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  • find(:all) and then add data from another table to the object

    - by Koning Baard XIV
    I have two tables: create_table "friendships", :force => true do |t| t.integer "user1_id" t.integer "user2_id" t.boolean "hasaccepted" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end and create_table "users", :force => true do |t| t.string "email" t.string "password" t.string "phone" t.boolean "gender" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" t.string "firstname" t.string "lastname" t.date "birthday" end I need to show the user a list of Friendrequests, so I use this method in my controller: def getfriendrequests respond_to do |format| case params[:id] when "to_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user2_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) when "from_me" @friendrequests = Friendship.find(:all, :conditions => { :user1_id => session[:user], :hasaccepted => false }) end format.xml { render :xml => @friendrequests } format.json { render :json => @friendrequests } end end I do nearly everything using AJAX, so to fetch the First and Last name of the user with UID user2_id (the to_me param comes later, don't worry right now), I need a for loop which make multiple AJAX calls. This sucks and costs much bandwidth. So I'd rather like that getfriendrequests also returns the First and Last name of the corresponding users, so, e.g. the JSON response would not be: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3 } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4 } } ] but rather: [ { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T13:51:31Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 11, "user2_id": 3, "firstname": "Jon", "lastname": "Skeet" } }, { "friendship": { "created_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "user1_id": 2, "updated_at": "2010-02-19T16:31:23Z", "hasaccepted": false, "id": 12, "user2_id": 4, "firstname": "Mark", "lastname": "Gravell" } } ] I thought of a for loop in the getfriendrequests method, but I don't know how to implement this, and maybe there is an easier way. It must also work for XML. Can anyone help me? Thanks

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  • GDI+ double buffering in C++

    - by David Titarenco
    I haven't written anything with GDI for a while now (and never with GDI+), and I'm just working on a fun project, but for the life of me, I can't figure out how to double buffer GDI+ void DrawStuff(HWND hWnd) { HDC hdc; HDC hdcBuffer; PAINTSTRUCT ps; hdc = BeginPaint(hWnd, &ps); hdcBuffer = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); Graphics graphics(hdc); graphics.Clear(Color::Black); // drawing stuff, i.e. bunnies: Image bunny(L"bunny.gif"); graphics.DrawImage(&bunny, 0, 0, bunny.GetWidth(), bunny.GetHeight()); BitBlt(hdc, 0,0, WIDTH , HEIGHT, hdcBuffer, 0,0, SRCCOPY); EndPaint(hWnd, &ps); } The above works (everything renders perfectly), but it flickers. If I change Graphics graphics(hdc); to Graphics graphics(hdcBuffer);, I see nothing (although I should be bitblt'ing the buffer-hWnd hdc at the bottom). My message pipeline is set up properly (WM_PAINT calls DrawStuff), and I'm forcing a WM_PAINT message every program loop by calling RedrawWindow(window, NULL, NULL, RDW_ERASE | RDW_INVALIDATE | RDW_UPDATENOW); I'm probably going about the wrong way to do this, any ideas? The MSDN documentation is cryptic at best.

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  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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  • Manipulating jQuery to retrieve the onclick function of an item which lies directly below the curren

    - by Stevie Jenowski
    First off, I want to thank you for looking into my question as I really do appreciate your time. I've built a list of items using php by having a foreach loop cycle through an associative array printing the array data as parameters of an onclick function call and gives each item it cycles through an ID of $thecount. All items retrieved have the same parent div and calls the very same onclick function, only with 11 different parameters. My question is how do I go about calling the onClick("function();") of an item directly below the current focus, making it the new focus, only without a physical click? If this is confusing to you whatsoever, I'm essentially building a dynamic playlist, and I've already implemented the listener for when the player's current item has finished playing, Now I'm having trouble grasping how I'd go about having the next item in the list become the new focus while also calling it's specific onClick() function once the player returns that it has finished with the current file. All without any user interaction besides the initial play call. If it helps I'm using the most recent release of Longtails' JW Player and once again thank you very much for your time!

