Search Results

Search found 6020 results on 241 pages for 'valid'.

Page 190/241 | < Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >

  • Django formset doesn't validate

    - by tsoporan
    Hello, I am trying to save a formset but it seems to be bypassing is_valid() even though there are required fields. To test this I have a simple form: class AlbumForm(forms.Form): name = forms.CharField(required=True) The view: @login_required def add_album(request, artist): artist = Artist.objects.get(slug__iexact=artist) AlbumFormSet = formset_factory(AlbumForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = AlbumFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponse('worked') else: formset = AlbumFormSet() return render_to_response('submissions/addalbum.html', { 'artist': artist, 'formset': formset, }, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) And the template: <form action="" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">{% csrf_token %} {{ formset.management_form }} {% for form in formset.forms %} <ul class="addalbumlist"> {% for field in form %} <li> {{ field.label_tag }} {{ field }} {{ field.errors }} </li> {% endfor %} </ul> {% endfor %} <div class="inpwrap"> <input type="button" value="add another"> <input type="submit" value="add"> </div> </form> What ends up happening is I hit "add" without entering a name then HttpResponse('worked') get's called seemingly assuming it's a valid form. I might be missing something here, but I can't see what's wrong. What I want to happen is, just like any other form if the field is required to spit out an error if its not filled in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Is Form validation and Business validation too much?

    - by Robert Cabri
    I've got this question about form validation and business validation. I see a lot of frameworks that use some sort of form validation library. You submit some values and the library validates the values from the form. If not ok it will show some errors on you screen. If all goes to plan the values will be set into domain objects. Here the values will be or, better said, should validated (again). Most likely the same validation in the validation library. I know 2 PHP frameworks having this kind of construction Zend/Kohana. When I look at programming and some principles like Don't Repeat Yourself (DRY) and single responsibility principle (SRP) this isn't a good way. As you can see it validates twice. Why not create domain objects that do the actual validation. Example: Form with username and email form is submitted. Values of the username field and the email field will be populated in 2 different Domain objects: Username and Email class Username {} class Email {} These objects validate their data and if not valid throw an exception. Do you agree? What do you think about this aproach? Is there a better way to implement validations? I'm confused about a lot of frameworks/developers handling this stuff. Are they all wrong or am I missing a point? Edit: I know there should also be client side kind of validation. This is a different ballgame in my Opinion. If You have some comments on this and a way to deal with this kind of stuff, please provide.

    Read the article

  • Refreshing Facebook session from an iframe application

    - by zombat
    I've got a Facebook iframe application that is completely external. By this I mean that once a user accesses the canvas URL to load the application, all the links in the iframe app go to my servers, and the canvas page never gets refreshed unless the user navigates to somewhere else on Facebook and comes back (or does a browser refresh). On the initial load of the app where Facebook creates the iframe, I get passed all the usual parameters like fb_sig_user which allows me to create an internal app session based on the facebook user. This app session (which is not the Facebook session, it's my own app session) is all I need to allow the user to work with the app. The problem comes an hour later. If the user leaves the computer, or uses the app for more than an hour, the Facebook session expires. There are some app pages which require fetching friend information, and once the FB session has expired, these pages break, throwing out errors such as "Error: Session key invalid or no longer valid". My question is whether there is a way to refresh the user's Facebook session from within an iframe application to keep it from expiring an hour later. Do any of the API calls do this? Is there a Facebook Connect trick to ping something? Is there any definitive method to keep it alive? I haven't been able to find any examples that specifically address this.

    Read the article

  • bad_alloc occuring when allocating small structs

    - by SalamiArmi
    A bad_alloc has started showing up in some code which looks perfectly valid to me and has worked very well in the past. The bad alloc only occurs once every 50-3000 iterations of the code, which is also confusing. The code itself is from a singly linked list, simply adding a new element to the queue: template<typename T> struct container { inline container() : next(0) {} container *next; T data; }; void push(const T &data) { container<T> *newQueueMember = new container<T>; //... unrelated to crash } Where T is: struct test { int m[256]; }; Changing the size of the array allocated array to anything but very small values (1-8 ints) still results in a bad_alloc occasionally. A few extra notes about my program: - I used Poco::ThreadPool to thread my program. I've only recently added this functionality, before I had it running with Win32 threads. However, only the main thread ever calls push(). - I am also occasionally getting other crashes which could be related. However, when I try to debug with visual studio 2008, I can't navigate back to the call stack, or the crash happens deep within new(). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Recommendations of a high volume log event viewer in a Java enviroment

