Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 204/278 | < Previous Page | 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211  | Next Page >

  • Need help in resolving a compiler error: error: invalid conversion from ‘int’ to ‘GIOCondition’

    - by michael
    I have a simple cpp file which uses GIO. I have stripped out everything to show my compile error: Here is the error I get: My.cpp:16: error: invalid conversion from ‘int’ to ‘GIOCondition’ make[2]: *** [My.o] Error 1 Here is the complete file: #include <glib.h> static gboolean read_socket (GIOChannel *gio, GIOCondition condition, gpointer data) { return false; } void createGIOChannel() { GIOChannel* gioChannel = g_io_channel_unix_new(0); // the following is the line causing the error: g_io_add_watch(gioChannel, G_IO_IN|G_IO_HUP, read_socket, NULL); } I have seen other example using gio, and I am doing the same thing in term of calling G_IO_IN|G_IO_HUP. And the documentation http://www.gtk.org/api/2.6/glib/glib-IO-Channels.html, said I only need to include , which I did. Can you please tell me how to resolve my error? One thing I can think of is I am doing this in a cpp file. But g_io_add_watch is a c function? Thank you for any help. I have spent hours on this but did not get anywhere.

    Read the article

  • Which Django 1.2.x multilingual application to use?

    - by mawimawi
    There are a couple of different applications for internationalized content in Django. As of now I only have used http://code.google.com/p/django-multilingual/ in my production environments, but I wonder if there are "better" solutions for my wishes. What my staff users need is the following: An object is being created by a staff user in any language (e.g. "de") This object should be displayed in the german version of the website. When a staff user translates the object into a different language (e.g. "fr"), then the page must be visible in the french version as well. If an object is not translated in the visitor's currently selected language (e.g. "en"), then calling the objects url shall raise a 404 Error (or even better a notice that the object is only available in the languages "de" and "fr", and the visitor might be able to select one of the languages) My staff users are working in the admin interface, so the multilingual application must support this as well. I don't really care whether the multilingual app uses a single table with many fields (like title_en, title_de, title_fr) or a foreign key to a related table (as it is implemented in django-multlingual). I only want it to have a good admin interface and no "default" language, because some content might be available just in "de", and some other just in "fr" and "en". And the most important issue of course is compatibility with Django 1.2.x. What are your experiences and preferred apps, and why?

    Read the article

  • Policy file error while loading images form facebook

    - by Fahim Akhter
    Hi, I making a game leaderboard on facebook. I'm not using connect but working inside the canvas. When I try to load the images from facebook it gives me the following error. SecurityError: Error #2122: Security sandbox violation: Loader.content: http://test cannot access http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg A policy file is required, but the checkPolicyFile flag was not set when this media was loaded. Here is my loader code public var preLoader:Loader; preLoader=new Loader(); **update** Security.loadPolicyFile('http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml'); Security.allowDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); Security.allowInsecureDomain('http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net'); **update-end** public function imageContainer(Imagewidth:Number,Imageheight:Number,url:String,path:String) { preLoader=new Loader(); Security.loadPolicyFile("http://api.facebook.com/crossdomain.xml"); var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(); context.checkPolicyFile = true; context.applicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; preLoader.load(new URLRequest(path),context); Any Ideas? I am importing the right class though. UPDATE: I am loading the images from a different domain say , calling func http://fahim.com images are from http://profile.ak.fbcdn.net/v22941/254/15/q652310588_2173.jpg something ( I have made sure the pictures are static do not require a facebook login or anything , they are just user public profile pictures)

    Read the article

  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

    Read the article

  • Jquery getJSON to external PHP page

    - by Pmarcoen
    I've been trying to make an ajax request to an external server. I've learned so far that I need to use getJSON to do this because of security reasons ? Now, I can't seem to make a simple call to an external page. I've tried to simplify it down as much as I can but it's still not working. I have 2 files, test.html & test.php my test.html makes a call like this, to localhost for testing : $.getJSON("http://localhost/OutVoice/services/test.php", function(json){ alert("JSON Data: " + json); }); and I want my test.php to return a simple 'test' : $results = "test"; echo json_encode($results); I'm probably making some incredible rookie mistake but I can't seem to figure it out. Also, if this works, how can I send data to my test.php page, like you would do like test.php?id=15 ? The test.html page is calling the test.php page on localhost, same directory I don't get any errors, just no alert ..