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  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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  • List.Sort in C#: comparer being called with null object

    - by cbp
    I am getting strange behaviour using the built-in C# List.Sort function with a custom comparer. For some reason it sometimes calls the comparer class's Compare method with a null object as one of the parameters. But if I check the list with the debugger there are no null objects in the collection. My comparer class looks like this: public class DelegateToComparer<T> : IComparer<T> { private readonly Func<T,T,int> _comparer; public int Compare(T x, T y) { return _comparer(x, y); } public DelegateToComparer(Func<T, T, int> comparer) { _comparer = comparer; } } This allows a delegate to be passed to the List.Sort method, like this: mylist.Sort(new DelegateToComparer<MyClass>( (x, y) => { return x.SomeProp.CompareTo(y.SomeProp); }); So the above delegate will throw a null reference exception for the x parameter, even though no elements of mylist are null. UPDATE: Yes I am absolutely sure that it is parameter x throwing the null reference exception! UPDATE: Instead of using the framework's List.Sort method, I tried a custom sort method (i.e. new BubbleSort().Sort(mylist)) and the problem went away. As I suspected, the List.Sort method passes null to the comparer for some reason.

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  • using Autofac in a multi-layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I'm fairly new to the DI/IoC concept and would like to use Autofac in a 3-layered ASP.NET Webforms application. UI layer: An ASP.NET webforms website. BLL: Business logic layer which calls the repositories on DAL. DAL: .EDMX file (Entity Model) and ObjectContext with Repository classes which abstract the CRUD operations for each entity. Entities: The POCO Entities. Persistence Ignorant. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. I have asked a more general question here. Basically, I'd like to create an obejctcontext per HttpContext in my DAL. But i don't want to add a reference to DAL in UI or access to HttpContext in DAL directly. I guess this is where IoC tools come to play. The answer to my previous question is a very good example of using Windsor Castle. I'd like to use Autofac as my IoC tool and Don't know how to achieve this. (How to access DAL in application_start to register the component while I don't want to reference it in my UI, what are the proper references to be able to use DAL component in BLL with Autofac, Should I register BLL as a component with Autofac too) Sorry folks for not providing an explicit question and requesting a kind of working example, But I'm very unfamiliar to the whole IoC concept and I don't think I can achieve it to use in my current time-limited project.

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  • secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

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  • Good patterns for loose coupling in Java?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. I'm new to java, and while reading documentation so far i can't find any good ways for programming with loose coupling between objects. For majority of languages i know (C++, C#, python, javascript) i can manage objects as having 'signals' (notification about something happens/something needed) and 'slots' (method that can be connected to signal and process notification/do some work). In all mentioned languages i can write something like this: Object1 = new Object1Class(); Object2 = new Object2Class(); Connect( Object1.ItemAdded, Object2.OnItemAdded ); Now if object1 calls/emits ItemAdded, the OnItemAdded method of Object2 will be called. Such loose coupling technique is often referred as 'delegates', 'signal-slot' or 'inversion of control'. Compared to interface pattern, technique mentioned don't need to group signals into some interfaces. Any object's methods can be connected to any delegate as long as signatures match ( C++Qt even extends this by allowing only partial signature match ). So i don't need to write additional interface code for each methods / groups of methods, provide default implementation for interface methods not used etc. And i can't see anything like this in Java :(. Maybe i'm looking a wrong way?

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  • validation control unable to find its control to validate

    - by nat
    i have a repeater that is bound to a number of custom dataitems/types on the itemdatabound event for the repeater the code calls a renderedit function that depending on the custom datatype will render a custom control. it will also (if validation flag is set) render a validation control for the appropriate rendered edit control the edit control overrides the CreateChildControls() method for the custom control adding a number of literalControls thus protected override void CreateChildControls() { //other bits removed - but it is this 'hidden' control i am trying to validate this.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(string.Format( "<input type=\"text\" name=\"{0}\" id=\"{0}\" value=\"{1}\" style=\"display:none;\" \">" , this.UniqueID , this.MediaId.ToString()) )); //some other bits removed } the validation control is rendered like this: where the passed in editcontrol is the control instance of which the above createchildcontrols is a method of.. public override Control RenderValidationControl(Control editControl) { Control ctrl = new PlaceHolder(); RequiredFieldValidator req = new RequiredFieldValidator(); req.ID = editControl.ClientID + "_validator"; req.ControlToValidate = editControl.UniqueID; req.Display = ValidatorDisplay.Dynamic; req.InitialValue = "0"; req.ErrorMessage = this.Caption + " cannot be blank"; ctrl.Controls.Add(req); return ctrl; } the problem is, altho the validation controls .ControlToValidate property is set to the uniqueid of the editcontrol. when i hit the page i get the following error: Unable to find control id 'FieldRepeater$ctl01$ctl00' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'FieldRepeater_ctl01_ctl00_validator'. i have tried changing the literal in the createchildcontrols to a new TextBox(), and then set the id etc then, but i get a similar problem. can anyone enlighten me? is this because of the order the controls are rendered in? ie the validation control is written before the editcontrol? or... anyhow any help much appreciated thanks nat

