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• Java: How do you really force a GC using JVMTI's ForceGargabeCollection?

  - by WizardOfOdds

  I'm not looking for the usual "you can only hint the GC in Java using System.gc()" answers, this is not at all what this question is about. My questions is not subjective and is based on a reality: GC can be forced in Java for a fact. A lot of programs that we use daily do it: IntelliJ IDEA, NetBeans, VisualVM. They all can force GC to happen. How is it done? I take it they're all using JVMTI and more specifically the ForceGarbabeCollection (notice the "Force") but how can I try it for myself? http://java.sun.com/javase/6/docs/platform/jvmti/jvmti.html#ForceGarbageCollection Also note that this question is not about "why" I'd want to do this: the "why" may be "curiosity" or "we're writing a program similar to VisualVM", etc. The question is really "how do you force a GC using JVMTI's ForceGarbageCollection"? Does the JVM needs to be launched with any special parameters? Is any JNI required? If so, what code exactly? Does it only work on Sun VMs? Any complete and compilable example would be most welcome.

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• Accessing class member variables inside a BackgroundWorker's DoWork event handler, and other Backgro

  - by Justin

  Question 1 In the DoWork event handler of a BackgroundWorker, is it safe to access (for both reading and writing) member variables of the class that contains the BackgroundWorker? Is it safe to access other variables that are not declared inside the DoWork event handler itself? Obviously DoWork should not be accessing any UI objects of, say, a WinForms application, as the UI should only be updated from the UI thread. But what about accessing other (not UI-related) member variables? The reason why I ask is that I've seen the occasional comment come up while Googling saying that accessing member variables is not allowed. The only example I can find at the moment is a comment on this MSDN page, which says: Note, that the BGW can cause exceptions if it attempts to access or modify class level variables. All data must be passed to it by delegates and events. And also: NEVER. NEVER. Never try to reference variables not declared inside of DoWork. It may seem to work at times, but in reality you are just getting lucky. As far as I know, MSDN itself does not document any restrictions of this kind (although if I'm wrong, I'd appreciate a link). But comments like these do seem to pop up every now and again. (Of course if DoWork does access/modify a member variable that could be accessed/modified by the main thread at the same time, it is necessary to synchronise access to that field, eg by using a locking object. But the above quotes seem to require a blanket ban of accessing member variables, rather than just synchronising access!) Question 2 To make this into a more general question, are there any other (not documented?) restrictions that users of the BackgroundWorker should be aware of, aside from the above? Any "best practices", perhaps?

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• Actual long double precision does not agree with std::numeric_limits

  - by dmb

  Working on Mac OS X 10.6.2, Intel, with i686-apple-darwin10-g++-4.2.1, and compiling with the -arch x86_64 flag, I just noticed that while... std::numeric_limits<long double>::max_exponent10 = 4932 ...as is expected, when a long double is actually set to a value with exponent greater than 308, it becomes inf--ie in reality it only has 64bit precision instead of 80bit. Also, sizeof() is showing long doubles to be 16 bytes, which they should be. Finally, using gives the same results as . Does anyone know where the discrepancy might be? long double x = 1e308, y = 1e309; cout << std::numeric_limits::max_exponent10 << endl; cout << x << '\t' << y << endl; cout << sizeof(x) << endl; gives 4932 1e+308 inf 16

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• Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

  - by Alix

  Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

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• Function that prints something to std::ostream and returns std::ostream?

  - by dehmann

  I want to write a function that outputs something to a ostream that's passed in, and return the stream, like this: std::ostream& MyPrint(int val, std::ostream* out) { *out << val; return *out; } int main(int argc, char** argv){ std::cout << "Value: " << MyPrint(12, &std::cout) << std::endl; return 0; } It would be convenient to print the value like this and embed the function call in the output operator chain, like I did in main(). It doesn't work, however, and prints this: $ ./a.out 12Value: 0x6013a8 The desired output would be this: Value: 12 How can I fix this? Do I have to define an operator<< instead? UPDATE: Clarified what the desired output would be. UPDATE2: Some people didn't understand why I would print a number like that, using a function instead of printing it directly. This is a simplified example, and in reality the function prints a complex object rather than an int.

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• Count all lists of adjacent nodes stored in an array.

