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  • WCF App using Peer Chat app as example does not work.

    - by splate
    I converted a VB .Net 3.5 app to use peer to peer WCF using the available Microsoft example of the Chat app. I made sure that I copied the app.config file for the sample(modified the names for my app), added the appropriate references. I followed all the tutorials and added the appropriate tags and structure in my app code. Everything runs without any errors, but the clients only get messages from themselves and not from the other clients. The sample chat application does run just fine with multiple clients. The only difference I could find is that the server on the sample is targeting the framework 2.0, but I assume that is wrong and it is building it in at least 3.0 or the System.ServiceModel reference would break. Is there something that has to be registered that the sample is doing behind the scenes or is the sample a special project type? I am confused. My next step is to copy all my classes and logic from my app to the sample app, but that is likely a lot of work. Here is my Client App.config: <client><endpoint name="thldmEndPoint" address="net.p2p://thldmMesh/thldmServer" binding="netPeerTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PeerTcpConfig" contract="THLDM_Client.IGameService"></endpoint></client> <bindings><netPeerTcpBinding> <binding name="PeerTcpConfig" port="0"> <security mode="None"></security> <resolver mode="Custom"> <custom address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig"></custom> </resolver> </binding></netPeerTcpBinding> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Here is my server App.config: <services> <service name="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.CustomPeerResolverService"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="net.tcp://localhost/thldmServer" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TcpConfig" contract="System.ServiceModel.PeerResolvers.IPeerResolverContract"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="TcpConfig"> <security mode="None"></security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> Thanks ahead of time.

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  • Content alignment for Gridviewcolumn in the listview

    - by Pankaj Upadhyay
    Please see the picture below Following is the code for this :: <Grid> <ListView Style="{StaticResource listViewStyle}" Name="transactionListView" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Top" ItemsSource="{Binding}" MouseDoubleClick="transactionListView_MouseDoubleClick" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" > <ListView.View> <GridView ColumnHeaderContainerStyle="{StaticResource gridViewHeaderColumnStyle}"> <GridView.Columns> <GridViewColumn Width="70" Header="Serial" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Serial}" /> <GridViewColumn Width="100" Header="Date" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Date, StringFormat={}{0:dd-MM-yyyy}}" /> <GridViewColumn Width="200" Header="Seller" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Seller}" /> <GridViewColumn Width="200" Header="Buyer" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Buyer}" /> <GridViewColumn Width="70" Header="Bales" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Bales}" /> </GridView.Columns> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> </Grid>

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  • WPF How to bind to a specific element in the Collection

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi, I want to make a binding to a specific element in the Collection. But I cannot figure out how to write the Binding. This is the code: public class MySource { .. public string SomeProp; public ICollection<T> MyCollection; .. } this.DataContext = new MySource(); <TextBox Text={Binding SomeProp} /> <TextBox Text={Binding FIRST_ELEMENT_OF_THE_MyCollection} /> <TextBox Text={Binding SECOND_ELEMENT_OF_THE_MyCollection} /> <!--Ignore other elements--> Try to replace those binding strings, please Thank you

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  • WPF MVVM UserControl Binding "Container", dispose to avoid memory leak.

    - by user178657
    For simplicity. I have a window, with a bindable usercontrol <UserControl Content="{Binding Path = BindingControl, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"> I have two user controls, ControlA, and ControlB, Both UserControls have their own Datacontext ViewModel, ControlAViewModel and ControlBViewModel. Both ControlAViewModel and ControlBViewModel inh. from a "ViewModelBase" public abstract class ViewModelBase : DependencyObject, INotifyPropertyChanged, IDisposable........ Main window was added to IoC... To set the property of the Bindable UC, i do ComponentRepository.Resolve<MainViewWindow>().Bindingcontrol= new ControlA; ControlA, in its Datacontext, creates a DispatcherTimer, to do "somestuff".. Later on., I need to navigate elsewhere, so the other usercontrol is loaded into the container ComponentRepository.Resolve<MainViewWindow>().Bindingcontrol= new ControlB If i put a break point in the "someStuff" that was in ControlA's datacontext. The DispatcherTimer is still running... i.e. loading a new usercontrol into the bindable Usercontrol on mainwindow does not dispose/close/GC the DispatcherTimer that was created in the DataContext View Model... Ive looked around, and as stated by others, dispose doesnt get called because its not supposed to... :) Not all my usercontrols have DispatcherTimer, just a few that need to do some sort of "read and refresh" updates./. Should i track these DispatcherTimer objects in the ViewModelBase that all Usercontrols inh. and manually stop/dispose them everytime a new usercontrol is loaded? Is there a better way?

