // start loop thru child nodes for(var node=parentNode.firstChild;node!=null;node=node.nextSibling){ // begin check nodeType if(node.nodeType == 1){ // get value of this node var value = content(node); // get class of this node var myclass = node.attr('class'); console.log(myclass); // begin check if value undefined if (typeof(value) != 'undefined' && value != null) { console.log(value); // it is a text node. do magic. for (var x = en_count; x > 0; x--) { // get current english phrase var from = en_lang[x]; // get current other language phrase var to = other_lang[x]; if (value.match(from)) { content(node, value.replace(from, to)); } } } // end check if value undefined } // end check nodeType } // end loop thru child nodes } }

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• In-order tree traversal

  - by Chris S

  I have the following text from an academic course I took a while ago about in-order traversal (they also call it pancaking) of a binary tree (not BST): In-order tree traversal Draw a line around the outside of the tree. Start to the left of the root, and go around the outside of the tree, to end up to the right of the root. Stay as close to the tree as possible, but do not cross the tree. (Think of the tree — its branches and nodes — as a solid barrier.) The order of the nodes is the order in which this line passes underneath them. If you are unsure as to when you go “underneath” a node, remember that a node “to the left” always comes first. Here's the example used (slightly different tree from below) However when I do a search on google, I get a conflicting definition. For example the wikipedia example: Inorder traversal sequence: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I (leftchild,rootnode,right node) But according to (my understanding of) definition #1, this should be A, B, D, C, E, F, G, I, H Can anyone clarify which definition is correct? They might be both describing different traversal methods, but happen to be using the same name. I'm having trouble believing the peer-reviewed academic text is wrong, but can't be certain.

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• directory resource does not create directory

  - by Dan Tenenbaum

  I have a Vagrantfile that provisions a VM by running a chef recipe. The first resource in the chef recipe is: directory "/downloads" do owner "root" group "root" mode "0755" action :create end # check that it worked: raise "/downloads doesn't exist!" unless File.exists? "/downloads" When I run this at work, it works fine. When I run it at home, it fails, the exception is raised when I check to see if /downloads exists. I'm not sure why this is happening. I would expect it to behave identically, since the underlying Vagrant box is the same both at work and at home. I am a chef newb so perhaps there is something I am not understanding about the order in which the resources are run within my recipe? I would expect them to run in sequential order... I also tried putting a notifies call inside the directory block, where I call another execute block :immediately. That works, but inside the second execute block I test to see whether /downloads has been created and it hasn't. Clearly I'm missing something very basic.

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• starting a windows executable via batch script, exe not in Program Files

  - by Anthony

  This is probably batch scripting 101, but I can't find any clear explanation/documentation on why this is happening or if my workaround is actually the solution. So basically any terminology or links to good sources is really appreciated. So I have a program I want to execute via batch script (along with several other programs). It's the only one where the exe is not in a Program Files folder. I can get it to start like this: C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe But I get an error along the lines of: Run-time Error '3024': Could not find file C:\Users\MyUserName\Desktop\ModuleSettings.mdb So it seems that the program is looking for its settings files from the same location that the batch script starts up. Given that I finally got everything to work by doing the following: cd C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\ weirdmodule.exe That works fine, and it's not the end of the world to have to go this route (just one extra line), but I've convinced myself that I'm doing something wrong based on lack of basic understanding. Anybody know or can point me to why it works this way? Oh, and doing the following: start "C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe" doesn't do anything at all. Thanks,

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• MS SQL - Multi-Column substring matching

  - by hamlin11

  One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Passing Extras and screen rotation

  - by Luis A. Florit

  This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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• Are .NET's regular expressions Turing complete?

  - by Robert

  Regular expressions are often pointed to as the classical example of a language that is not Turning complete. For example "regular expressions" is given in as the answer to this SO question looking for languages that are not Turing complete. In my, perhaps somewhat basic, understanding of the notion of Turning completeness, this means that regular expressions cannot be used check for patterns that are "balanced". Balanced meaning have an equal number of opening characters as closing characters. This is because to do this would require you to have some kind of state, to allow you to match the opening and closing characters. However the .NET implementation of regular expressions introduces the notion of a balanced group. This construct is designed to let you backtrack and see if a previous group was matched. This means that a .NET regular expressions: ^(?<p>a)*(?<-p>b)*(?(p)(?!))$ Could match a pattern that: ab aabb aaabbb aaaabbbb ... etc. ... Does this means .NET's regular expressions are Turing complete? Or are there other things that are missing that would be required for the language to be Turing complete?

