Search Results

Search found 6020 results on 241 pages for 'valid'.

Page 192/241 | < Previous Page | 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199  | Next Page >

  • django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

    - by Tim
    I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

    Read the article

  • php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

    Read the article

  • Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

    - by javanix
    Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

    Read the article

  • How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

    - by johnrock
    I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

    Read the article

  • deactivate ' pin to start ' on Application List page when pinning an app via code using C#?

    - by Ahmed Ali
    i'm creating a windows phone app ,where i've put a button to pin the app to start screen , but when press and hold the app icon on application list screen i find that the pin to start option can be used ShellTile TileToFind = ShellTile.ActiveTiles.FirstOrDefault(x => x.NavigationUri.ToString().Contains("MainPage.xaml")); // Create the Tile if we didn't find that it already exists. if (TileToFind == null) { // Create the Tile object and set some initial properties for the Tile. // The Count value of 12 shows the number 12 on the front of the Tile. Valid values are 1-99. // A Count value of 0 indicates that the Count should not be displayed. StandardTileData NewTileData = new StandardTileData { BackgroundImage = new Uri("300.png", UriKind.Relative), Title = "apptitle", BackTitle = "title", BackContent = "testing ", BackBackgroundImage = null }; // Create the Tile and pin it to Start. This will cause a navigation to Start and a deactivation of our app. ShellTile.Create(new Uri("/MainPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative), NewTileData); } else { MessageBox.Show("Already Pinned"); } how can i disable the user from pinning the application again from application list screen

    Read the article

  • A dropdownlist list in ASP.NET MVC although not [required] field shows up as required and Model Sta

    - by VJ
    I have the following code- View- <% Html.BeginForm(); %> <div> <%= Html.DropDownList("DropDownSelectList", new SelectList( Model.DropDownSelectList, "Value", "Text"))%> Controller- public ActionResult Admin(string apiKey, string userId) { ChallengesAdminViewModel vm = new ChallengesAdminViewModel(); vm.ApiKey = apiKey; vm.UserId = userId; vm.DropDownSelectList = new List<SelectListItem>(); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem1); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem2); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem3); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem4); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem5); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem6); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem7); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Admin(ChallengesAdminViewModel vm) { if (ModelState.IsValid)//Due to the null dropdownlist gives model state invalid { } } ViewModel- public class ChallengesAdminViewModel { [Required] public string ApiKey { get; set; } [Required] public string UserId { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> DropDownSelectList { get; set; } } I dont know why it still requires the list although not required. I want to have only two attributes as required. So I wanted to know how do i declare or change that list to be not required and have my Model State Valid.

    Read the article

  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

    Read the article

  • small code redundancy within while-loops (doesn't feel clean)

    - by wallacoloo
    So, in Python (though I think it can be applied to many languages), I find myself with something like this quite often: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") while the_input != "quit": print the_input the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") Maybe I'm being too picky, but I don't like how the line the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") has to get repeated. It decreases maintainability and organization. But I don't see any workarounds for avoiding the duplicate code without further decreasing the problem. In some languages, I could write something like this: while ((the_input=raw_input("what to print?\n")) != "quit") { print the_input } This is definitely not Pythonic, and Python doesn't even allow for assignment within loop conditions AFAIK. This valid code fixes the redundancy, while 1: the_input = raw_input("what to print?\n") if the_input == "quit": break print the_input But doesn't feel quite right either. The while 1 implies that this loop will run forever; I'm using a loop, but giving it a fake condition and putting the real one inside it. Am I being too picky? Is there a better way to do this? Perhaps there's some language construct designed for this that I don't know of?