    Read the article

  • Execute multiple command lines with the same process using C#

    - by rima
    Hi according to my last question here I try to write a sql Editor or some thing like this,in this way I try to connect to CMD from C# and execute my command. now my problem is for example I connect to SQLPLUS after that I cant get SQLPLUS command,and the other resource I review don't satisfy me.Please help me how after I connected to Sqlplus ,I can a live my process to run my sql command? right now I use this code: //Create process System.Diagnostics.Process pProcess = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); //strCommand is path and file name of command to run pProcess.StartInfo.FileName = strCommand; //strCommandParameters are parameters to pass to program pProcess.StartInfo.Arguments = strCommandParameters; pProcess.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; //Set output of program to be written to process output stream pProcess.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; //Optional pProcess.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = strWorkingDirectory; //Start the process pProcess.Start(); //Get program output string strOutput = pProcess.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); //Wait for process to finish pProcess.WaitForExit(); but i customize it.I separate the initialize, i mean i just create process object one time,but I still have problem. to run the second command I use these codes for second time calling: pProcess.StartInfo.FileName = strCommand; //strCommandParameters are parameters to pass to program pProcess.StartInfo.Arguments = strCommandParameters; //Start the process pProcess.Start(); //Get program output string strOutput = pProcess.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd(); //Wait for process to finish pProcess.WaitForExit(); Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • A simple WCF Service (POX) without complex serialization

    - by jammer59
    I'm a complete WCF novice. I'm trying to build a deploy a very, very simple IIS 7.0 hosted web service. For reasons outside of my control it must be WCF and not ASMX. It's a wrapper service for a pre-existing web application that simply does the following: 1) Receives a POST request with the request body XML-encapsulated form elements. Something like valuevalue. This is untyped XML and the XML is atomic (a form) and not a list of records/objects. 2) Add a couple of tags to the request XML and the invoke another HTTP-based service with a simple POST + bare XML -- this will actually be added by some internal SQL ops but that isn't the issue. 3) Receive the XML response from the 3rd party service and relay it as the response to the original calling client in Step 1. The clients (step 1) will be some sort of web-based scripting but could be anything .aspx, python, php, etc. I can't have SOAP and the usual WCF-based REST examples with their contracts and serialization have me confused. This seems like a very common and very simple problem conceptually. It would be easy to implement in code but IIS-hosted WCF is a requirement. Any pointers?

    Read the article

  • On IE cursor is comming always at start in textarea

    - by pravin
    I am dealing with textarea, and on click of this I am calling one replace function which will remove some specified string in textarea, this is the basic operation. Expected behavior after clicking on textarea 1) At first click : It should remove specified string from textarea Cursor should come at end of string 2) more than one click : - Cursor should come at where ever user clicks in text area Below is my replace function.... function replace(id,transFromDb) { newStr = $("#"+id).val(); var len = null; if(transFromDb == '') { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); } else { newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message28,''); newStr = newStr.replace(Lang.Message27,''); } /* change font weight as bold. */ $("#"+id).css({"fontWeight":"bold"}); $("#"+id).val(newStr); } Assume that Lang.Message is specified string. It's working above behavior with FF. Facing issue on IE, it always keep cursor position at first. Please provide any solution.... Thanks in Adavance Pravin

    Read the article

  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

    Read the article

  • CAS authentication and redirects with jQuery Ajax

    - by Steve Nay
    I've got an HTML page that needs to make requests to a CAS-protected (Central Authentication Service) web service using the jQuery AJAX functions. I've got the following code: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: request, dataType: "json", complete: function(xmlHttp) { console.log(xmlHttp); alert(xmlHttp.status); }, success: handleRedirects }); The request variable can be either to the CAS server (https://cas.mydomain.com/login?service=myServiceURL) or directly to the service (which should then redirect back to CAS to get a service ticket). Firebug shows that the request is being made and that it comes back as a 302 redirect. However, the $.ajax() function isn't handling the redirect. I wrote this function to work around this: var handleRedirects = function(data, textStatus) { console.log(data, textStatus); if (data.redirect) { console.log("Calling a redirect: " + data.redirect); $.get(data.redirect, handleRedirects); } else { //function that handles the actual data processing gotResponse(data); } }; However, even with this, the handleRedirects function never gets called, and the xmlHttp.status always returns 0. It also doesn't look like the cookies are getting sent with the cas.mydomain.com call. (See this question for a similar problem.) Is this a problem with the AJAX calls not handling redirects, or is there more going on here than meets the eye?