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  • In which order is model binding and validation done in ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Simon Bartlett
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 2, and am using a view-model per view approach. I am also using Automapper to map properties from my domain-model to the view-model. Take this example view-model (with Required data annotation attributes for validation purposes): public class BlogPost_ViewModel { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public string Text { get; set; } } In the post editor view I am using a rich text editor (CKeditor). Because CKeditor is a HTML editor, I ideally need CKeditor to HTMLencode the user's input when the form is submitted, so that ASP.NET's input validation does not complain. This is not a problem as CKeditor has this functionality built in, however I need CKeditor's output decoded before mapping back to the domain object (via Automapper). I am wanting to add a new property (to the view-model above) to solve this, as follows: public string HTMLEncodedText { get { return HTMLEncode(Text); } set { Text = HTMLDecode(value); } } I can then bind this property to CKeditor in the view, but still use Automapper to map the 'Text' property in the controller - all without having to turn input-validation off. My question is: do you know how the model binding and validation process in ASP.NET MVC 2 works? Are all model properties binded before validation is carried out? Or is each individual property get validated when it is being set. I think ideally for my idea to work, all properties need to be set before the model is validated.

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  • Asp.Net MVC - Binding of parameter to model value!

    - by Pino
    This seems like the model binding is causing me issues. Essentially I have a model called ProductOption and for the purpose of this question it has 2 fields ID (Int) PK ProductID (Int) FK I have a standard route set-up context.MapRoute( "Product_default", "Product/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Product", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); and if the user wants to add an option the URL is, /Product/Options/Add/1 in the above URL 1 is the ProductID, I have the following code to return a blank model the the view, [HttpGet] public ActionResult Add(int id) { return View("Manage", new ProductOptionModel() { ProductID = id }); } Now in my view I keep a hidden field <%= Html.HiddenFor(x=>x.ID) %> This is used to determine (on submit) if we are editing or adding a new option. However the Model binder in .net seems to replace .ID (Which was 0 when leaving the above get actionresult) with 1 (or the value of the id parameter in the URL) How can I stop or work around this? ViewModel public class ProductExtraModel { //Database public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int ProductID { get; set; } public ProductModel Product { get; set; } }

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  • Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

    - by dw
    Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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  • Displaying a collection of objects in a .Net grid on a smartphone without data binding.

    - by Xav
    I know there's No DataGridView in the CF, but I've got a collection of in-memory objects that I want to display in a grid on a phone. Options I have thought of: Stick all the objects into a SQL-CE database and use a bound datagrid. This'll mean pulling my classes apart and separating the data from the functionality, which may or may not be a bad thing, but seems a little overkill. Write my own dataset and binding code so that I can bind my collection of objects to a bound datagrid. No idea how practical or possible this is, but seems like it's either do-able or impossible and I'm hoping someone here knows which! Find a third-party unbound grid control. The only one I've seen mentioned is OpenNetCF, which I'm downloading as I type. Are there others? Are any of them any good? Do something very nasty with dynamically loading labels and textboxes into a scrolling region on the form. REALLY don't want to go there. I'm not much experienced with data-bound controls other than occasionally making use of the very vanilla functionality in WinForms or ASP.Net, and that quite a long time ago, so if any of the above are silly, please be gentle. Thanks Xav

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  • How do I format a Uri when binding an Image in Silverlight?

    - by Scott
    I haven't been able to find an answer to this. I have a database that has image paths in it ("images/myimage.jpg"). These images exist on my asp.net site which is also where I host the SL. I want to bind these images to my ListBox control so that the image displays. I have read that since I have a string value, "images/myimage.jpg", that I need to convert it to a BitMap image. I have done this: the xaml: <Image Source="{Binding ImageFile, Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/> the ImageConverter class: public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { try { Uri source= new Uri(value.ToString()); return new BitmapImage(source); } catch(Exception ex) { return new BitmapImage(); } } I get an error when creating the Uri, "The Format of the URI could not be determined". What am I doing wrong? If I create a Uri that looks like this: http://localhost:49723/images/myimage.jpg, it works just fine. Why doesn't just "images/myimage.jpg" work?