    Read the article

  • converting a timestring to a duration

    - by radman
    Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

    Read the article

  • Simple encryption - Sum of Hashes in C

    - by Dogbert
    I am attempting to demonstrate a simple proof of concept with respect to a vulnerability in a piece of code in a game written in C. Let's say that we want to validate a character login. The login is handled by the user choosing n items, (let's just assume n=5 for now) from a graphical menu. The items are all medieval themed: eg: _______________________________ | | | | | Bow | Sword | Staff | |-----------|-----------|-------| | Shield | Potion | Gold | |___________|___________|_______| The user must click on each item, then choose a number for each item. The validation algorithm then does the following: Determines which items were selected Drops each string to lowercase (ie: Bow becomes bow, etc) Calculates a simple string hash for each string (ie: `bow = b=2, o=15, w=23, sum = (2+15+23=40) Multiplies the hash by the value the user selected for the corresponding item; This new value is called the key Sums together the keys for each of the selected items; this is the final validation hash IMPORTANT: The validator will accept this hash, along with non-zero multiples of it (ie: if the final hash equals 1111, then 2222, 3333, 8888, etc are also valid). So, for example, let's say I select: Bow (1) Sword (2) Staff (10) Shield (1) Potion (6) The algorithm drops each of these strings to lowercase, calculates their string hashes, multiplies that hash by the number selected for each string, then sums these keys together. eg: Final_Validation_Hash = 1*HASH(Bow) + 2*HASH(Sword) + 10*HASH(Staff) + 1*HASH(Shield) + 6*HASH(Potion) By application of Euler's Method, I plan to demonstrate that these hashes are not unique, and want to devise a simple application to prove it. in my case, for 5 items, I would essentially be trying to calculate: (B)(y) = (A_1)(x_1) + (A_2)(x_2) + (A_3)(x_3) + (A_4)(x_4) + (A_5)(x_5) Where: B is arbitrary A_j are the selected coefficients/values for each string/category x_j are the hash values for each string/category y is the final validation hash (eg: 1111 above) B,y,A_j,x_j are all discrete-valued, positive, and non-zero (ie: natural numbers) Can someone either assist me in solving this problem or point me to a similar example (ie: code, worked out equations, etc)? I just need to solve the final step (ie: (B)(Y) = ...). Thank you all in advance.

    Read the article

  • File Enumeration with ANT

    - by 1ndivisible
    I feel like I'm missing something obvious at the moment. I want to collect a set of dirs / files together in ANT. I know I can do it using a fileset with an optional patternset inside it, but that involves searching for files based a specific criterior - filetype, name etc. I already know the paths to the files I want to collect. I have n properties which reference these paths. I want a way to collect these paths in a fileset, though I cannot find a way to do it. This represents what I want to achieve (I know it isn't valid code, but hopefully it will describe what I mean): <fileset> <path>${src.dir}</path> <path>${test.dir}</path> <path>${third.party.src.dir}</path> <path>${bin.dir}</path> <path>${docs.build.txt}</path> </fileset>

    Read the article

  • Question on overview of C# OOP in business WinForms application - scope of Object

    - by TimR
    I may have all this OO completely wrong, but here goes: Ok the scenario is a classic order entry. Customer places an Order which has OrderLineItems of StockItems. Order is entered by Employee. 1) Application starts and asks for login/password 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... 4) Employee selects Customer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu Now with Object scope: 1) Application starts and asks for login/password Is this the best place to make objEmployee, to be kept whilst in this whole Sales application? 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... *Make objOrderHeader, is objEmployee able to be passed in or is it created here, or re-created here.* 4) Employee selects Customer - adds/edits Customer details if required... Make objCustomer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed, Order Entered By = EmployeeID] Once posted to Db, all objects now redundant/garbage [except objEmployee?] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu is objEmployee still valid as an object?