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am in a situation where I would like to accept a LOT of log events controlled by me - notably the logging agent I am preparing for slf4j - and then analyze them interactively. I am not as such interested in a facility that presents formatted log files, but one that can accept log events as objects and allow me to sort and display on e.g. threads and timelines etc. Chainsaw could maybe be an option but is currently not compatible with logback which I use for technical reasons. Is there any project with stand alone viewers or embedded in an IDE which would be suitable for this kind of log handling. I am aware that I am approaching what might be suitable for a profiler, so if there is a profiler projekt suitable for this kind of data acquisition and display where I can feed the event pipe, I would like to hear about it). Thanks for all feedback Update 2009-03-19: I have found that there is not a log viewer which allows me to see what I would like (a visual display of events with coordinates determined by day and time, etc), so I have decided to create a very terse XML format derived from the log4j XMLLayout adapted to be as readable as possible while still being valid XML-snippets, and then use the Microsoft LogParser to extract the information I need for postprocessing in other tools.

    Read the article

  • Prevent Rails link_to_remote multiple submits w Javascript

    - by Chris
    In a Rails project I need to keep a link_to_remote from getting double-clicked. It looks like :before and :after are my only choices - they get prepended/appended to the onclick Ajax call, respectively. But if I try something like: :before => "self.stopObserving()" t,he Ajax is never run. If I try it for :after the Ajax is run but the link never stops observing. The solutions I've seen rely on creating a variable and blocking the whole form, but there are multiple link_to_remote rows on this page and it is valid to click more than one of them at a time - just not the same one twice. One variable per row declared outside of link_to_remote seems very kludgey... Instead of using Prototype I originally tried plain Javascript first for this proof of concept - but it fails too: <a href="#" onclick="self.onclick = function(){alert('foo');};"click</a just puts up an alert when clicked - the lambda here does nothing? This next one is more like the desired goal and should only alert the first time. But instead it alerts every time: <a href="#" onclick="alert('bar'); self.onclick = function(){return false;};"click</a All ideas appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Filtering on a left join in SQLalchemy

    - by Adam Ernst
    Using SQLalchemy I want to perform a left outer join and filter out rows that DO have a match in the joined table. I'm sending push notifications, so I have a Notification table. This means I also have a ExpiredDeviceId table to store device_ids that are no longer valid. (I don't want to just delete the affected notifications as the user might later re-install the app, at which point the notifications should resume according to Apple's docs.) CREATE TABLE Notification (device_id TEXT, time DATETIME); CREATE TABLE ExpiredDeviceId (device_id TEXT PRIMARY KEY, expiration_time DATETIME); Note: there may be multiple Notifications per device_id. There is no "Device" table for each device. So when doing SELECT FROM Notification I should filter accordingly. I can do it in SQL: SELECT * FROM Notification LEFT OUTER JOIN ExpiredDeviceId ON Notification.device_id = ExpiredDeviceId.device_id WHERE expiration_time == NULL But how can I do it in SQLalchemy? sess.query( Notification, ExpiredDeviceId ).outerjoin( (ExpiredDeviceId, Notification.device_id == ExpiredDeviceId.device_id) ).filter( ??? ) Alternately I could do this with a device_id NOT IN (SELECT device_id FROM ExpiredDeviceId) clause, but that seems way less efficient.

    Read the article

  • Which view will be resolved, code from spring's docs

    - by Blankman
    So when you go to /appointments the get() action is called, so then would the view be get.jsp (assuming you are using .jsp, and assuming you are mapping action names to views)? And what about the getnewform? It seems to be returning an object? Is that basically passed into the view? @Controller @RequestMapping("/appointments") public class AppointmentsController { private final AppointmentBook appointmentBook; @Autowired public AppointmentsController(AppointmentBook appointmentBook) { this.appointmentBook = appointmentBook; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> get() { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForToday(); } @RequestMapping(value="/{day}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Map<String, Appointment> getForDay(@PathVariable @DateTimeFormat(iso=ISO.DATE) Date day, Model model) { return appointmentBook.getAppointmentsForDay(day); } @RequestMapping(value="/new", method = RequestMethod.GET) public AppointmentForm getNewForm() { return new AppointmentForm(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String add(@Valid AppointmentForm appointment, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "appointments/new"; } appointmentBook.addAppointment(appointment); return "redirect:/appointments"; } } In the example, the @RequestMapping is used in a number of places. The first usage is on the type (class) level, which indicates that all handling methods on this controller are relative to the /appointments path. The get() method has a further @RequestMapping refinement: it only accepts GET requests, meaning that an HTTP GET for /appointments invokes this method. The post() has a similar refinement, and the getNewForm() combines the definition of HTTP method and path into one, so that GET requests for appointments/new are handled by that method.