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• Storing a jpa entity where only the timestamp changes results in updates rather than inserts (desire

  - by David Schlenk

  I have a JPA entity that stores a fk id, a boolean and a timestamp: @Entity public class ChannelInUse implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(nullable = false) private Channel channel; private boolean inUse = false; @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date inUseAt = new Date(); ... } I want every new instance of this entity to result in a new row in the table. For whatever reason no matter what I do it always results in the row getting updated with a new timestamp value rather than creating a new row. Even tried to just use a native query to run an insert but channel's ID wasn't populated yet so I gave up on that. I've tried using an embedded id class consisting of channel.getId and inUseAt. My equals and hashcode for are: public boolean equals(Object obj){ if(this == obj) return true; if(!(obj instanceof ChannelInUse)) return false; ChannelInUse ciu = (ChannelInUse) obj; return ( (this.inUseAt == null ? ciu.inUseAt == null : this.inUseAt.equals(ciu.inUseAt)) && (this.inUse == ciu.inUse) && (this.channel == null ? ciu.channel == null : this.channel.equals(ciu.channel)) ); } /** * hashcode generated from at, channel and inUse properties. */ public int hashCode(){ int hash = 1; hash = hash * 31 + (this.inUseAt == null ? 0 : this.inUseAt.hashCode()); hash = hash * 31 + (this.channel == null ? 0 : this.channel.hashCode()); if(inUse) hash = hash * 31 + 1; else hash = hash * 31 + 0; return hash; } } I've tried using hibernate's Entity annotation with mutable=false. I'm probably just not understanding what makes an entity unique or something. Hit the google pretty hard but can't figure this one out.

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• Javascript Closures, Callbacks, This and That

  - by nazbot

  I am having some trouble getting a callback function to work. Here is my code: SomeObject.prototype.refreshData = function() { var read_obj = new SomeAjaxCall("read_some_data", { }, this.readSuccess, this.readFail); } SomeObject.prototype.readSuccess = function(response) { this.data = response; this.someList = []; for (var i = 0; i < this.data.length; i++) { var systemData = this.data[i]; var system = new SomeSystem(systemData); this.someList.push(system); } this.refreshList(); } Basically SomeAjaxCall is making an ajax request for data. If it works we use the callback 'this.readSuccess' and if it fails 'this.readFail'. I have figured out that 'this' in the SomeObject.readSuccess is the global this (aka the window object) because my callbacks are being called as functions and not member methods. My understanding is that I need to use closures to keep the 'this' around, however, I have not been able to get this to work. If someone is able show me what I should be doing I would appreciate it greatly. I am still wrapping my head around how closures work and specifically how they would work in this situation. Thanks!

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• SSL + Jquery + Ajax

  - by chobo2

  Hi I starting too look at a bit of security into my site. My site I would consider a very low security risk as it has really no personal information from the user other than email. However the security risk will go up a bit as I am partnering with a company and the initial password for this companies users will be the same password they use essentially to get onto the network and every piece of software. So I have up my security( what is fine by me...I wanted to get around to this anyways). So one of my security concerns is this. A user logs in. form submit(non ajax is done). Password is hashed & Salted and compared to one in the database. Reject or let them proceed. So this uses no jquery or ajax but is just asp.net mvc and C#. Still if my understanding is right the password is sent in clear text. So if a use SSL and I would not need to worry about that is this correct? If that is true is that all I need? Second the user can change their password at anytime. This is done through ajax. So when the password is sent it is sent in clear text( and I can verify this by looking at firebug). So if I have SSL enabled on this page is that all I need or do I need to do more? So I am just kinda confused of what I need to make the password being sent to the server(both ajax and full post ways secure). I am not sure if I need to do more then SSL or if that is enough and if it is not enough what is the next layer of security?