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  • In Silverlight, what structures, aside of the ListBox, can be used for binding?

    - by Aidenn
    I need to simply provide the content of a property to a custom User Control in Silverlight. My control is something like this: <UserControl x:Class="SilverlightApplication.Header" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="300" d:DesignHeight="120"> <Grid x:Name="Header_Layout"> <StackPanel x:Name="hiHeaderContent" Width="Auto" Margin="73,8,8,8"> <TextBlock x:Name="User:" Text="{Binding name}" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> I try to use this User Control from another control where I try to pass the parameter "name" to the previous UserControl ("Header"). I don't need to create a "ListBox" as I will only have 1 header, so I try to avoid doing: <ListBox x:Name="HeaderListBox" Grid.Row="0"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <SilverlightApplication:Header/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> in order to send the "User" account using: HeaderListBox.ItemsSource = name; Is there any other structure I can use instead of the ListBox to pass the parameter just once? It won't be a list, it's just a header... Thank you!

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  • Log rotation daemons (e.g. logadm) versus Custom bash scripts?

    - by victorhooi
    Hi, We have a number of applications that generate fairly large (500Mb a day) logfiles that we need to archive/compress on a daily basis. Currently, the log rotation/moving/compressions is done either via custom bash scripts and scheduled via Cron, or in the application's code itself. What (if any) are the advantages of using a system daemon like logadm? (These are Solaris boxes). Cheers, Victor

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  • Why can't I use SSL certs imported via Server Admin in a custom Apache install?

    - by morgant
    I've got a couple of Mac OS X 10.6.8 Server web servers that run a custom AMP255 (Apache 2.x, MySQL 5.x, and PHP 5.x) stack installed using MacPorts. We've got a lot of Mac OS X Server servers and generally install SSL certs via Server Admin and they "just work" in the built-in services, however, these web servers have always had SSL certs installed in a non-standard location and used only for Apache. Long story short, we're trying to standardize this part of our administration and install certs via Server Admin, but have run into the following issue: when the certs are installed via Server Admin and referenced in our Apache conf files, Apache then prompts for a password upon trying to start. It does not seem to be any password we know, certainly not the admin or keychain passwords! We've added the _www user to the certusers (mainly just to ensure they have the proper access to the private key in /etc/certificates/). So, with the custom installed certs we have the following files (basically just pasted in from the company we purchase our certs from): -rw-r--r-- 1 root admin 1395 Apr 10 11:22 *.domain.tld.ca -rw-r--r-- 1 root admin 1656 Apr 10 11:21 *.domain.tld.cert -rw-r--r-- 1 root admin 1680 Apr 10 11:22 *.domain.tld.key And the following in the VirtualHost in /opt/local/apache2/conf/extra/httpd-ssl.conf: SSLCertificateFile /path/to/certs/*.domain.tld.cert SSLCertificateKeyFile /path/to/certs/*.domain.tld.key SSLCACertificateFile /path/to/certs/*.domain.tld.ca This setup functions normally. If we use the certs installed via Server Admin, which both Server Admin & Keychain Assistant show as valid, they're installed in /etc/certificates/ as follows: -rw-r--r-- 1 root wheel 1655 Apr 9 13:44 *.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.cert.pem -rw-r--r-- 1 root wheel 4266 Apr 9 13:44 *.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.chain.pem -rw-r----- 1 root certusers 3406 Apr 9 13:44 *.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.concat.pem -rw-r----- 1 root certusers 1751 Apr 9 13:44 *.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem And if we replace the aforementioned lines in our httpd-ssl.conf with the following: SSLCertificateFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.cert.pem SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.chain.pem This prompts for the unknown password. I have also tried httpd-ssl.conf configured as follows: SSLCertificateFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.cert.pem SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem SSLCertificateChainFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.concat.pem And as: SSLCertificateFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.cert.pem SSLCertificateKeyFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem SSLCACertificateFile /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.chain.pem We've verified that the certificate is configured to allow all applications access it (in Keychain Assistant). A diff of the /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem & *.domain.tld.key files shows the former is encrypted and the latter is not, so we're assuming that Server Admin/Keychain Assistant is encrypting them for some reason. I know I can create an unencrypted key file as follows: sudo openssl rsa -in /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.pem -out /etc/certificates/*.domain.tld.SOMELONGHASH.key.no_password.pem But, I can't do that without entering the password. I thought maybe I could export an unencrypted copy of the key from Keychain Admin, but I'm not seeing such an option (not to mention that the .pem options are greyed out in all export options). Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I add Outlook Office to Add or Programs\Set Program Access and Defaults\Custom options?