    Read the article

  • automating hudson builds with ant throwing 403

    - by Christopher Dancy
    We have a hudson server which deploys builds. We have a few services which we want to be able to remotely tell hudson to deploy a certain build ... these services are using ant. So I'm trying to get it working but keeping getting a 403 response when giving a build number like so... <ac:post to="http://hostname:8080/hudson/job/test_release_indexes/build?" verbose="true" wantresponse="true"> <prop name="token" value="indexes"/> <prop name="BUILDNUMBER" value="0354"/> </ac:post> this throws the 403. I've also tried passing it props for the username and password like so ... <ac:post to="http://srulesre2:8080/hudson/job/test_dartmouth_indexes/build?" verbose="true" wantresponse="true"> <prop name="token" value="indexes"/> <prop name="BUILDNUMBER" value="0354"/> <prop name="username" value="test"/> <prop name="password" value="test"/> </ac:post> I've tried a hundred different variations on username and password ... like j_username and j_password or user and pass ... but nothing is working ... keep getting the same 403. And the username and password are valid because I can manually log in with admin privileges. Any ideas would be great

    Read the article

  • Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

    Read the article

  • How can I distinguish between overlapping segments of text using HTML / jQuery?

    - by Siracuse
    Easy question, it is valid to have overlapping spans in html? Example: <span id="1">This is <span id="2"> some text </span> some other text </span> ^ ^ End1 End2 Edit: I see now that the spans closing tag would be ambiguous about which one it is closing, and that first </span> would close span id = 2, not 1 like I intended. My problem is, I have a block of text which I'm trying to highlight based on what the mouse hovers over. This block of text is composed of sections, some of which "overlap" eachother. I'm trying to use some jQuery and HTML to present this document so when I hover over the sections, the appropriate one will be highlighted. So, in my example above, the first span is meant to be ended with the first span close tag, and the second span is meant to be ended to with the second span close tag. This is because of the semantics of my document, these are two overlapping segments. I want it so when I hover to the left, it will only highlight up to span id = 1 and the first span close, if I hover between the two "overlapping" spans, it will highlight both of them, and if I hover to the right, it will highlight from span id=2 to the last span close. However, I'm starting to think this isn't possible. Is there any way I can distinguish segments of text in HTML that allows overlapping? So my jQuery script that highlights when I hover over different spans will highlight the correct portions. Should I alternate between div's and spans? Would that disambiguate what I'm closing then and allow me the do the proper highlighting with my jQuery hover script? I'm wondering about more than 2 segments overlapping now. Sigh, I wish I could just be explicate about what I'm closing.

    Read the article

  • Displaying tree path of record in SQL Server 2005

    - by jskiles1
    An example of my tree table is: ([id] is an identity) [id], [parent_id], [path] 1, NULL, 1 2, 1, 1-2 3, 1, 1-3 4, 3, 1-3-4 My goal is to query quickly for multiple rows of this table and view the full path of the node from its root, through its superiors, down to itself. The ultimate question is, should I generate this path on inserts and maintain it in its own column or generate this path on query to save disk space? I guess it depends if this table is write heavy or read heavy. I've been contemplating several approaches to using the "path" characteristic of this parent/child relationship and I just can't seem to settle on one. This "path" is simply for display purposes and serves absolutely no purpose other than that. Here is what I have done to implement this "path." AFTER INSERT TRIGGER - requires passing a NULL path to the insert and updating the path for the record at the inserted rows identity INSTEAD OF INSERT TRIGGER - does not require insert to have NULL path passed, but does require the trigger to insert with a NULL path and updating the path for the record at SCOPE_IDENTITY() STORED PROCEDURE - requiring all inserts into this table to be done through the stored procedure implementing the trigger logic VIEW - requires building the path in the view 1 and 2 seem annoying if massive amounts of data are entered at once. 3 seems annoying because all inserts must go through the procedure in order to have a valid path populated. 1, 2, and 3 require maintaining a path column on the table. 4 removes all the limitations of the above but require the view to perform the path logic and requires use of the view if a path is to be displayed. I have successfully implemented all of the above approaches and I'm mainly looking for some advice. Am I way off the mark here or are any of the above acceptable? Each has it's advantages and disadvantages.