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• Windows Server 2008 R2 File Permissions

  - by Fly_Trap

  I’m having some problems understanding some particular file permissions behaviour. Here are the steps to reproduce: Log into the server using the default Administrator account Create a text file (testfile.txt) in C:\ProgramData containing some arbitrary text Create a new user account and make it a member of the Administrators group Log in using new account and open C:\ProgramData\testfile.txt Edit the text and try to save Upon clicking save I’m presented with the save as dialog, which indicates that i do not have the necessary permissions to edit the file. This seems odd considering that the new user account is a member of Administrators. When I view the permissions of the file I can see the there are three groups listed, System, Administrators and Users. SYSTEM and Administrators have full permissions, however, Users only has the Read & Execute and Read permissions checked. It would appear that when I open the testfile.txt from the new users account, it opens in the context of the Users group, despite being a member of Administrators, is this correct? It would certainly explain the behaviour. The reason that this is an issue for me is that if I deploy an application via 'Run as Administrator', will normal users be able to edit the text files I install to ProgramData. Is this behaviour confined to Windows server or is it the same in Vista and Win7.

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• import csv file/excel into sql database asp.net

  - by kiev

  Hi everyone! I am starting a project with asp.net visual studio 2008 / SQL 2000 (2005 in future) using c#. The tricky part for me is that the existing DB schema changes often and the import files columns will all have to me matched up with the existing db schema since they may not be one to one match on column names. (There is a lookup table that provides the tables schema with column names I will use) I am exploring different ways to approach this, and need some expert advice. Is there any existing controls or frameworks that I can leverage to do any of this? So far I explored FileUpload .NET control, as well as some 3rd party upload controls to accomplish the upload such as SlickUpload but the files uploaded should be < 500mb Next part is reading of my csv /excel and parsing it for display to the user so they can match it with our db schema. I saw CSVReader and others but for excel its more difficult since I will need to support different versions. Essentially The user performing this import will insert and/or update several tables from this import file. There are other more advance requirements like record matching but and preview of the import records, but I wish to get through understanding how to do this first. Update: I ended up using csvReader with LumenWorks.Framework for uploading the csv files.

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• Looking for a RESTful or SOAP pipeline between WordPress and InterWoven TeamSite

  - by deanpeters

  I've been Googling my brains out trying see if there's a simple way to bridge content to and from WordPress to and from TeamSite. I'm coming at this from the perspective of a WordPress developer. I see in the book "The Definitive Guide to Interwoven TeamSite" (http://bit.ly/d3z4wI) mention of objects for the Interwoven LiveSite product: com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.RSS com.interwoven.livesite.external.impl.SOAP If I understand the above objects correctly, these allow me to instantiate objects of these data types, which after populating them via various method calls, allow me to render content using com.interwoven.livesite.external.ExternalCall ... but I'm not sure. Nor do I think this approach provides me the 2-way street I seek. As it stands now, from my limited understanding, it appears that the least path of resistance is deploying Interwoven's LiveSite with the existing TeamSite implementation so content can be both consumed and rendered via RSS ... an channel which WordPress can produce and consume; the latter with plugins such as wp-o-matic and/or feedpress. So the question is, does anyone out there have experience with a SOAP or RESTful API approach to InterWoven's TeamSite? If so, can I get some direction on documentation? Or is the addition of LiveSite + RSS the most feasible 2-way channel?

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• setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

  - by Scott B

  I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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• Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

  - by Jordan S

  I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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• Copy constructor called even when returning by reference?

  - by Johnyy

  Hi, I am testing the return of local objects by reference. My original test went well but something else happens unexpected. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class MyInt { public: MyInt(int i){ value = new int(i); } ~MyInt(){ delete value; } int getValue(){ return *value; } MyInt(const MyInt &b){ cout<<"Copy"<<endl; } private: int* value; }; MyInt& returnref(){ MyInt a(10); cout<<"Returning from returnref()"<<endl; return a; } int main(){ MyInt a = returnref(); cout<<a.getValue()<<endl; return 0; } My console prints "Returning from ..." then "Copy" then a random value. My understanding of pass by reference is that it does not need to make any copy. Why is it not doing what I expected?