    Read the article

  • php XML DOM translates special chars to &#xYY;

    - by ZiTAL
    I send this with AJAX POST: <li><ul class "zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div></li></ul></li></ul></li> I do this to create XML: header('Content-type: text/html; charset=utf-8'); if(isset($_POST) && isset($_POST['data'])) { $data = '<ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable">'; $data .= $_POST['data']; $data .= '</ul>'; $dom = new DOMDocument('1.0', 'utf-8'); $dom->loadXML($data); echo $dom->saveXML(); exit(); } and i get this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <ul id="zone_container" class="ui-sortable"> <li><ul class="zone zCentral ui-sortable"><li><ul class="region rCol3 ui-sortable"><li class="" style=""><div><span class="tc tc_video">574081</span> <span>video: 'Mundo.Hoy': &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9; olvidado... mi memoria?</span></div> </li></ul></li></ul></li></ul> ¿Dónde habré olvidado... mi memoria? translates to: &#xBF;D&#xF3;nde habr&#xE9 ; olvidado... mi memoria? Y need original chars in the XML, these are utf-8 valid i don't know the reason for this encode :(

    Read the article

  • Delphi Pascal / Windows API - Small problem with SetFilePointerEx and parameter FILE_END

    - by SuicideClutchX2
    I know I am about to be slapped by at least one person who was helping me with this API. Alright I have been able to use SetFilePointerEx just fine, when setting the position only. SetFilePointerEx(PD,512,@PositionVar,FILE_BEGIN); SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_CURRENT); Both work, I can set positions and even check my current one. But when I set FILE_END as per the documentation no matter what the second parameter is and whether or not i provide a pointer for the third parameter it fails even on a valid handle that many other operations are able to use without fail. For Example: SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_END); SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,nil,FILE_END); Whatever I put it fails. I am working with a handle to a physical disk and it most definitely has an end. SetFilePointer works just fine its just a little more trouble than I would like. Its not the end of the world, but whats happening.

    Read the article

  • JTA or LOCAL transactions in JPA2+Hibernate 3.6.0?

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of re-thinking our tech stack and below are our choices (We can't live without Spring and Hibernate due to the complexity etc of the app). We are also moving from J2EE 1.4 to JEE 5. Tech stack JEE 5 JPA 2.0 (I know JEE 5 only supports JPA 1.0 but we want to use Hibernate as the JPA provider) Hibernate 3.6.0 (We already have lots of hbm files with custom types etc. so we doesn't want to migrate them at this time to JPA. This means we want both jpa/hbm mappings work together and hence the Hibernate as the JPA provider instead of using the default that comes with App Server) Now the problems is that I want to stick with local transactions but other team members want to use JTA. I have been working with J2EE for last 9 years and I've heard time and again people suggesting to stick with local transactions if I doesn't need two phase commits. This is not only for performance reasons but debugging/troubleshooting a local transaction is lot easier than a distributed transaction. My suggestion is to use spring declarative transaction management + local transactions (HibernateTransactionManager) I want to make sure if I am being paranoid or I have a valid point. I'd like to hear what the rest of the JEE world thinks. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Implementing a scrabble trainer

    - by bstullkid
    Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

    Read the article

  • verifying the signature of x509

    - by sid
    Hi All, While verifying the certificate I am getting EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH My Aim - Verify the certificate signature. I am having 2 certificates : 1. a CA certificate 2. certificate issued by CA. I extracted the 'RSA Public Key (key)' Modulus From CA Certificate using, pPublicKey = X509_get_pubkey(x509); buf_len = (size_t) BN_num_bytes (bn); key = (unsigned char *)malloc (buf_len); n = BN_bn2bin (bn, (unsigned char *) key); if (n != buf_len) LOG(ERROR," : key error\n"); if (key[0] & 0x80) LOG(DEBUG, "00\n"); Now, I have CA public key & CA key length and also having certificate issued by CA in buffer, buffer length & public key. To verify the signature, I have following code int iRet1, iRet2, iRet3, iReason; iRet1 = EVP_VerifyInit(&md_ctx, EVP_sha1()); iRet2 = EVP_VerifyUpdate(&md_ctx, buf, buflen); iRet3 = EVP_VerifyFinal(&md_ctx, (const unsigned char *)CAkey, CAkeyLen, pubkey); iReason = ERR_get_error(); if(ERR_GET_REASON(iReason) == EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH) { LOG(ERROR, "EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH\n"); } LOG(INFO,"EVP_VerifyInit returned %d : EVP_VerifyUpdate returned %d : EVP_VerifyFinal = %d \n", iRet1, iRet2, iRet3); EVP_MD_CTX_cleanup(&md_ctx); EVP_PKEY_free(pubkey); if (iRet3 != 1) { LOG(ERROR,"EVP_VerifyFinal() failed\n"); ret = -1; } LOG(INFO,"signature is valid\n"); I am unable to figure out What might went wrong??? Please if anybody faced same issues? What EVP_F_EVP_PKEY_GET1_DH Error means? Thanks in Advance - opensid

    Read the article

  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

    Read the article

  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

    Read the article

  • Is the following C code safe?

