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  • Best ways to format LINQ queries.

    - by Aren B
    Before you ignore / vote-to-close this question, I consider this a valid question to ask because code clarity is an important topic of discussion, it's essential to writing maintainable code and I would greatly appreciate answers from those who have come across this before. I've recently run into this problem, LINQ queries can get pretty nasty real quick because of the large amount of nesting. Below are some examples of the differences in formatting that I've come up with (for the same relatively non-complex query) No Formatting var allInventory = system.InventorySources.Select(src => new { Inventory = src.Value.GetInventory(product.OriginalProductId, true), Region = src.Value.Region }).GroupBy(i => i.Region, i => i.Inventory); Elevated Formatting var allInventory = system.InventorySources .Select(src => new { Inventory = src.Value.GetInventory(product.OriginalProductId, true), Region = src.Value.Region }) .GroupBy( i => i.Region, i => i.Inventory); Block Formatting var allInventory = system.InventorySources .Select( src => new { Inventory = src.Value.GetInventory(product.OriginalProductId, true), Region = src.Value.Region }) .GroupBy( i => i.Region, i => i.Inventory ); List Formatting var allInventory = system.InventorySources .Select(src => new { Inventory = src.Value.GetInventory(product.OriginalProductId, true), Region = src.Value.Region }) .GroupBy(i => i.Region, i => i.Inventory); I want to come up with a standard for linq formatting so that it maximizes readability & understanding and looks clean and professional. So far I can't decide so I turn the question to the professionals here.

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  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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  • .NET Development of iPhone App with MonoTouch - which development environment?

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm a .NET developer (C#) with several years developing Windows Mobile Apps. I would like to get into developing iPhone Apps and MonoTouch looks good based on reviews I've read. So I'm going to go with MonoTouch. My understanding is that I'll need a new Mac, but as it happens I also need a new PC for my .NET windows development. My question is should I (a) Purchase a Mac Book Pro and dual boot with Windows 7 (b) Purchase a Mac Pro and dual boot with Windows 7 (c) Purchase a good Dev PC and a slighlty less well spec'd Mac Book Pro or Mac Pro Bear in mind I'm only doing MonoTouch development with the Mac, most of my development (approx. 80% initially) will be done on the Windows side. My budget is approx. €3,000 / $4,000 and I'd like a good, fast development environment.It's purely for development so on the windows side installing SQL 2008/VS 2010/Office and on the OS X side installing MonoTouch. BTW - my budget excludes licensing for VS/MonoTouch/etc, I have a MonoTouch and MSDN license. Any opinions are greatly appreciated. I'm a newbie to Mac's !

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  • Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

    - by user1002358
    There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

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  • iphone: re-sizing gradient after shift from portrait to landscape

    - by d_CFO
    In viewDidLoad, I can create a gradient with no problem: CAGradientLayer *blueGradient = [[CAGradientLayer layer] retain]; blueGradient.frame = CGRectMake(gradientStartX,gradientStartY,gradientWidth,gradientHeight); where gradientWith is device-defined as 320 or 1024 as appropriate. What I can’t do is resize it inside willRotateToInterfaceOrientation: -– and thus get rid of that empty black space off to the right -- after the user changes to landscape mode. (The nav bar and tab bar behave nicely.) (1) Recalibrating the gradient’s new dimensions according to the new mid-point, (2) using kCALayerMaxXMargin, and (3) employing bounds all looked like they would do the job. bounds looked a litte more intuitive, so I tried that. I don’t want to admit that I have made zero progress. I will say that I’ve been reduced to the brute force method of trying every permutation of self, view, layer, bounds, blueGradient, and CGRect(gradientStartX,gradientStartY,newGradientWidth,newGradientHeight) with zero success. This is not difficult. My lack of understanding is making it difficult. Anyone out there “Been there, done that”?