    Read the article

  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

    Read the article

  • How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

    - by Adrian O'Connor
    I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate triggering constraint violations using orphanRemoval

    - by ptomli
    I'm having trouble with a JPA/Hibernate (3.5.3) setup, where I have an entity, an "Account" class, which has a list of child entities, "Contact" instances. I'm trying to be able to add/remove instances of Contact into a List<Contact> property of Account. Adding a new instance into the set and calling saveOrUpdate(account) persists everything lovely. If I then choose to remove the contact from the list and again call saveOrUpdate, the SQL Hibernate seems to produce involves setting the account_id column to null, which violates a database constraint. What am I doing wrong? The code below is clearly a simplified abstract but I think it covers the problem as I'm seeing the same results in different code, which really is about this simple. SQL: CREATE TABLE account ( INT account_id ); CREATE TABLE contact ( INT contact_id, INT account_id REFERENCES account (account_id) ); Java: @Entity class Account { @Id @Column public Long id; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, orphanRemoval = true) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id") public List<Contact> contacts; } @Entity class Contact { @Id @Column public Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "account_id", nullable = false) public Account account; } Account account = new Account(); Contact contact = new Contact(); account.contacts.add(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); // some time later, like another servlet request.... account.contacts.remove(contact); saveOrUpdate(account); Result: UPDATE contact SET account_id = null WHERE contact_id = ? Edit #1: It might be that this is actually a bug http://opensource.atlassian.com/projects/hibernate/browse/HHH-5091

    Read the article

  • How can I get the dimensions of a drawn string without padding?

    - by Dan Herbert
    I'm trying to create an image with some text on it and I want the image's size to match the size of the rendered text. When I use System.Windows.Forms.TextRenderer.MeasureText(...) to measure the text, I get dimensions that include font padding. When the text is rendered, it seems to use the same padding. Is there any way to determine the size of a string of text and then render it without any padding? This is the code I've tried: // Measure the text dimensions var text = "Hello World"; var fontFamily = new Font("Arial", 30, FontStyle.Regular); var textColor = new SolidBrush(Color.Black); Size textSize = TextRenderer.MeasureText(text, fontFamily, Size.Empty, TextFormatFlags.NoPadding); // Render the text with the given dimensions Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(textSize.Width, textSize.Height); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); g.TextRenderingHint = TextRenderingHint.AntiAliasGridFit; g.DrawString(text, fontFamily, textColor, new PointF(0, 0)); bmp.Save("output.png", ImageFormat.Png); This is what currently gets rendered out: This is what I want to render: I also looked into Graphics.MeasureString(...), but that can only be used on an existing Graphics object. I want to know the size before creating the image. Also, calling Graphics.MeasureString(...) returns the same dimensions, so it doesn't help me any.

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with my Basic Authentication in my Browser?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i'm trying to goto the following url :- http://user1:pass1@localhost:1234/api/users?format=xml nothing to complex. Notice how i've got the username/password in the url? this, i believe, is for basic authentication. When I do that, the Request Headers are MISSING the 'Authorize' header. Er... that's not right :( I have anonymous authentication only setup on the site. I don't want to have anon off and basic turned on .. because not all of the site requires basic.. only a few action methods. So .. why is this not working? Is this something to do with the fact my code is not sending a 401 challenge or some crap? For What It's Worth, my site is ASP.NET MVC1 running on IIS7 (and the same thing happens when i run it on cassini). Update: If this is an illegal way of calling a resource using basic auth (ala security flaw) .. then is this possible to do, for an ASP.NET MVC website .. per action method (and not the entire site, per say)?

    Read the article

  • How to pull UIImages from NSData from a socket.