  - by Ben Brodie

  There are many naive approaches to this problem, but I'm looking for a good solution. Here is the problem (will be implemented in Java): You have a function foo(int a, int b) that returns true if 'a' is "adjacent" to 'b' and false if 'a' is not adjacent to 'b'. You have an array such as this [1,4,5,9,3,2,6,15,89,11,24], but in reality has a very long length, like 120, and will be repeated over and over (its a genetic algorithm fitness function) which is why efficiency is important. I want a function that returns the length of each possible 'list' of adjacencies in the array, but not including the 'lists' which simply subsets of a larger list. For example, if foo(1,4) - true, foo(4,5) - true, foo(5,9)- false, foo(9,3) & foo(3,2) & foo(2,6), foo(6,15) - true, then there are 'lists' (1,4,5) and (9,3,2,6), so length 3 and 4. I don't want it to return (3,2,6), though, because this is simply a subset of 9,3,2,6. Thanks.

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• rails i18n - translating text with inside.

  - by egarcia

  Hi there! I'd like to i18n a text that looks like this: Already signed up? Log in! Note that there is a link on the text. On this example it points to google - in reality it will point to my app's log_in_path. I've found two ways of doing this, but none of them looks "right". The first way I know involves having this my en.yml: log_in_message: "Already signed up? <a href='{{url}}'>Log in!</a>" And in my view: <p> <%= t('log_in_message', :url => login_path) %> </p> This works, but having the <a href=...</a> part on the en.yml doesn't look very clean to me. The other option I know is using localized views - login.en.html.erb, and login.es.html.erb. This also doesn't feel right since the only different line would be the aforementioned one; the rest of the view (~30 lines) would be repeated for all views. It would not be very DRY. I guess I could use "localized partials" but that seems too cumberstone; I think I prefer the first option to having so many tiny view files. So my question is: is there a "proper" way to implement this?

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• Inheritance of list-style-type property in Firefox (bug in Firebug?)

  - by Marcel Korpel

  Let's have a look at some comments on a page generated by Wordpress (it's not a site I maintain, I'm just wondering what's going on here). As these pages might disappear in the near future, I've put some screenshots online. Here's what I saw: Obviously, the list-item markers shouldn't be there. So I decided to look at the source using Firebug. As you can see, Firebug claims that the list-style property (containing none) is inherited from ol.commentlist. But if that's the case, why are the circle and the square visible? When checking the computed style, Firebug shows the list-style-types correctly. What's the correct behaviour? I just did a quick check in Chromium, whose Web Inspector gave a better view of reality (the list item markers were also displayed in this browser): According to WebKit, list-style of ol.commentlist isn't inherited, only the default value of list-style-type from the rendering engine. So, we may conclude that the output of both browsers is correct and that Firefox (Firebug) shows an incorrect representation of inherited styles. What does the CSS specification say? Inheritance will transfer the list-style values from OL and UL elements to LI elements. This is the recommended way to specify list style information. Not much about the inheritance of ol properties to uls. Is Firebug wrong in this respect? BTW, I managed to let the markers disappear by just changing line 312 of style.css to ol.commentlist, li.commentlist, ul.children { When also explicitly defining the list-style of ul.children to none, the markers are not painted. You can have a look at screenshots of Firebug and WebKit's Web Inspector in this case, if you like.

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• how do i filter my lucene search results?

  - by Andrew Bullock

  Say my requirement is "search for all users by name, who are over 18" If i were using SQL, i might write something like: Select * from [Users] Where ([firstname] like '%' + @searchTerm + '%' OR [lastname] like '%' + @searchTerm + '%') AND [age] >= 18 However, im having difficulty translating this into lucene.net. This is what i have so far: var parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser({ "firstname", "lastname"}, new StandardAnalyser()); var luceneQuery = parser.Parse(searchterm) var query = FullTextSession.CreateFullTextQuery(luceneQuery, typeof(User)); var results = query.List<User>(); How do i add in the "where age = 18" bit? I've heard about .SetFilter(), but this only accepts LuceneQueries, and not IQueries. If SetFilter is the right thing to use, how do I make the appropriate filter? If not, what do I use and how do i do it? Thanks! P.S. This is a vastly simplified version of what I'm trying to do for clarity, my WHERE clause is actually a lot more complicated than shown here. In reality i need to check if ids exist in subqueries and check a number of unindexed properties. Any solutions given need to support this. Thanks

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• Rails named_scope across multiple tables