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  • Dimensions of a collection, and how to traverse it in an efficient, elegant manner

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I'm trying to find an elegant way to deal with multi-dimensional collections in Scala. My understanding is that I can have up to a 5 dimensional collection using tabulate, such as in the case of the following 2-Dimensional array: val test = Array.tabulate[Double](row,col)(_+_) and that I can access the elements of the array using for(i<-0 until row) { for(j<-0 until col) { test(i)(j) = 0.0 } } If I don't know a priori what I'm going to be handling, what might be a succinct way of determining the structure of the collection, and spanning it, without doing something like: case(Array(x)) => for(i<-1 until dim1) { test(i) = 0.0 } case(Array(x,y)) => for(i<-1 until dim1) { for(j<-1 until dim2) { test(i)(j) = 0.0 } } case(Array(x,y,z)) => ... The dimensional values n1, n2, n3, etc... are private, right? Also, would one use the same trick of unwrapping a 2-D array into a 1-D vector when dealing with n-Dimensional objects if I want a single case to handle the traversal? Thanks in advance Bruce

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  • Custom collision

    - by bali182
    I was recently assigned to create a siple game using the Corona SDK. The main pillar of the game would be a simple event: the user should put a ball in a basket, and I should be able to handle this event. Here is a picture for better understanding: I successfully managed to create the collision shape for the basket, but i have trouble with the collision of the inside of this basket. My first thought was the following: create a new shape size and position it to fit the "belly" of this basket add it to the physics-world, and listen to the collision. With hybrid drawing it looks like this: But there is a problem: if i add this shape to the physics, it wouldn't let the ball fall into the, basket, it will handle this shape as a solid object as well. So my question is: How could I get this custom object to collide, without blocking the ball to fall through it? I have read a lots of forum post with similar questions but none of them got a proper answer. There must be a way to do this in an elegant way. And one note: Please don't suggest checking the collision manually, with rectangle intersection, because in this simple case it would work, but later I may need to change the shape of the basket, and then it will be useless!

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  • Adding an keyUp-event to form objects

    - by reporter
    Hello folks, I've got the issue to add a browser event to some input fields. The challenge I have to face is, that one parameter of my target function is the 'event'-variable and the second one an object. For a better understanding here some codes:The HTML object: <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced" class="xp set"> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_label" class="label">Birthday</div> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_value" class="value date"> <input class="day" name="dayOfBirth" value="66" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="month" name="monthOfBirth" value="67" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="year" name="yearOfBirth" value="" maxlength="4" type="text"> </div> </div> The source code of target method is like below: function advancedDateFields(currentFieldAsObject, nextField, currentValueLength, ev){} Unfortunatly the HTML and the Javascript code is generated automatically, so I'm unable to refactore the code. My question is, how can I pass the key word 'event' and the other parameters? My tries did always fail. :-(

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  • Difference between std::result_of and decltype

    - by Luc Touraille
    I have some trouble understanding the need for std::result_of in C++0x. If I understood correctly, result_of is used to obtain the resulting type of invoking a function object with certain types of parameters. For example: template <typename F, typename Arg> typename std::result_of<F(Arg)> invoke(F f, Arg a) { return f(a); } I don't really see the difference with the following code: template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(f(a)) //uses the f parameter { return f(a); } or template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(F()(a)); //"constructs" an F { return f(a); } The only problem I can see with these two solutions is that we need to either: have an instance of the functor to use it in the expression passed to decltype. know a defined constructor for the functor. Am I right in thinking that the only difference between decltype and result_of is that the first one needs an expression whereas the second does not?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

    - by mafutrct
    First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

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  • Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

    - by Alan
    From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

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  • Is this function thread-safe?

    - by kiddo
    Hello all,I am learning multi-threading and for the sake of understanding I have wriiten a small function using multithreading...it works fine.But I just want to know if that thread is safe to use,did I followed the correct rule. void CThreadingEx4Dlg::OnBnClickedOk() { //in thread1 100 elements are copied to myShiftArray(which is a CStringArray) thread1 = AfxBeginThread((AFX_THREADPROC)MyThreadFunction1,this); WaitForSingleObject(thread1->m_hThread,INFINITE); //thread2 waits for thread1 to finish because thread2 is going to make use of myShiftArray(in which thread1 processes it first) thread2 = AfxBeginThread((AFX_THREADPROC)MyThreadFunction2,this); thread3 = AfxBeginThread((AFX_THREADPROC)MyThreadFunction3,this); } UINT MyThreadFunction1(LPARAM lparam) { CThreadingEx4Dlg* pthis = (CThreadingEx4Dlg*)lparam; pthis->MyFunction(0,100); return 0; } UINT MyThreadFunction2(LPARAM lparam) { CThreadingEx4Dlg* pthis = (CThreadingEx4Dlg*)lparam; pthis->MyCommonFunction(0,20); return 0; } UINT MyThreadFunction3(LPARAM lparam) { CThreadingEx4Dlg* pthis = (CThreadingEx4Dlg*)lparam; WaitForSingleObject(pthis->thread3->m_hThread,INFINITE); //here thread3 waits for thread 2 to finish so that thread can continue pthis->MyCommonFunction(21,40); return 0; } void CThreadingEx4Dlg::MyFunction(int minCount,int maxCount) { for(int i=minCount;i<maxCount;i++) { //assume myArray is a CStringArray and it has 100 elemnts added to it. //myShiftArray is a CStringArray -public to the class CString temp; temp = myArray.GetAt(i); myShiftArray.Add(temp); } } void CThreadingEx4Dlg::MyCommonFunction(int min,int max) { for(int i = min;i < max;i++) { CSingleLock myLock(&myCS,TRUE); CString temp; temp = myShiftArray.GetAt(i); //threadArray is CStringArray-public to the class threadArray.Add(temp); } myEvent.PulseEvent(); }