    - by Jus' Wondrin'
    Hey all! I'm using ASyncSocket to move some UIImages from one device over to another. Essentially, on one device I have: NSMutableData *data = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image, 0.1); if(isRunning){ [sock writeData:data withTimeout:-1 tag:0]; } So a new image will be added to the socket every so often (like a webcam). Then, on the other device, I am calling: [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; which will respond with: - (void)onSocket:(AsyncSocket *)sock didReadData:(NSData *)data withTag:(long)tag { [responseData appendData:data]; [listenSocket readDataWithTimeout:1 tag:0]; } Essentially, what I want to be able to do is have an NSTimer going which will call @selector(PullImages): -(void) PullImages { In here, I want to be able to pull images out of ResponseData. How do I do that? There might not be a complete image yet, there might be multiple images, there might be one and a half images! I want to parse the NSData into each existing image! } Any assistance? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • GDI+ double buffering in C++

    - by David Titarenco
    I haven't written anything with GDI for a while now (and never with GDI+), and I'm just working on a fun project, but for the life of me, I can't figure out how to double buffer GDI+ void DrawStuff(HWND hWnd) { HDC hdc; HDC hdcBuffer; PAINTSTRUCT ps; hdc = BeginPaint(hWnd, &ps); hdcBuffer = CreateCompatibleDC(hdc); Graphics graphics(hdc); graphics.Clear(Color::Black); // drawing stuff, i.e. bunnies: Image bunny(L"bunny.gif"); graphics.DrawImage(&bunny, 0, 0, bunny.GetWidth(), bunny.GetHeight()); BitBlt(hdc, 0,0, WIDTH , HEIGHT, hdcBuffer, 0,0, SRCCOPY); EndPaint(hWnd, &ps); } The above works (everything renders perfectly), but it flickers. If I change Graphics graphics(hdc); to Graphics graphics(hdcBuffer);, I see nothing (although I should be bitblt'ing the buffer-hWnd hdc at the bottom). My message pipeline is set up properly (WM_PAINT calls DrawStuff), and I'm forcing a WM_PAINT message every program loop by calling RedrawWindow(window, NULL, NULL, RDW_ERASE | RDW_INVALIDATE | RDW_UPDATENOW); I'm probably going about the wrong way to do this, any ideas? The MSDN documentation is cryptic at best.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid game rendering component circular references?

    - by CodexArcanum
    I'm working on a simple game design, and I wanted to break up my game objects into more reusable components. But I'm getting stuck on how exactly to implement the design I have in mind. Here's an example: I have a Logger object, whose job is simply to store a list of messages and render them to screen. You know, logging. Originally the Logger just held the list, and the game loop rendered it's contents. Then I moved the rendering logic into the Logger.Draw() method, and now I want to move it further into a LoggerRenderer object. In effect, I want to have the game loop call RenderAll, which will then call Logger.Render, which will in turn call the LoggerRenderer.Render and finally output the text. So the Logger needs to contain a Renderer object, but the Renderer needs access to the Logger's state (the message queue) in order to render. How do I resolve that? Should I be passing in the message queue and other state information explicitly to the Render method? Or should the game loop be calling the Renderer directly and it links back to the logger, but the RenderAll method never actually sees the logger object itself? This feels kind of like Command pattern, but I'm botching it up terribly.

    Read the article

  • Name Values in Excel Object model

    - by mcoolbeth
    I am using VSTO to create an Excel add-in. My plan is to persist objects inside of excel workbooks by serializing them to strings and assigning those strings to be the values of names in the workbook. However, when I call the API function to add the new name, I get a mysterious exception from the COM library. More precisely, I am calling _app.ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add(name, value, true, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing, Type.Missing); where name = "an_object" and value = "TestTemplate|'Sheet1'!$A$1| 1Cube=(0,1):(1,2)| 2EntryNumber=(1,1):(2,2)| 3Description=(2,1):(3,2)| 4Group=(4,1):(5,2)| 5Repost=(3,1):(4,2)| 6Debit=(13,3):(16,4)| 7Credit=(13,2):(16,3)|Company=(6,1):(7,2)|Company Partner=(7,1):(8,2)|Time Monthly=(8,1):(9,2)|Currency=(9,1):(10,2)|Version=(10,1):(11,2)|Department=(13,0):(16,1)|Account=(13,1):(16,2)|" A hypothesis is that the value string does not qualify as a string that can be stored in a name (illegal characters, too long, etc) but I cannot find any documentation about what the restrictions are. Does anyone know what is going wrong here? The error message, in case anyone wants it, is Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC Thanks alot.