  - by wakiki

  I'm trying to tidy up my code by using named_scopes in Rails 2.3.x but where I'm struggling with the has_many :through associations. I'm wondering if I'm putting the scopes in the wrong place... Here's some pseudo code below. The problem is that the :accepted named scope is replicated twice... I could of course call :accepted something different but these are the statuses on the table and it seems wrong to call them something different. Can anyone shed light on whether I'm doing the following correctly or not? I know Rails 3 is out but it's still in beta and it's a big project I'm doing so I can't use it in production yet. class Person < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :connections has_many :contacts, :through => :connections named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["connections.status = ?", Connection::ACCEPTED] # the :accepted named_scope is duplicated named_scope :accepted, :conditions => ["memberships.status = ?", Membership::ACCEPTED] end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :memberships has_many :members, :through => :memberships end class Connection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :contact, :class_name => "Person", :foreign_key => "contact_id" end class Membership < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :person belongs_to :group end I'm trying to run something like person.contacts.accepted and group.members.accepted which are two different things. Shouldn't the named_scopes be in the Membership and Connection classes? One solution is to just call the two different named scope something different in the Person class or even to create separate associations (ie. has_many :accepted_members and has_many :accepted_contacts) but it seems hackish and in reality I have many more than just accepted (ie. banned members, ignored connections, pending, requested etc etc)

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• Avoid the problem with BigDecimal when migrating to Java 1.4 to Java 1.5+

  - by romaintaz

  Hello, I've recently migrated a Java 1.4 application to a Java 6 environment. Unfortunately, I encountered a problem with the BigDecimal storage in a Oracle database. To summarize, when I try to store a "7.65E+7" BigDecimal value (76,500,000.00) in the database, Oracle stores in reality the value of 7,650,000.00. This defect is due to the rewritting of the BigDecimal class in Java 1.5 (see here). In my code, the BigDecimal was created from a double using this kind of code: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal("" + someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... In more than 99% of the cases, everything works fine. Except that in really few case, the bug mentioned above occurs. And that's quite annoying. If I change the previous code to avoid the use of the String constructor of BigDecimal, then I do not encounter the bug in my uses cases: BigDecimal myBD = new BigDecimal(someDoubleValue); someObject.setAmount(myBD); // Now let Hibernate persists my object in DB... However, how can I be sure that this solution is the correct way to handle the use of BigDecimal? So my question is to know how I have to manage my BigDecimal values to avoid this issue: Do not use the new BigDecimal(String) constructor and use directly the new BigDecimal(double)? Force Oracle to use toPlainString() instead of toString() method when dealing with BigDecimal (and in this case how to do that)? Any other solution? Environment information: Java 1.6.0_14 Hibernate 2.1.8 (yes, it is a quite old version) Oracle JDBC 9.0.2.0 and also tested with 10.2.0.3.0 Oracle database 10.2.0.3.0

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• Horizontally align rows in multiple tables using web user control

  - by goku_da_master

  I need to align rows in different tables that are layed out horizontally. I'd prefer to put the html code in a single web user control so I can create as many instances of that control as I want and lay them out horizontally. The problem is, the text in the rows needs to wrap. So some rows may expand vertically and some may not (see the example below). When that happens, the rows in the other tables aren't aligned horizontally. I know I can accomplish all this by using a single table, but that would mean I'd have to duplicate the name, address and phone html code instead of dynamically creating new instances of my user control (in reality there are many more fields than this, but I'm keeping it simple). Is there any way to do this whether with div's, tables or something else? Here's the problem: Mary Jane's address field expands 2 lines, causing her phone field to not align properly with John's and Bob's. Name: John Doe Name: Mary Jane Name: Bob Smith Address: 123 broadway Address: Some really long address Address: Short address Phone: 123-456 that takes up multiple lines Phone: 111-2222 Phone: 456-789 I'm not restricted in any way how to do this (other than using asp.net), but I'd prefer to use a single web control that I instantiate X times at design time (in this example, it's 3 times). I'm using VS2008, and .Net 3.5

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• Java problem with multiple threads when executing a runnable jar file

  - by Spi1988

  I have developed a Java Swing application, which uses the SwingWorker class to perform some long running tasks. When the application is run from the IDE (Netbeans), I can start multiple long running tasks simultaneously without any problem. I created a runnable jar file for the application, in order to be able to run it from outside the IDE. The application when run from this jar file works well with the only exception that it doesn't allow me to start 2 long running tasks simultaneously. When I start the first task (assume it takes 2 minitues to complete), every thing works fine, the UI does not freeze (it never freezes). However, when I try to run another task (assume it takes just 10 seconds, therefore it should finish before the first task) while the first task has not yet completed, nothing seems to happen. In reality, the second task would have started, and also finished its processing, however its results are only displayed once the first task completes. I dunno why this is happening. Is there some restriction on the number of threads which could run simultaneously on the JVM? Are there any jvm arguments which i could try to solve this problem. I hope i explained my problem well. Thanks in advance, Peter Bartolo

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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• qtruby, QUiLoader and respond_to?