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  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

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  • RemoteRef.invoke implementation

    - by phill
    Just finished a basic implementation of RMI for a class project, and now I am interested in how it is actually done. Sun is kind enough to provide the source for the majority of the Java classes with the JDK, however an implementation of RemoteRef doesn't seem to be there. I have the source for the interface RemoteRef along with the ServerRef interface and one implementation, ProxyRef, which just calls invoke on another RemoteRef, but none of the classes that implement actual code, ActivatableRef or UnicastRef for example, are included. I mention ActivatableRef and UnicastRef because I believe these have proper implementations of invoke thanks to the wonder that is Eclipse and its class file editor showing that it is more then just a method declaration. Although I can tell that it is more then a declaration, I can't get much more out of it, building a string here, throw exception there, but nothing about the process that is taking place to send the remote method call. Would anyone here happen to know where I can get this code, or if its even available? If it is not available, would anyone happen to know what the message being sent to the server looks like? phill

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  • Is there anyway to close a StreamWriter without closing it's BaseStream?

    - by Binary Worrier
    My root problem is that when using calls Dispose on a StreamWriter, it also disposes the BaseStream (same problem with Close). I have a workaround for this, but as you can see it involves copying the stream. Is there any way to do this without copying the stream? The purpose of this is to get the contents of a string (originally read from a database) into a stream, so the stream can be read by a third party component. NB I cannot change the third party component. public System.IO.Stream CreateStream(string value) { var baseStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); var baseCopy = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); using (var writer = new System.IO.StreamWriter(baseStream, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8)) { writer.Write(value); writer.Flush(); baseStream.WriteTo(baseCopy); } baseCopy.Seek(0, System.IO.SeekOrigin.Begin); return baseCopy; } Used as public void Noddy() { System.IO.Stream myStream = CreateStream("The contents of this string are unimportant"); My3rdPartyComponent.ReadFromStream(myStream); } Ideally I'm looking for an imaginery method called BreakAssociationWithBaseStream, e.g. public System.IO.Stream CreateStream_Alternate(string value) { var baseStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); using (var writer = new System.IO.StreamWriter(baseStream, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8)) { writer.Write(value); writer.Flush(); writer.BreakAssociationWithBaseStream(); } return baseStream; }

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  • Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

    - by Andrew Murray
    Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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  • How do you handle your "Project Manager"

    - by Vecdid
    I currently work for a company who recently has downsized. I do all in house work, client installs, builds,q.a, well basically all the in house work. My direct boss is VERY untechnical and lately I have found it VERY hard to deal with his lack of knowledge. The biggest issues I have had are as follows: I am on many deadlines at a time. I get stopped to put together a half fast quote as I cannot be late on the deadline, in the meantime, three support calls comes in, I give quote, time too much so they outsource it. I then I have to fix everything the vendor broke. I get asked, when an issue arrises, why is the issue occurring and explain in detail, yet that detail means absolutly nothing to him. All he cares about are deadlines, yet he is the one who schdules everything. "I am a programmer not a graphic designer, meaqns nothing to him" I was hired as a .NET programmer, yet they let a vendor choose wordpress for many sites(yeah I had to learn all about it quick) I guess I can go on and on, but has anyone had to deal with this type of project manager? What is some advice, other than finding another job. Thanks in advance, and I made this a wiki, so please don't close...

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  • T4MVC not generating an action

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method. [Authorize] public string Apply(string shortName) { if (shortName.IsNullOrEmpty()) return "Failed alliance name was not transmitted"; if (Request.IsAuthenticated == false || User == null || User.Identity == null) return "Apply authentication failed"; Models.Persistence.AlliancePersistance.Apply(User.Identity.Name, shortName); return "Applied"; } So this method isn't generating in the template after all. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version.