    Read the article

  • SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

    - by Adam
    Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

    Read the article

  • How does asp.net MVC remember my incorrect values on postback?

    - by Michel
    This is working, but how??? I have a controller action for a post: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post )] public ActionResult Edit(Person person) { bool isvalid = ModelState.IsValid; etc. The Person object has a property BirthDate, type DateTime. When i enter some invalid data in the form, say 'blabla' which is obvious not a valid Datetime, it fills all the (other) Person properties with the correct data and the BirthDate property with a new blank DateTime. The bool isvalid has the value 'false'. So far so good. Then i do this: return View(p); and in the view i have this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.BirthDate)) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("BirthDate", "*") %> Ant there it comes: i EXPECTED the model to contain the new, blank DateTime because i didn't put any new data in. Second, when the View displays something, it must be a DateTime, because Model.BirthDate can't hold anything but a DateTime. But to my surprise, it shows a textbox with the 'blabla' value! (and the red * behind it) Which ofcourse is nice because the user can seee what he typed wrong, but how can that (blabla)string be transferred to the View in a DateTime field?

    Read the article

  • MSI Installer start auto-repair when service starts

    - by Josh Clark
    I have a WiX based MSI that installs a service and some shortcuts (and lots of other files that don't). The shortcut is created as described in the WiX docs with a registry key under HKCU as the key file. This is an all users install, but to get past ICE38, this registry key has to be under the current user. When the service starts (it runs under the SYSTEM account) it notices that that registry key isn't valid (at least of that user) and runs the install again to "repair". In the Event Log I get MsiInstaller Events 1001 and 1004 showing that "The resource 'HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\MyInstaller\Foo' does not exist." This isn't surprising since the SYSTEM user wouldn't have this key. I turned on system wide MSI logging and the auto-repair created its log file in the C:\Windows\Temp folder rather than a specific user's TEMP folder which seems to imply the current user was SYSTEM (plus the log file shows the "Calling process" to be my service). Is there something I can do to disable the auto-repair functionality? Am I doing something wrong or breaking some MSI rule? Any hints on where to look next?

    Read the article

  • iPod library song path access

    - by Narendra Kumar
    I studied a lot but did not find any good answer. My problem is i am calculating beats per minute of song.I used Bass api for that, now problem is i am able to get bpm of a file which i have in my resource folder but i have to get bpm of all songs of iPod library. I am getting path of song from MPMediaItemPropertyAssetURL property of MpMediaItem but when passing this one in api api is saying stream cant load BASS_StreamCreateFile(). In my point of view i am not getting right path of song. How can we access valid path? Did any one access ipod library song with external api? Please help me . Thanks CODE IS THIS NSURL *assetURL = [song valueForProperty:MPMediaItemPropertyAssetURL]; NSString *respath = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[assetURL absoluteString]]; BASS_SetConfig(BASS_CONFIG_IOS_MIXAUDIO, 0); // Disable mixing. To be called before BASS_Init. if (HIWORD(BASS_GetVersion()) != BASSVERSION) { NSLog(@"An incorrect version of BASS was loaded"); } // Initialize default device. if (!BASS_Init(-1, 44100, 0, NULL, NULL)) { //textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ CAN'T Load Stream",textView.text]; } DWORD chan1; if(!(chan1=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath UTF8String], 0, 0, BASS_SAMPLE_LOOP))) { NSLog(@"Can't load stream!"); textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ not loading...",textView.text]; } mainStream=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding], 0, 0, BASS_SAMPLE_FLOAT|BASS_STREAM_PRESCAN|BASS_STREAM_DECODE); float playBackDuration=BASS_ChannelBytes2Seconds(mainStream, BASS_ChannelGetLength(mainStream, BASS_POS_BYTE)); NSLog(@"Play back duration is %f",playBackDuration); HSTREAM bpmStream=BASS_StreamCreateFile(FALSE, [respath UTF8String], 0, 0, BASS_STREAM_PRESCAN|BASS_SAMPLE_FLOAT|BASS_STREAM_DECODE); //BASS_ChannelPlay(bpmStream,FALSE); BpmValue= BASS_FX_BPM_DecodeGet(bpmStream,0.0, playBackDuration, MAKELONG(45,256), BASS_FX_BPM_MULT2| BASS_FX_BPM_MULT2 | BASS_FX_FREESOURCE, (BPMPROCESSPROC*)proc); textView.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %f",textView.text,BpmValue];

    Read the article

  • Bizarre problem with WPF XAML file.