  - by Tim Sylvester

  I'm writing a simple Qt4 application in Ruby (using qtruby) to teach myself both. Mostly it has gone well, but in trying to use Ruby's "duck typing" I've run into a snag; respond_to? doesn't seem to reflect reality. irb(main):001:0> require 'rubygems' => true irb(main):002:0> require 'Qt4' => true irb(main):003:0> require 'qtuitools' => true irb(main):004:0> Qt::Application.new(ARGV) => #<Qt::Application:0xc3c9a08 objectName="ruby"> irb(main):005:0> file = Qt::File.new("dlg.ui") { open(Qt::File::ReadOnly) } => #<Qt::File:0xc2e1748 objectName=""> irb(main):006:0> obj = Qt::UiLoader.new().load(file, nil) => #<Qt::Dialog:0xc2bf650 objectName="dlg", x=0, y=0, width=283, height=244> irb(main):007:0> obj.respond_to?('children') => false irb(main):008:0> obj.respond_to?(:children) => false irb(main):009:0> obj.children => [#<Qt::FormInternal::TranslationWatcher:0xc2a1980 objectName="">, ... As you can see, when I check to ensure that the object I get back from loading the UI file has a children accessor I get false. If call that accessor, however, I get an array rather than a NoMethodError. So, is this a bug or have I incorrectly understood respond_to?? This looks like the problem described here, but I thought I would get an expert opinion before filing a bug against the project.

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• Silverlight RIA Services - Showing columns from multiple tables

  - by Villager

  Hello, I have been evaluating Silverlight and .NET RIA Services for my company. I am trying to decide if it is right for us. For the most part, I like it. But, I see one item that I am surprised that I cannot do easily. Because of this, I'm guessing I'm doing some thing wrong. To demonstrate, I have two database tables: Order ----- ID CustomerID OrderDate OrderNumber Customer -------- ID FirstName LastName Address When I create my Domain Service class, I select both of these tables. On the Silverlight application, I drag-and-drop the Order entity from the Data Sources page to my Silverlight page. When I do this, a DataGrid is added with all of the properties in the Order entity. In reality though, I would like the DataGrid to show: Order.OrderNumber Order.OrderDate Customer.FirstName Customer.LastName Because this information is spread across multiple tables, I'm not sure how to use RIA Services to show them in my Silverlight application. What is the recommended way to do this? Should I add a view in my database? Can I do it without touching the database? Thank you,

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• Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

  - by drhirsch

  template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

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• Using Javascript to generate and save a file

  - by Toji

  I've been fiddling with WebGL lately, and have gotten a Collada reader working. Problem is it's pretty slow (Collada is a very verbose format), so I'm going to start converting files to a easier to use format (probably JSON). Thing is, I already have the code to parse the file in Javascript, so I may as well use it as my exporter too! The problem is saving. Now, I know that I can parse the file, send the result to the server, and have the browser request the file back from the server as a download. But in reality the server has nothing to do with this particular process, so why get it involved? I already have the contents of the desired file in memory. Is there any way that I could present the user with a download using pure javascript? (I doubt it, but might as well ask...) And to be clear: I am not trying to access the filesystem without the users knowledge! The user will provide a file (probably via drag and drop), the script will transform the file in memory, and the user will be prompted to download the result. All of which should be "safe" activities as far as the browser is concerned.

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• How should I organize complex SQL views in Rails?

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I manage a research database with Ruby on Rails. The data that is entered is primarily used by scientists who prefer to have all the relevant information for a study in one single massive table for use in their statistics software of choice. I'm currently presenting it as CSV, as it's very straightforward to do and compatible with the tools people want to use. I've written many views (the SQL kind, not the Rails HTML/ERB kind) to make the output they expect a reality. Some of these views are quite large and have a fair amount of complexity behind them. I wrote them in SQL because there are many calculations and comparisons that are more easily done with SQL. They're currently loaded into the database straight from a file named views.sql. To get the requested data, I do a select * from my_view;. The views.sql file is getting quite large. Part of the problem is that we're still figuring out what the data we collect means, so there's a lot of changes being made to the views all the time -- and a ton of them are being created. Many of them need to be repeatable. I've recently run into issues organizing and testing these views. Rails works great for user interface stuff and business logic, but I'm not aware of much existing structure for handling the reporting we require. Some options I've thought of: Should I move them into the most relevant models somehow? Several of the views interact with each other, which makes this situation more complex than just doing a single find_by_sql, so I don't know if they should only be part of the model. Perhaps they should be treated as a "view" in the MVC sense? (That is, they could be moved into app/views/ and live alongside the HTML, perhaps as files named something like my_view.csv.sql which return CSV.) How would you deal with a complex reporting problem like this?