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  • Execute code on assembly load

    - by Dmitriy Matveev
    I'm working on wrapper for some huge unmanaged library. Almost every of it's functions can call some error handler deeply inside. The default error handler writes error to console and calls abort() function. This behavior is undesirable for managed library, so I want to replace the default error handler with my own which will just throw some exception and let program continue normal execution after handling of this exception. The error handler must be changed before any of the wrapped functions will be called. The wrapper library is written in managed c++ with static linkage to wrapped library, so nothing like "a type with hundreds of dll imports" is present. I also can't find a single type which is used by everything inside wrapper library. So I can't solve that problem by defining static constructor in one single type which will execute code I need. I currently see two ways of solving that problem: Define some static method like Library.Initialize() which must be called one time by client before his code will use any part of the wrapper library. Find the most minimal subset of types which is used by every top-level function (I think the size of this subset will be something like 25-50 types) and add static constructors calling Library.Initialize (which will be internal in that scenario) to every of these types. I've read this and this questions, but they didn't helped me. Is there any proper ways of solving that problem? Maybe some nice hacks available?

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  • Retrieve click() handler in jQuery for later use

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I'm using the jQuery tablesorter plugin to sort a table, which assigns .click() handlers to the <th>s in the table. Since my table has alternating colors for each column, I've built a simple fix_table_colors(identifier) function that does as it should when I call it manually using Firebug. I would like, however, to have that automatically called after a sort. To do this, I decided to retrieve the .click() handler from the <th>s, and assign a new handler that simply calls the previous handler, followed by fix_table_colors(). (This SO question is similar, but uses standard onClick() attributes, which won't work here.) From the accepted answer to this question, I have created the following code: $(document).ready(function() { $("table.torrents").tablesorter({ debug: true, headers: { 1: { sorter: 'name' }, 2: { sorter: 'peers' }, 3: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 4: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 5: { sorter: 'filesize' }, 6: { sorter: 'ratio' } } }); $('table.torrents thead th').each(function() { var th = $(this); var clickHandler = th.data('events').click[0]; th.click(function() { clickHandler(); fix_table_colors('table.torrents'); }); }); }); While this is conceptually correct, clickHandler doesn't appear to actually be a function, and so I cannot call it. With a bit more digging in Firebug, I found that click[3] appears to hold the function I'm looking for (and click[10] my new one). I get an 'e is undefined' error on line 2 of tablesorter.min.js when using that, though. Am I even going down the right path? I have a feeling that with what I've found so far, I can make this work, but it's going to be much uglier than I would expect it needs to be.

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  • Factory Pattern: Determining concrete factory class instantiation?

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to learn patterns and I'm stuck on determining how or where a Factory Pattern determines what class to instanciate. If I have a Application that calls the factory and sends it, say, an xml config file to determine what type of action to take, where does that logic for interpreting the config file happen? THE FACTORY using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace myNamespace { public abstract class SourceFactory { abstract public UploadSource getUploadSource(); } public class TextSourceFactory : SourceFactory { public override UploadSource getUploadSource() { return new TextUploadSource(); } } public class XmlSourceFacotry : SourceFactory { public override UploadSource getUploadSource() { return new XmlUploadSource(); } } public class SqlSourceFactory : SourceFactory { public override UploadSource getUploadSource() { return new SqlUploadSource(); } } } THE CLASSES using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace myNamespace { public abstract class UploadSource { abstract public void Execute(); } public class TextUploadSource : UploadSource { public override void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("You executed a text upload source"); } } public class XmlUploadSource : UploadSource { public override void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("You executed an XML upload source"); } } public class SqlUploadSource : UploadSource { public override void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("You executed a SQL upload source"); } } }

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  • Extending EF4 SQL Generation

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, We're using EF4 in a fairly large system and occasionally run into problems due to EF4 being unable to convert certain expressions into SQL. At present, we either need to do some fancy footwork (DB/Code) or just accept the performance hit and allow the query to be executed in-memory. Needless to say neither of these is ideal and the hacks we've sometimes had to use reduce readability / maintainability. What we would ideally like is a way to extend the SQL generation capabilities of the EF4 SQL provider. Obviously there are some things like .Net method calls which will always have to be client-side but some functionality like date comparisons (eg Group by weeks in Linq to Entities ) should be do-able. I've Googled but perhaps I'm using the wrong terminology as all I get is information about the new features of EF4 SQL Generation. For such a flexible and extensible framework, I'd be surprised if this isn't possible. In my head, I'm imagining inheriting from the [SQL 2008] provider and extending it to handle additional expressions / similar in the expression tree it's given to convert to SQL. Any help/pointers appreciated. We're using VS2010 Ultimate, .Net 4 (non-client profile) and EF4. The app is in ASP.Net and is running in a 64-Bit environment in case it makes a difference.