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  • Can somebody please explain this recursive function for me?

    - by capncoolio
    #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> void reprint(char *a[]) { if(*a) { printf("%d ",a); reprint(a+1); printf("%s ",*a); } } int main() { char *coll[] = {"C", "Objective", "like", "don't", "I", NULL}; reprint(coll); printf("\n"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; } As the more experienced will know, this prints the array in reverse. I don't quite understand how! I need help understanding what reprint(char *a[]) does. I understand pointer arithmetic to a degree, but from inserting printf's here and there, I've determined that the function increments up to the array end, and then back down to the start, only printing on the way down. However, I do not understand how it does this; all I've managed to understand by looking at the actual code is that if *a isn't NULL, then call reprint again, at the next index. Thanks guys!

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  • swap! alter and alike

    - by mekka
    Hello, I am having a problem understanding how these functions update the underlying ref, atom etc. The docs say: (apply f current-value-of-identity args) (def one (atom 0)) (swap! one inc) ;; => 1 So I am wondering how it got "expanded" to the apply form. It's not mentioned what exactly 'args' in the apply form is. Is it a sequence of arguments or are these separate values? Was it "expanded" to: (apply inc 0) ; obviously this wouldnt work, so that leaves only one possibility (apply inc 0 '()) (swap! one + 1 2 3) ;; #=> 7 Was it: (apply + 1 1 2 3 '()) ;or (apply + 1 [1 2 3]) (def two (atom [])) (swap! two conj 10 20) ;; #=> [10 20] Was it: (apply conj [] [10 20]) ;or (apply conj [] 10 20 '()) If I swap with a custom function like this: (def three (atom 0)) (swap! three (fn [current elem] (println (class elem))) 10) ;;#=> java.Lang.Integer Which means that the value '10' doesnt magically get changed into a seq '(10) and leads me to the conclusion, that it gets "expanded" to: (apply f current-value-of-identity arg1 arg2 arg3... '()) Is that a correct assumption and the docs are simply lacking a better description?

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  • Good C++ array class for dealing with large arrays of data in a fast and memory efficient way?

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    Following on from a previous question relating to heap usage restrictions, I'm looking for a good standard C++ class for dealing with big arrays of data in a way that is both memory efficient and speed efficient. I had been allocating the array using a single malloc/HealAlloc but after multiple trys using various calls, keep falling foul of heap fragmentation. So the conclusion I've come to, other than porting to 64 bit, is to use a mechanism that allows me to have a large array spanning multiple smaller memory fragments. I don't want an alloc per element as that is very memory inefficient, so the plan is to write a class that overrides the [] operator and select an appropriate element based on the index. Is there already a decent class out there to do this, or am I better off rolling my own? From my understanding, and some googling, a 32 bit Windows process should theoretically be able address up to 2GB. Now assuming I've 2GB installed, and various other processes and services are hogging about 400MB, how much usable memory do you think my program can reasonably expect to get from the heap? I'm currently using various flavours of Visual C++.

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  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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  • Cookies NULL On Some ASP.NET Pages (even though it IS there!)