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• How should I organize my mvc templates?

  - by CatZ

  Hi, In the new version of MVC we have been given display and editor templates. I was wondering how to make the best possible use of these. I was at first thinking in the line of creating one for a collection and one for an item in the case I want to display either as a list or single but it does not really make sense to me. I'll show you what I mean and please comment if this is wrong. I have trouble figuring it out myself. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<IEnumerable<DisplayPhoneModel>>" %> <% foreach (var item in Model){%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => item) %> <%}%> So in my tiny reality that would for every item in the model search for a display template for DisplayPhoneModel. That display template could then simply look like. <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<DisplayPhoneModel>" %> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneType) %>&nbsp;<%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.PhoneNumber) %> So, question is if there is a better way to handle this? Am I at all on the right path?

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• Is there a pattern for initializing objects created wth a DI container

  - by Igor Zevaka

  I am trying to get Unity to manage the creation of my objects and I want to have some initialization parameters that are not known until run-time: At the moment the only way I could think of the way to do it is to have an Init method on the interface. interface IMyIntf { void Initialize(string runTimeParam); string RunTimeParam { get; } } Then to use it (in Unity) I would do this: var IMyIntf = unityContainer.Resolve<IMyIntf>(); IMyIntf.Initialize("somevalue"); In this scenario runTimeParam param is determined at run-time based on user input. The trivial case here simply returns the value of runTimeParam but in reality the parameter will be something like file name and initialize method will do something with the file. This creates a number of issues, namely that the Initialize method is available on the interface and can be called multiple times. Setting a flag in the implementation and throwing exception on repeated call to Initialize seems way clunky. At the point where I resolve my interface I don't want to know anything about the implementation of IMyIntf. What I do want, though, is the knowledge that this interface needs certain one time initialization parameters. Is there a way to somehow annotate(attributes?) the interface with this information and pass those to framework when the object is created? Edit: Described the interface a bit more.

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• What does it mean to double license?

  - by Adrian Panasiuk

  What does it mean to double license code? I can't just put both licenses in the source files. That would mean that I mandate users to follow the rules of both of them, but the licenses will probably be contradictory (otherwise there'd be no reason to double license). I guess this is something like in cryptographic chaining, cipher = crypt_2(crypt_1(clear)) (generally) means, that cipher is neither the output of crypt_2 on clear nor the output of crypt_1 on clear. It's the output of the composition. Likewise, in double-licensing, in reality my code has one license, it's just that this new license says please follow all of the rules of license1, or all of the rules of license2, and you are hereby granted the right to redistribute this application under this "double" license, license1 or license2, or any license under which license1 or license2 allow you to redistribute this software, in which case you shall replace the relevant licensing information in this application with that of the new license. (Does this mean that before someone may use the app under license1, he has to perform the operation of redistributing to self? How would he document the fact that he did that operation?) Am I correct. What LICENSE file and what text to put in the source files would I need if I wanted to double license on, for the sake of example, Apachev2 and GPLv3 ?

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• Collision of dot and line in 2D space

  - by Anderiel

  So i'm trying to make my first game on android. The thing is i have a small moving ball and i want it to bounce from a line that i drew. For that i need to find if the x,y of the ball are also coordinates of one dot from the line. I tried to implement these equations about lines x=a1 + t*u1 y=a2 + t*u2 = (x-a1)/u1=(y-a2)/u2 (t=t which has to be if the point is on the line) where x and y are the coordinates im testing, dot[a1,a2] is a dot that is on the line and u(u1,u2) is the vector of the line. heres the code: public boolean Collided() { float u1 =Math.abs(Math.round(begin_X)-Math.round(end_X)); float u2 =Math.abs(Math.round(begin_Y)-Math.round(end_Y)); float t_x =Math.round((elect_X - begin_X)/u1); float t_y =Math.round((elect_Y - begin_Y)/u2); if(t_x==t_y) { return true; } else { return false; } } points [begin_X,end_X] and [begin_Y,end_Y] are the two points from the line and [elect_X,elect_Y] are the coordinates of the ball theoreticaly it should work, but in the reality the ball most of the time just goes straigth through the line or bounces somewhere else where it shouldnt

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