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  • Silverlight RIA Services - how to do Windows Authentication?

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I am building my first Silverlight 3 + RI Services application and need some help. It will be deployed in an controlled corporate intranet, 100% windows clients. I have started from the Silverlight Business Application template. These are my requirements: Upon launch the application needs to recognize the currently logged-in user. The application needs to have access to other properties of the user in AD, such as email, full name, and group membership. Group membership is used to grand certain features in the application. A "login as a different user" link is to be always available - Some machines are available throughout the enterprise, logged-in as a certain generic user (verified by the absence of certain membership groups). In this case one can enter credentials and log in (impersonate) to the application as a user different from the one already logged-into the machine. This user is to be used in service calls I have modified the following in the default Business Application template: App.xaml: appsvc:WindowsAuthentication instead of the default FormsAuthentication Web.config: authentication mode="Windows" With these modifications I resolve requirement #1 (get the currently logged-in user). But when I examine RiaContext.Current.User, I don't have access to other properties from AD, such as group memberships. How can I achieve my other requirements? Thanks for your help.

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  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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  • img onload doesn't work well in IE7

    - by rmeador
    I have an img tag in my webapp that uses the onload handler to resize the image: <img onLoad="SizeImage(this);" src="foo" > This works fine in Firefox 3, but fails in IE7 because the image object being passed to the SizeImage() function has a width and height of 0 for some reason -- maybe IE calls the function before it finishes loading?. In researching this, I have discovered that other people have had this same problem with IE. I have also discovered that this isn't valid HTML 4. This is our doctype, so I don't know if it's valid or not: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Is there a reasonable solution for resizing an image as it is loaded, preferably one that is standards-compliant? The image is being used for the user to upload a photo of themselves, which can be nearly any size, and we want to display it at a maximum of 150x150. If your solution is to resize the image server-side on upload, I know that is the correct solution, but I am forbidden from implementing it :( It must be done client side, and it must be done on display. Thanks. Edit: Due to the structure of our app, it is impractical (bordering on impossible) to run this script in the document's onload. I can only reasonably edit the image tag and the code near it (for instance I could add a <script> right below it). Also, we already have Prototype and EXT JS libraries... management would prefer to not have to add another (some answers have suggested jQuery). If this can be solved using those frameworks, that would be great. Edit 2: Unfortunately, we must support Firefox 3, IE 6 and IE 7. It is desirable to support all Webkit-based browsers as well, but as our site doesn't currently support them, we can tolerate solutions that only work in the Big 3.

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  • Problem calling web service from within JBOSS EJB Service

    - by Rob Goodwin
    I have a simple web service sitting on our internal network. I used SOAPUI to do a bit of testing, generated the service classes from the WSDL , and wrote some java code to access the service. All went as expected as I was able to create the service proxy classes and make calls. Pretty simple stuff. The only speed bump was getting java to trust the certificate from the machine providing the web service. That was not a technical problem, but rather my lack of experience with SSL based web services. Now onto my problem. I coded up a simple EJB service and deployed it into JBoss Application Server 4.3 and now get the following error in the code that previously worked. 12:21:50,235 WARN [ServiceDelegateImpl] Cannot access wsdlURL: https://WS-Test/TestService/v2/TestService?wsdl I can access the wsdl file from a web browser running on the same machine as the application server using the URL in the error message. I am at a loss as to where to go from here. I turned on the debug logs in JBOSS and got nothing more than what I showed above. I have done some searching on the net and found the same error in some questions, but those questions had no answers. The web services classes where generated with JAX-WS 2.2 using the wsimport ant task and placed in a jar that is included in the ejb package. JBoss is deployed in RHEL 5.4, where the standalone testing was done on Windows XP.

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