    - by DaveDev
    Hi folks I'm working on an ASP.NET application and I'm having difficulty in understanding why a cookie appears to be null. On one page (results.aspx) I create a cookie, adding entries every time the user clicks a checkbox. When the user clicks a button, they're taken to another page (graph.aspx) where the contents of that cookie is read. The problem is that the cookie doesn't seem to exist on graph.aspx. The following code returns null: Request.Cookies["MyCookie"]; The weird thing is this is only an issue on our staging server. This app is deployed to a production server and it's fine. It also works perfectly locally. I've put debug code on both pages: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (string cookie in Request.Cookies.AllKeys) { sb.Append(cookie.ToString() + "<br />"); } this.divDebugOutput.InnerHtml = sb.ToString(); On results.aspx (where there are no problems), I can see the cookies are: MyCookie __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc On graph.aspx, you can see there is no 'MyCookie' __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc With that said, if I take a look with my FireCookie, I can see that the same cookie does in fact exist on BOTH pages! WTF?!?!?!?! (ok, rant over :-) ) Has anyone seen something like this before? Why would ASP.NET claim that a cookie is null on one page, and not null on another?

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  • boost::function & boost::lambda - call site invocation & accessing _1 and _2 as the type

    - by John Dibling
    Sorry for the confusing title. Let me explain via code: #include <string> #include <boost\function.hpp> #include <boost\lambda\lambda.hpp> #include <iostream> int main() { using namespace boost::lambda; boost::function<std::string(std::string, std::string)> f = _1.append(_2); std::string s = f("Hello", "There"); std::cout << s; return 0; } I'm trying to use function to create a function that uses the labda expressions to create a new return value, and invoke that function at the call site, s = f("Hello", "There"); When I compile this, I get: 1>------ Build started: Project: hacks, Configuration: Debug x64 ------ 1>Compiling... 1>main.cpp 1>.\main.cpp(11) : error C2039: 'append' : is not a member of 'boost::lambda::lambda_functor<T>' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=boost::lambda::placeholder<1> 1> ] Using MSVC 9. My fundamental understanding of function and lambdas may be lacking. The tutorials and docs did not help so far this morning. How do I do what I'm trying to do?

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  • Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

    - by Bob Spryn
    So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

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  • jQuery Toggle switch images

    - by Sixfoot Studio
    Hi Guys, I have a situation where I am not understanding jQuery's Toggle. I have two buttons, both of them open the same content and when you click on either button the content should open or close and the attribute changes the button from open to closed. (So both buttons do the same function). Only thing is, when I click on the top button and it opens my content and then click on the lower button to close it, the image attributes are switched incorrectly. Here's a very stripped down version of what my code looks like and I would appreciate some help. <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(function () { var open = false; $("#button1, #button2").toggle( function () { open = true; $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); }, function () { if (open) { $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-closed.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-closed.gif"); } else { $("#button1").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); $("#button2").attr("src", "images/btn-open.gif"); } open = false; } ); }); </script> <img id="button1" src="images/btn-open.gif"></img> <br /> <br /> <br /> <br /> <img id="button2" src="images/btn-open.gif"></img>

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  • Is method reference caching a good idea in Java 8?

    - by gexicide
    Consider I have code like the following: class Foo { Y func(X x) {...} void doSomethingWithAFunc(Function<X,Y> f){...} void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(this::func); } } Consider that hotFunction is called very often. Would it then be advisable to cache this::func, maybe like this: class Foo { Function<X,Y> f = this::func; ... void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(f); } } As far as my understanding of java method references goes, the Virtual Machine creates an object of an anonymous class when a method reference is used. Thus, caching the reference would create that object only once while the first approach creates it on each function call. Is this correct? Should method references that appear at hot positions in the code be cached or is the VM able to optimize this and make the caching superfluous? Is there a general best practice about this or is this highly VM-implemenation specific whether such caching is of any use?

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  • Removing index.php on MAMP

    - by djeetee
    this questions was asked before and has had many responses. The problem is nothing i tried worked. Background: i use MAMP and all of my web project are located under WebProjects which I relocated out of its standard location within the MAMP folder in Applications. so my structure is something like this: Documents/WebProjects/GreatSite/Application/... What happened so far: my understanding is that removing index.php can be done either through httpd.conf or .htaccess. anytime i touched httpd.conf, Apache refuses to start. I tried various edits to .htaccess including the one in codeigniter.com/wiki/mod-rewrite and the last one from a post on SO which is this: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] this give me the following error when i access the site: An Error Was Encountered Unable to determine what should be displayed. A default route has not been specified in the routing file. I have updated config.php to have $config['index_page'] = ''; and i have placed the .htaccess file in the GreatSite folder. One other note, my CI system folder is up a level from GreatSite. Not sure if this has any impact. also, apache has the module loaded. so, I'm hoping someone has successfully done this on MAMP and could provide direction specifically around the content of their .htaccess (or even httpd.conf), it's location and any other mods they had to make to get this going. thanks

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