    - by lali
    #include<cstdio> #include<stdlib.h> int main() { char* ptr=NULL; printf("%s",ptr); return 0; } It prints (null) as output. The above is a sample code. In real code i get char* as a return of a function and i wish to print the character string for logging. However, NULL is also a valid return value of that function and so i am wondering if a null check is required before printing the character string? char* ptr=someFuncion(); // do i need the following if statement? if(ptr!=NULL) { printf("%s",ptr); } I just want to be sure that the output would be same i.e if ptr=NULL then output should be (null) on all platforms and compilers and the above code(without if statement) would not crash on any C standard compatible platform. In short, is the above code(without the if statement) standard compatible? Thanks for your help and patience :) Regards lali

    Read the article

  • Javascript callback with AJAX + jQuery

    - by Fred
    Hey! I have this jQuery code (function () { function load_page (pagename) { $.ajax({ url: "/backend/index.php/frontend/pull_page/", type: "POST", data: {page: pagename}, success: function (json) { var parsed = $.parseJSON(json); console.log(parsed); return parsed; }, error: function (error) { $('#content').html('Sorry, there was an error: <br>' + error); return false; } }); } ... var json = load_page(page); console.log(json); if (json == false) { $('body').fadeIn(); } else { document.title = json.pagename + ' | The Other Half | freddum.com'; $("#content").html(json.content); $('#header-navigation-ul a:Contains('+page+')').addClass('nav-selected'); $('body').fadeIn(); } })(); and, guessed it, it doesn't work. The AJAX fires fine, the server returns valid JSON but the console.log(json); returns undefined and the js crashes when it gets to json.pagename. The first console.log(parsed) also returns good data so it's just a problem with the return (I think). I knew I was clutching at straws and would be extremely if this worked, but it doesn't. To be honest, I don't know how to program callback functions for this situation. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Incorrect syntax inserting data into table

    - by SelectDistinct
    I am having some trouble with my update() method. The idea is that the user Provides a recipe name, ingredients, instructions and then selects an image using Filestream. Once the user clicks 'Add Recipe' this will call the update method, however as things stand I am getting an error which is mentioning the contents of the text box: Here is the update() method code: private void updatedata() { // filesteam object to read the image // full length of image to a byte array try { // try to see if the image has a valid path if (imagename != "") { FileStream fs; fs = new FileStream(@imagename, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); // a byte array to read the image byte[] picbyte = new byte[fs.Length]; fs.Read(picbyte, 0, System.Convert.ToInt32(fs.Length)); fs.Close(); //open the database using odp.net and insert the lines string connstr = @"Server=mypcname\SQLEXPRESS;Database=RecipeOrganiser;Trusted_Connection=True"; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstr); conn.Open(); string query; query = "insert into Recipes(RecipeName,RecipeImage,RecipeIngredients,RecipeInstructions) values (" + textBox1.Text + "," + " @pic" + "," + textBox2.Text + "," + textBox3.Text + ")"; SqlParameter picparameter = new SqlParameter(); picparameter.SqlDbType = SqlDbType.Image; picparameter.ParameterName = "pic"; picparameter.Value = picbyte; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); cmd.Parameters.Add(picparameter); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("Image successfully saved"); cmd.Dispose(); conn.Close(); conn.Dispose(); Connection(); } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } } Can anyone see where I have gone wrong with the insert into Recipes query or suggest an alternative approach to this part of the code?

    Read the article

  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199  | Next Page >