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• BlackBerry Deployment Strategies

  - by cagreen

  I'm new to large scale BB app deployment and I'm looking for some clarification on the various methods of deployment. Please bear with me as I'm sure there is more to it than my naive view would lead me to believe. My app is very targeted to corporate users and requires a subscription to some additional services before it can be used. In other words, it's not targeted towards the consumer market, so I'm not worried about people not being able to easily find it online. What do I need to be aware of when looking at deployment strategies? Any gotchas? From my understanding my choices are: - App World small upfront vendor fee users can easily search for and find my app billing handled by RIM 4 licensing models (static, single, pool, dynamic). Though I'm not sure I've seen enough info on the pool and dynamic to fully appreciate how it might help me. - Download from my website billing is handled by me can I enforce the number of licenses that are in use within an organization? is this easier/harder for a user? - What else am I missing?

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• JAXB code generation: how to remove a zero occurrence field?

  - by reef

  Hi all, I use JAXB 2.1 to generate Java classes from several XSD files, and I have a problem related to complex type restriction. On of the restrictions modifies the occurence configuration from minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" to minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="0". Thus this field is not needed anymore in the restricted type. But actually JAXB generates the restricted class with a [0..1] cardinality instead of 0. By the way the generation is tuned with <xjc:treatRestrictionLikeNewType / so that a XSD restriction is not mapped to a Java class inheritance. Here is an example: Here is the way a field is defined in a complex type A: <element name="qualifier" type="CR" maxOccurs="unbounded" minOccurs="0"/ Here is the way the same field is restricted in another complex type B that restricts A: <element name="qualifier" type="CR" minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="0"/ In the A generated class I have: @XmlElement(name = "qualifier") protected List<CR qualifiers; And in the B generated class I have: protected CR qualifiers; With my poor understanding of JAXB the absence of the XmlElement annotation tells JAXB not to marshall/unmarshall this field. Am I wrong? If I am right is there a way to tell JAXB not to generate the qualifiers field at all? This would be in my opinion a much better generation as it respects the constraints. Any idea, thougths on the topic? Thanks!!

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• Partial class or "chained inheritance"

  - by Charlie boy

  Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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• webpart context.session is null

  - by tbischel

  I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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• AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

  - by CRice

  It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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• PHP Session variable isset(..)=1 after session_start()

  - by Nicsoft

  Hello! I guess I am not understanding the scope of session variables, or the session itself, in PHP, hence this question: This is my code if(!session_id()==""){ echo "Getting rid of session"."</br>"; session_destroy(); } echo "Before session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])."</br>"; session_start(); echo "After session_start(): ".isset($_SESSION["first_date_of_week"])." ".$_SESSION["first_date_of_week"]->format("Y-m-d")."</br>"; The output is: Before session_start(): After session_start(): 1 2011-01-09 How come that when doing the isset(..) on the session variable it is set directly after starting the session, even though I haven't even used it or set it yet? It does, however, still have the same value as before. Also, session_id()="" since the if-clause is never triggered. I never kill the session, how come it is set to ""? I.e. I refresh the page and expects the session to still be alive. Using the isset(..) function is then pretty useless testing if it has been set already... Thanks in advance! /Niklas

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• Is it "right" to translate error messages?

  - by Iraklis

  This is somehow subjective depending on the target translation language, but bear with me for a sec. I have recently been involved in a translation project. The goal was to translate the strings of an MVC framework to the Greek language. 70% of the language strings of the framework where translated, however 30% where intentionally left out. The decision was that we will not translate error messages aimed towards the developer of the application. The reasoning behind this (in short) was: are aimed towards designers/programmers. Programmers ( and even designers :) ) should have a basic understanding of English, at least enough so they can search on it on Google if they do not know what it means. (racist?) are aimed towards the developer and in a perfect world should not be displayed to the end user of the application as they concern the inner workings of the web application itself. i.e "You must set the database name in your database config file." and perhaps most importantly, they make the life of the developer harder when he tries to get more information/help regarding the error. For example the above error yields 8 results in Google (in quotes), whereas its Greek translation yields exactly 0. I know that this depends on the popularity of the target translation language and the application itself. For example I'm guessing that there are is vast amount of documentation regarding German SAP error messages (i know, i know, SAP IS German, but you get the point), as opposed to Greek Error Messages documentation regarding random application X which has about 500 installations worldwide. So to summarize: When you develop language translation packs for your applications do you translate error messages? Do you only do for predominant languages like English/Spanish/German/French? Or do you live them intact? I'm not looking for the "right" or "correct" answer, I'm looking for a "best-practices" answer, or if this problem is defined in any "official" standard/policy that you have had experience with.

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