    - by paxdiablo
    I've just started a very simple WPF application which consists of a main large image and four smaller images. In order to assist with the layout, I created some JPEGs in MsPaint containing the images -2, -1, 0, +1 and +2 and just copied them into the top level of the project directory. The XAML segment contains, for the five images: <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="4" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicture" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/zero.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus2.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicMinus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/minus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="3" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus1.jpg" <Image Grid.Column="4" Grid.Row="4" Grid.ColumnSpan="1" Grid.RowSpan="1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Name="imgPicPlus2" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Source="file:///C:/DAndS/Pax/MyDocs/VS2008/Projects/MyProj/plus2.jpg" When I try to set the source property for the plus2 image, it complains with a dialog box stating: Property value is not valid. Details | V The file plus2.jpg is not part of the project or its 'Build Action' property is not set to 'Resource'. Yet if I rename the file to plus3.jpg or plus2x.jpg, I don't have that problem. Why is it complaining about plus2.jpg specifically?

    Read the article

  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

    Read the article

  • Parameter based bindings in ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    I want to use conditional binding in ninject, based on passed parameters. I have something like below: public class Subject { } public interface ITarget { } public class Target1 : ITarget { } public class Target2 : ITarget { } And now I need to instantiate ITarget interface: public void MethodName(IKernel kernel) { ITarget target1 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(new Parameter("name", new Subject(), true)); // Should be instance of Target1 ITarget target2 = kernel.Get<ITarget>(); // Should be instance of Target2 } I have problems to define proper bindings. I tried the following: kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().When(Predicate); kernel.Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); private bool Predicate(IRequest request) { IParameter parameter = request.Parameters.Count == 0 ? null : request.Parameters[0]; if (parameter == null) { return false; } object parameterValue = parameter.GetValue( /*what to put here?*/); return parameterValue != null && parameterValue.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(typeof(Subject)); } but I don't know how to get value of passed parameter. I need to pass IContext instance to GetValue method, but don't know how to get valid instance of IContext. Or maybe there is better way to accomplish my task? Regards

    Read the article

  • drupal: standard way for creating a slug from a string

    - by egarcia
    Hi there, A slug on this context is a string that its safe to use as an identifier, on urls or css. For example, if you have this string: I'd like to eat at McRunchies! Its slug would be: i-d-like-to-eat-at-mcrunchies- I want to know whether there's a standard way of building such strings on Drupal (or php functions available from drupal). More precisely, inside a Drupal theme. Context: I'm modifying a drupal theme so the html of the nodes it generates include their taxonomy terms as css classes on their containing div. Trouble is, some of those terms' names aren't valid css class names. I need to "slugify" the them. I've read that some people simply do this: str_replace(" ", "-", $term->name) This isn't really a enough for me. It doesn't replace uppercase letters with downcase, but more importantly, doesn't replace non-ascii characters (like à or é) by their ascii equivalents. Is there a function in drupal 6 (or the php libs) that provides a way to slugify a string, and can be used on a template.php file of a drupal theme?

    Read the article

  • How to get the Video-ID of a just uploaded Youtube movie

    - by murze
    Hi, how can i get the video-id of a just uploaded Youtube movie? I'm using this code: $yt = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube($httpClient); // create a new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry object $myVideoEntry = new Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry(); // create a new Zend_Gdata_App_MediaFileSource object $filesource = $yt->newMediaFileSource('mytestmovie.mov'); $filesource->setContentType('video/quicktime'); // set slug header $filesource->setSlug('mytestmovie.mov'); // add the filesource to the video entry $myVideoEntry->setMediaSource($filesource); $myVideoEntry->setVideoTitle('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoDescription('My Test Movie'); $myVideoEntry->setVideoCategory('Comedy'); // Note that category must be a valid YouTube category ! // set keywords, please note that this must be a comma separated string // and that each keyword cannot contain whitespace $myVideoEntry->setVideoTags('cars, funny'); // upload URI for the currently authenticated user $uploadUrl = 'http://uploads.gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/users/default/uploads'; // try to upload the video, catching a Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException if available // or just a regular Zend_Gdata_App_Exception try { $newEntry = $yt->insertEntry($myVideoEntry, $uploadUrl, 'Zend_Gdata_YouTube_VideoEntry'); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_HttpException $httpException) { echo $httpException->getRawResponseBody(); } catch (Zend_Gdata_App_Exception $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } I assume it 'll be a property of $newEntry but i can't seem to find it! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Dealing with expired session for a partially filled form?