    Read the article

  • JSF Managed Property question

    - by kidvid
    I have a search page that I'll called "Parent." The search page references a country lookup page that I'll call "Child." When the user selects a country on Child's page and clicks on OK, I set the country back into the parent page. I do this by calling a method on the Parent page called "UpdateCountryCodeWithLookupValue(Child child)" When the user clicks on OK on the Child page, that method gets called in the parent, wherein it'll get the selected country code out of the Child page and set it into a text entry field. My question has to do with the proper way to set up this relationship in the faces config file. The way I have it now is that the child has a managed property for the parent. I.e., in my Child page I defined a method called "SetParent(Parent parent)". Is there any drawback to doing it this way? Would it be preferable to set the managed property so that the Child page class is a property of the parent instead of vice-versa? Let's say that I could have two Parent (search) pages open at the same time, and each of these was able to open the Child page (country code lookup). What would be the ramification for that circumstance in terms of the managed property in the faces config file? Thanks, Adrian

    Read the article

  • Rails Polymorphic Association with multiple associations on the same model

    - by Matt Rogish
    My question is essentially the same as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168047/polymorphic-association-with-multiple-associations-on-the-same-model However, the proposed/accepted solution does not work, as illustrated by a commenter later. I have a Photo class that is used all over my app. A post can have a single photo. However, I want to re-use the polymorphic relationship to add a secondary photo. Before: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end Desired: class Photo belongs_to :attachable, :polymorphic => true end class Post has_one :photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :dependent => :destroy end However, this fails as it cannot find the class "SecondaryPhoto". Based on what I could tell from that other thread, I'd want to do: has_one :secondary_photo, :as => :attachable, :class_name => "Photo", :dependent => :destroy Except calling Post#secondary_photo simply returns the same photo that is attached via the Photo association, e.g. Post#photo === Post#secondary_photo. Looking at the SQL, it does WHERE type = "Photo" instead of, say, "SecondaryPhoto" as I'd like... Thoughts? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

    Read the article

  • autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

    - by subes
    Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

    Read the article

  • should std::auto_ptr<>::operator = reset / deallocate its existing pointee ?

    - by afriza
    I read here about std::auto_ptr<::operator= Notice however that the left-hand side object is not automatically deallocated when it already points to some object. You can explicitly do this by calling member function reset before assigning it a new value. However, when I read the source code for header file C:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\VC\ce\include\memory template<class _Other> auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Other>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr<_Ty>& _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right (assume pointer) reset(_Right.release()); return (*this); } auto_ptr<_Ty>& operator=(auto_ptr_ref<_Ty> _Right) _THROW0() { // assign compatible _Right._Ref (assume pointer) _Ty **_Pptr = (_Ty **)_Right._Ref; _Ty *_Ptr = *_Pptr; *_Pptr = 0; // release old reset(_Ptr); // set new return (*this); } What is the correct/standard behavior? How do other STL implementations behave?

    Read the article

  • Printing Arrays from Structs

    - by Carlll
    I've been stumped for a few hours on an exercise where I must use functions to build up an array inside a struct and print it. In my current program, it compiles but crashes upon running. #define LIM 10 typedef char letters[LIM]; typedef struct { int counter; letters words[LIM]; } foo; int main(int argc, char **argv){ foo apara; structtest(apara, LIM); print_struct(apara); } int structtest(foo *p, int limit){ p->counter = 0; int i =0; for(i; i< limit ;i++){ strcpy(p->words[p->counter], "x"); //only filling arrays with 'x' as an example p->counter ++; } return; I do believe it's due to my incorrect usage/combination of pointers. I've tried adjusting them, but either an 'incompatible types' error is produced, or the array is seemingly blank } void print_struct(foo p){ printf(p.words); } I haven't made it successfully up to the print_struct stage, but I'm unsure whether p.words is the correct item to be calling. In the output, I would expect the function to return an array of x's. I apologize in advance if I've made some sort of grievous "I should already know this" C mistake. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211  | Next Page >