    - by Greg
    I have recreated a new email user on a Windows SBS 2003 Active Directory via Advanced Management. I need to enable Outlook Office access on the user's PC but Microsoft Outlook Office does not show in the Add Programs\Set Program Access\Custom section. There are tools that allow you to hide the icon for Set program access but I need to add content, specifically Outlook Office. Outlook Express is enabled but I don't need it.

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  • Does HyperV allow binding physical NIC on virtual machine with promiscues mode?

    - by MadBoy
    I have HyperV on Windows 2008 Enterprise R2 installed with some Virtual Server running that I wanted to have ISA or NTOP to monitor traffic. I've added additional physical NIC to server and wanted to use this NIC as traffic monitor (I've enabled port mirroring on switch). I can see on physical machine that runs HyperV a lot of traffic coming to the NIC so port mirroring works fine. However in virtual machine even thou I've assigned that NIC to only this one and only server it sees 0 packets. In VWMare Workstation it worked without problem and I could see mirrored traffic on VM. Should this be possible or HyperV is crippled?

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  • How do I pick a custom font in Lyx?

    - by Eisaj
    How do I pick a custom font using Lyx? All I see are options to pick Roman/Serif/Typewriter and then a few preset faces, but I have hundreds of fonts on my system and want to be able to use them! Don't make me resort to Microsoft Word! Thanks!

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  • How can I change the binding order of network adapters in Windows 7?

    - by Chris Farmer
    The end goal here is that I am trying to install an Oracle 10g server on my Windows 7 x64 dev box. I use DHCP, and the Oracle installer is throwing up this warning: Checking Network Configuration requirements ... Check complete. The overall result of this check is: Failed <<<< Problem: The install has detected that the primary IP address of the system is DHCP-assigned. Recommendation: Oracle supports installations on systems with DHCP-assigned IP addresses; However, before you can do this, you must configure the Microsoft LoopBack Adapter to be the primary network adapter on the system. See the Installation Guide for more details on installing the software on systems configured with DHCP. I have installed the loopback adapter, but I am not sure how to make it the primary network adapter. I see this Microsoft KB article on the subject but it's Windows XP-oriented, and I can't seem to find a comparable one for Windows 7. Some of the options it talks about don't seem to be present in the views of the adapters that I see. So, how can I make the loopback adapter become the primary adapter?

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  • Opscode Chef Ohai plugin - How to get a custom plugin to run automatically?

    - by JDS
    The Ohai docs are incomplete. Here's what I've been able to do so far: I've created a custom plugin that adds one piece of node data called "my_custom_data" it works when I load it manually in IRB I've used the Ohai cookbook to get it loaded on the servers that need it However, Ohai doesn't load it, neither during Chef runs nor if I run Ohai manually. The docs, here, are of little use in answering this question. http://docs.opscode.com/ohai.html

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  • Binding services to localhost and using SSH tunnels - can requests be forged?

    - by Martin
    Given a typical webserver, with Apache2, common PHP scripts and a DNS server, would it be sufficient from a security perspective to bind administration interfaces like phpmyadmin to localhost and access it via SSH tunnels? Or could somebody, who knew eg. that phpmyadmin (or any other commonly availible script) is listening at a certain port on localhost easily forge requests that would be executed if no other authentication was present? In other words: could somebody from somewhere in the internet easily forge a request, so that the webserver would accept it, thinking it originated from 127.0.0.1 if the server is listening on 127.0.0.1 only? If there were a risk, could it be somehow dealt with on a lower level than the application, eg. by using iptables? The idea being, that if someone found a weakness in a php script or apache, the network would still block this request because it did not arrive via a SSH-tunnel?

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