    - by aaronls
    I have a large webform, and would like to prompt the user to login if their session expires, or have them login when they submit the form. It seems that having them login when they submit the form creates alot of challenges because they get redirected to the login page and then the postback data for the original form submission is lost. So I'm thinking about how to prompt them to login asynchrounsly when the session expires. So that they stay on the original form page, have a panel appear telling them the session has expired and they need to login, it submits the login asynchronously, the login panel disapears, and the user is still on the original partially filled form and can submit it. Is this easily doable using the existing ASP.NET Membership controls? When they submit the form will I need to worry about the session key? I mean, I am wondering if the session key the form submits will be the original one from before the session expired which won't match the new one generated after logging in again asynchrounously(I still do not understand the details of how ASP.NET tracks authentication/session IDs). Edit: Yes I am actually concerned about authentication expiration. The user must be authenticated for the submitted data to be considered valid.

    Read the article

  • Grails , how do I get an object NOT to save

    - by user350325
    Hello I am new to grails and trying to create a form which allows a user to change the email address associated with his/her account for a site I am creating. It asks for the user for their current password and also for the new email address they want to use. If the user enters the wrong password or an invalid email address then it should reject them with an appropriate error message. Now the email validation can be done through constraints in grails, but the password change has to match their current password. I have implemented this check as a method on a service class. See code below: def saveEmail = { def client = ClientUser.get(session.clientUserID) client.email = params.email if(clientUserService.checkPassword(session.clientUserID , params.password) ==false) { flash.message = "Incorrect Password" client.discard() redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else if(!client.validate()) { flash.message = "Invalid Email Address" redirect(action:'changeEmail') } else { client.save(); session.clientUserID = null; flash.message = "Your email address has been changed, please login again" redirect(controller: 'clientLogin' , action:'index') } } Now what I noticed that was odd was that if I entered an invalid email then it would not save the changes (as expected) BUT if I entered the wrong password and a valid email then it would save the changes and even write them back into the database even though it would give the correct "invalid password" error message. I was puzzled so set break points in all the if/else if/else blocks and found that it was hitting the first if statement as expected and not hitting the others , so it would never come accross a call to the save() method, yet it was saved anyway. After a little research I came accross documentation for the discard() method which you can see used in the code above. So I added this but still no avail. I even tried using discard then reloading the client object from the DB again but still no dice. This is very frustrating and I would be grateful for any help, since I think that this should surely not be a complicated requirement!

    Read the article

  • deactivate ' pin to start ' on Application List page when pinning an app via code using C#?

    - by Ahmed Ali
    i'm creating a windows phone app ,where i've put a button to pin the app to start screen , but when press and hold the app icon on application list screen i find that the pin to start option can be used ShellTile TileToFind = ShellTile.ActiveTiles.FirstOrDefault(x => x.NavigationUri.ToString().Contains("MainPage.xaml")); // Create the Tile if we didn't find that it already exists. if (TileToFind == null) { // Create the Tile object and set some initial properties for the Tile. // The Count value of 12 shows the number 12 on the front of the Tile. Valid values are 1-99. // A Count value of 0 indicates that the Count should not be displayed. StandardTileData NewTileData = new StandardTileData { BackgroundImage = new Uri("300.png", UriKind.Relative), Title = "apptitle", BackTitle = "title", BackContent = "testing ", BackBackgroundImage = null }; // Create the Tile and pin it to Start. This will cause a navigation to Start and a deactivation of our app. ShellTile.Create(new Uri("/MainPage.xaml", UriKind.Relative), NewTileData); } else { MessageBox.Show("Already Pinned"); } how can i disable the user from pinning the application again from application list screen

    Read the article

  • FindControl() from UserControl inside a for loop

    - by Kyle
    I'm creating a usercontrol that will have a series of LinkButtons. I've declared all of my link buttons at the top of my class LinkButton LB1 = new LinkButton(); LinkButton LB2 = new LinkButton(); //... LinkButton LB9 = new LinkButton(); now I'd like to be able to create a loop to access all of those link buttons so I don't have to write them all out every time. I tried something like this within my overridden CreateChildControls() method: for (int i = 1; i < 10; i++) { LinkButton lb = (LinkButton)FindControl("LB" + i.ToString()); lb.Text = i.ToString() + "-Button"; } I keep getting an exception saying that lb.Text... is not set to an instance of an object. I also tried giving all of my LB1, LB2 etc valid Ids. ie: LB1.ID = "LB1"; still not dice. how can I do this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >