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  • Apache multiple URL to one domain redirect

    - by Christian Moser
    For the last two day, I've been spending a lot of time to solve my problem, maybe someone can help me. Problem: I need to redirect different url's to one tomcat webbase-dir used for artifactory. following urls should point to the tomcat/artifactory webapp: maven-repo.example.local ; maven-repo.example.local/artifactory ; srv-example/artifactory Where maven-repo.example.local is the dns for the server-hostname: "srv-example" I'm accessing the tomcat app through the JK_mod module. The webapp is in the ROOT directory This is what I've got so far: <VirtualHost *:80> #If URL contains "artifactory" strip down and redirect RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^\artifactory\$ [NC] # (how can I remove 'artifactory' from the redirected parameters? ) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://maven-repo.example.local/$1 [R=301,L] ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/redirect-error_log" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven-repo.example.local ErrorLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-error.log" CustomLog "logs/maven-repo.example.local-access.log" common #calling tomcat webapp in ROOT JkMount /* ajp13w </VirtualHost> The webapp is working with "maven-repo.example.local", but with "maven-repo.example.local/artifactory" tomcat gives a 404 - "The requested resource () is not available." It seems that the mod_rewrite doesn't have taken any effect, even if I redirect to another page, e.g google.com I'm testing on windows 7 with maven-repo.example.local added in the "system32/drivers/hosts" file Thanks in advance!

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  • Mocking an object that uses jni using EasyMock

    - by Visage
    So my class under test has code that looks braodly like this public void doSomething(int param) { Report report = new Report() ...do some calculations report.someMethod(someData) } my intention was to extract the construction of report into a protected method and override it to use a mock object that I could then test to ensure that someMethod had been called with the right data. So far so good. But Report isnt under my control, and to mkae things worse it uses JNI to load a library at runtime. If I do Report report = EasyMock.createMock(Report.class) then EasyMock attempts to use reflection to find out the class members, but this causes an attempt to load the JNI library, which fails (the JNI libraries are only available on UNIX). Im considering two things: a) Introduce a ReportWrapper interface with two implementations, one of which will delegate calls to an real Report (so basically a Proxy), and a second which will basically use a mock object. or b) instead of calling someMethod, call a protected method which will in turn call someMethod that I can override in a testing subclass. Either way it seems nasty. Any better ways?

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  • Does using ReadDirectoryChangesW require administrator rights?

    - by Alex Jenter
    The MSDN says that using ReadDirectoryChangesW implies the calling process having the Backup and Restore priviliges. Does this mean that only process launched under administrator account will work correctly? I've tried the following code, it fails to enable the required privileges when running as a restricted user. void enablePrivileges() { enablePrivilege(SE_BACKUP_NAME); enablePrivilege(SE_RESTORE_NAME); } void enablePrivilege(LPCTSTR name) { HANDLE hToken; DWORD status; if (::OpenProcessToken(::GetCurrentProcess(), TOKEN_ADJUST_PRIVILEGES, &hToken)) { TOKEN_PRIVILEGES tp = { 1 }; if( ::LookupPrivilegeValue(NULL, name, &tp.Privileges[0].Luid) ) { tp.Privileges[0].Attributes = SE_PRIVILEGE_ENABLED; BOOL result = ::AdjustTokenPrivileges(hToken, FALSE, &tp, 0, NULL, NULL); verify (result != FALSE); status = ::GetLastError(); } ::CloseHandle(hToken); } } Am I doing something wrong? Is there any workaround for using ReadDirectoryChangesW from a non-administrator user account? It seems that the .NET's FileSystemWatcher can do this. Thanks!

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  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

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  • Json HTTP Module stream issue

    - by Justin
    Hey, I have an HTTP Module that I use to clean up the JSON returned by my web service (see http://www.codeproject.com/KB/webservices/ASPNET_JSONP.aspx?msg=3400287#xx3400287xx for an example of this.) Basically it relates to calling cross-domain JSON web services from javascript. There is this JsonHttpModule which uses a JsonResponseFilter Stream class to write out the JSON and the overloaded Write method is supposed to wrap the name of the callback function around the JSON, otherwise the JSON errors out as needing a label. However, if the JSON is really long, the Write method in the Stream class is called multiple times, causing the callback function to incorrectly get inserted midway through the JSON. Is there a way in the Stream class to wrap the callback function around the stream at the end or to specify that it write all of the JSON in 1 Write method instead of in chunks?? Here's where it calls the JsonResponseFilter in the JsonHttpModule: public void OnReleaseRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication app = (HttpApplication)sender; if (!_Apply(app.Context.Request)) return; // apply response filter to conform to JSONP app.Context.Response.Filter = new JsonResponseFilter(app.Context.Response.Filter, app.Context); } Here's the Write method in the JsonResponseFilter Stream class that gets called multiple times: public override void Write(byte[] buffer, int offset, int count) { var b1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(_context.Request.Params["callback"] + "("); _responseStream.Write(b1, 0, b1.Length); _responseStream.Write(buffer, offset, count); var b2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(");"); _responseStream.Write(b2, 0, b2.Length); } Thanks for any help! Justin

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  • Missing elements of collection

    - by Neir0
    I have a collection ObservableCollection<string> outoverList And i have a function which call collection outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); Function call collection a few times, but sometimes collection lost elements. We call a function - function adds element - collection has 9 elements(for example) - in the next function calling collection has only 8 elements. One elements be missing. Here Resharpers Find usages log: Search target FindElementHandler.outoverList:ObservableCollection<string> Found 3 usages in solution <FindElementExperiments> (3 items) FindElementHandler.cs (3 items) (50,13) outoverList = new ObservableCollection<string>(); (94,13) outoverList.Add("out:"+element.tagName); (118,13) outoverList.Add("over:" + element.tagName); As you can see i just add elements to collection everywhere. i havent remove elements code. Maybe i did something wrong you can look at screen capture: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Ei6dQnHCMIc I am newbie and often encounter with various problems but this bug looks mystic for me. P/S/ Sorry for english

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  • How to output JSON from within Django and call it with jQuery from a cross domain?

    - by Emre Sevinç
    For a bookmarklet project I'm trying to get JSON data using jQuery from my server (which is naturally on a different domain) running a Django powered system. According to jQuery docs: "As of jQuery 1.2, you can load JSON data located on another domain if you specify a JSONP callback, which can be done like so: "myurl?callback=?". jQuery automatically replaces the ? with the correct method name to call, calling your specified callback." And for example I can test it successfully in my Firebug console using the following snippet: $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags=cat&tagmode=any& format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); It prints the returned data in an alert window, e.g. 'Recent uploads tagged cat'. However when I try the similar code with my server I don't get anything at all: $.getJSON("http://mydjango.yafz.org/randomTest?jsoncallback=?", function(data){ alert(data.title); }); There are no alert windows and the Firebug status bar says "Transferring data from mydjango.yafz.org..." and keeps on waiting. On the server side I have this: def randomTest(request): somelist = ['title', 'This is a constant result'] encoded = json.dumps(somelist) response = HttpResponse(encoded, mimetype = "application/json") return response I also tried this without any success: def randomTest(request): if request.is_ajax() == True: req = {} req ['title'] = 'This is a constant result.' response = json.dumps(req) return HttpResponse(response, mimetype = "application/json") So to cut a long story short: what is the suggested method of returning a piece of data from within a Django view and retrieve it using jQuery in a cross domain fashion? What are my mistakes above?

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  • PInvokeStackImbalance -- C# with offreg.dll ( windows ddk7 )

    - by user301185
    I am trying to create an offline registry in memory using the offreg.dll provided in the windows ddk 7 package. You can find out more information on the offreg.dll here: MSDN Currently, while attempted to create the hive using ORCreateHive, I receive the following error: "Managed Debugging Assistant 'PInvokeStackImbalance' has detected a problem. This is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature. Check that the calling convention and parameters of the PInvoke signature match the target unmanaged signature." Here is the offreg.h file containing ORCreateHive: typedef PVOID ORHKEY; typedef ORHKEY *PORHKEY; VOID ORAPI ORGetVersion( __out PDWORD pdwMajorVersion, __out PDWORD pdwMinorVersion ); DWORD ORAPI OROpenHive ( __in PCWSTR lpHivePath, __out PORHKEY phkResult ); DWORD ORAPI ORCreateHive ( __out PORHKEY phkResult ); DWORD ORAPI ORCloseHive ( __in ORHKEY Handle ); The following is my C# code attempting to call the .dll and create the pointer for future use. using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace WindowsFormsApplication6 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } [DllImport("offreg.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, EntryPoint = "ORCreateHive", SetLastError=true, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern IntPtr ORCreateHive2(); private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { IntPtr myHandle = ORCreateHive2(); } catch (Exception r) { MessageBox.Show(r.ToString()); } } } } I have been able to create pointers in the past with no issue utilizing user32.dll, icmp.dll, etc. However, I am having no such luck with offreg.dll. Thank you.

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  • WINE error when running windows application

    - by Colen
    Hello, A user reports that one of our applications doesn't work under WINE. It runs until he proceeds past a certain form, and then freezes. WINE gives the following output: ~/.wine/drive_c/HeroLab$ wine HeroLab.exe fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:HTTPREQ_QueryOption Semi-STUB INTERNET_OPTION_SECURITY_FLAGS: 0 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_SECURITY_FLAGS; STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW INTERNET_OPTION_SEND/RECEIVE_TIMEOUT 30000 fixme:wininet:InternetSetOptionW Option INTERNET_OPTION_CONNECT_TIMEOUT (30000): STUB fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 fixme:bitmap:CreateBitmapIndirect planes = 0 Can anyone explain these messages to me? I assume they are messages from WINE reporting that we are calling functions in ways that WINE doesn't support, but our code doesn't call CreateBitmapIndirect at all. How can we locate the source of this problem, and fix our app so it runs under WINE? Thanks.

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  • How to reliably replace a library-defined error handler with my own?

    - by sharptooth
    On certain error cases ATL invokes AtlThrow() which is implemented as ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which in turn throws CAtlException. The latter is not very good - CAtlException is not even derived from std::exception and also we use our own exceptions hierarchy and now we will have to catch CAtlException separately here and there which is lots of extra code and error-prone. Looks like it is possible to replace ATL::AtlThrowImpl() with my own handler - define _ATL_CUSTOM_THROW and define AtlThrow() to be the custom handler before including atlbase.h - and ATL will call the custom handler. Not so easy. Some of ATL code is not in sources - it comes compiled as a library - either static or dynamic. We use the static - atls.lib. And... it is compiled in such way that it has ATL::ThrowImpl() inside and some code calling it. I used a static analysis tool - it clearly shows that there're paths on which the old default handler is called. To ensure I even tried to "reimplement" ATL::AtlThrowImpl() in my code. Now the linker says it sees two declarations of ATL::AtlThrowImpl() which I suppose confirms that there's another implementation that can be called by some code. How can I handle this? How do I replace the default handler completely and ensure that the default handler is never called?

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  • 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

    - by TomTom
    Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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  • Passing arguments to objects created using the new operator?

    - by Abhijit
    Hi guys, I have a small C++ problem to which I don't know the best solution. I have two classes A and B as follows: class A { int n; B* b; public: A(int num): n(num) { b = new B[n]; for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) { b[i].setRef(this); } } ~A() { delete [] b; } }; class B { A* a; public: B() { } B(A* aref) { a = aref; } void setRef(A* aref) { a = aref; } }; I am creating an object of class A by passing to its constructor the number of objects of class B I want to be created. I want every object of class B to hold a pointer to the class A object that creates it. I think the best way to do this would be by passing the pointer to the class A object as a constructor argument to the class B object. However, since I'm using the new operator, the no-args constructor for class B is called. As a result, the only solution I can see here is calling the setRef(A*) method for every object of class B after it has been constructed using the new operator. Is there a better solution/design pattern that would be more applicable here? Would using placement new for class B be a better solution? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Using A Local file path in a Streamwriter object ASP.Net

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I am trying to create a csv file of some data. I have wrote a function that successfully does this.... Private Sub CreateCSVFile(ByVal dt As DataTable, ByVal strFilePath As String) Dim sw As New StreamWriter(strFilePath, False) ''# First we will write the headers. ''EDataTable dt = m_dsProducts.Tables[0]; Dim iColCount As Integer = dt.Columns.Count For i As Integer = 0 To iColCount - 1 sw.Write(dt.Columns(i)) If i < iColCount - 1 Then sw.Write(",") End If Next sw.Write(sw.NewLine) ''# Now write all the rows. For Each dr As DataRow In dt.Rows For i As Integer = 0 To iColCount - 1 If Not Convert.IsDBNull(dr(i)) Then sw.Write(dr(i).ToString()) End If If i < iColCount - 1 Then sw.Write(",") End If Next sw.Write(sw.NewLine) Next sw.Close() End Sub The problem is I am not using the streamwriter object correctly for what I trying to accomplish. Since this is an asp.net I need the user to pick a local filepath to put the file on. If I pass any path to this function its gonna try to write it to the directory specified on the server where the code is. I would like this to popup and let the user select a place on their local machine to put the file.... Dim exData As Byte() = File.ReadAllBytes(Server.MapPath(eio)) File.Delete(Server.MapPath(eio)) Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", String.Format("attachment; filename={0}", fn)) Response.ContentType = "application/x-msexcel" Response.BinaryWrite(exData) Response.Flush() Response.End() I am calling the first function in code like this... Dim emplTable As DataTable = SiteAccess.DownloadEmployee_H() CreateCSVFile(emplTable, "C:\\EmplTable.csv") Where I dont want to have specify the file loaction (because this will put the file on the server and not on a client machine) but rather let the user select the location on their client machine. Can someone help me put this together? Thanks in advance.

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  • Adding custom methods to a subclassed NSManagedObject

    - by CJ
    I have a Core Data model where I have an entity A, which is an abstract. Entities B, C, and D inherit from entity A. There are several properties defined in entity A which are used by B, C, and D. I would like to leverage this inheritance in my model code. In addition to properties, I am wondering if I can add methods to entity A, which are implemented in it's sub-entities. For example: I add a method to the interface for entity A which returns a value and takes one argument I add implementations of this method to A, B, C, D Then, I call executeFetchRequest: to retrieve all instances of B I call the method on the objects retrieved, which should call the implementation of the method contained in B's implementation I have tried this, but when calling the method, I receive: [NSManagedObject methodName:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance I presume this is because the objects returned by executeFetchRequest: are proxy objects of some sort. Is there any way to leverage inheritance using subclassed NSManagedObjects? I would really like to be able to do this, otherwise my model code would be responsible for determining what type of NSManagedObject it's dealing with and perform special logic according to the type, which is undesirable. Any help is appreciated, thanks in advance.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • WMI Query Script as a Job

    - by Kenneth
    I have two scripts. One calls the other with a list of servers as parameters. The second query is designed to execute a WMI query. When I run it manually, it does this perfectly. When I try to run it as a job it hangs forever and I have to remove it. For the sake of space here is the relevant part of the calling script: ProcessServers.ps1 Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList $sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 param($sqlsrv,$destdb,$server,$instance) $password = get-content C:\SQLPS\auth.txt | convertto-securestring $credentials = new-object -typename System.Management.Automation.PSCredential -argumentlist "DOMAIN\MYUSER",$password [System.Reflection.Assembly]::LoadWithPartialName('Microsoft.SqlServer.SMO') $box_id = 0; if ($sqlsrv.length -eq 0) { write-output "No data passed" break } function getinfo { param( [string]$svr, [string]$inst ) "Entered GetInfo with: $svr,$inst" $cs = get-wmiobject win32_operatingsystem -computername $svr -credential $credentials -authentication 6 -Verbose -Debug | select Name, Model, Manufacturer, Description, DNSHostName, Domain, DomainRole, PartOfDomain, NumberOfProcessors, SystemType, TotalPhysicalMemory, UserName, Workgroup write-output "WMI Results: $cs" } getinfo $server $instance write-output "Complete" Executed as a job it will show as 'running' forever: PS C:\sqlps> Start-Job -FilePath .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 -ArgumentList DBSERVER,LOGDB,SERVER01,SERVER01 Id Name State HasMoreData Location Command -- ---- ----- ----------- -------- ------- 21 Job21 Running True localhost param($sqlsrv,$destdb,... GAC Version Location --- ------- -------- True v2.0.50727 C:\WINDOWS\assembly\GAC_MSIL\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo\10.0.0.0__89845dcd8080cc91\Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo.dll getinfo MSDCHR01 MSDCHR01 Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01 The last output I ever get is the 'Entered GetInfo with: SERVER01,SERVER01'. If I run it manually like so: PS C:\sqlps> .\GetServerDetailsLight.ps1 DBSERVER LOGDB SERVER01 SERVER01 The WMI query executes just as expected. I am trying to determine why this is, or at least a useful way to trap errors from within jobs. Thanks!

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  • After Adding "readonly" attribute on text box not able to remove it in one event

    - by Sreedhar K
    Steps to repro USE Internet Explorer Check unlimited check box Click on text box (It will remove tick/check from check box) Try to enter text in text box We cannot enter in the text box 4. Click again on the text box. Now we will be able to enter text in the text box We tried by 1. Making attribute readOnly to flase i.e. $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); 2. Calling $('#myinput').click(); Below is the HTML code <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Make input read only</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input id="myinput" type="text" /> <input id="mycheck" type="checkbox" /> <script type="text/javascript"> /*oncheck box click*/ $('#mycheck').click(function () { if ($(this).attr('checked')) { $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', 'readOnly'); } else { $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ } }); /*on text box click*/ $('#myinput').click(function () { $('#mycheck').removeAttr('checked'); $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ }); </script> </body> </html> Live copy

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

    - by Kevin Won
    This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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  • How to detect if an application has UI elements in it from C# in Windows 7?

    - by Santhosh
    I have a c# application in Windows 7 that runs in Session 0. This application is basically a framework for software patches installation that will install patches in the background (in session 0). So this app will download patches from the server and start installing them on the client machines. The way it installs the patches is by calling CreateProcess("Patch.exe"). Now mostly, Patch.exe will be a non-ui silent installation and henceforth, installing the patch from session 0 goes through successfully. However, sometimes this Patch.exe happens to have some UI elements in it such as prompting the user for some details (like installation location, etc..) and let us say that these UI elements cannot be avoided. So is it possible for my installation framework (that runs in Session 0 written in C#), to know that the process Patch.exe which was created by my framework has any UI elements in it? The reason I ask is, if I determine that the application has any UI elements in it, then I do not want to continue with the installation (a crude way of doing this would be to kill the installer process Patch.exe, but that is a different story and not of concern here).

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  • Java and dynamic variables

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, I am wondering whether it is possible to make dynamic variables in Java. In other words, variables that change depending on my instructions. FYI, I am making a trading program. A given merchant will have an array of items for sale for various prices. The dynamism I am calling for comes in because each category of items for sale has its own properties. For example, a book item has two properties: int pages, and boolean hardCover. In contrast, a bookmark item has one property, String pattern. Here are skeleton snippets of code so you can see what I am trying to do: public class Merchants extends /* certain parent class */ { // only 10 items for sale to begin with Stock[] itemsForSale = new Stock[10]; // Array holding Merchants public static Merchants[] merchantsArray = new Merchants[maxArrayLength]; // method to fill array of stock goes here } and public class Stock { int stockPrice; int stockQuantity; String stockType; // e.g. book and bookmark // Dynamic variables here, but they should only be invoked depending on stockType int pages; boolean hardCover; String pattern; }

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  • UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

    - by hadronzoo
    I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • Java: Is clone() really ever used? What about defensive copying in getters/setters?

    - by GreenieMeanie
    Do people practically ever use defensive getters/setters? To me, 99% of the time you intend for the object you set in another object to be a copy of the same object reference, and you intend for changes you make to it to also be made in the object it was set in. If you setDate(Date dt) and modify dt later, who cares? Unless I want some basic immutable data bean that just has primitives and maybe something simple like a Date, I never use it. As far as clone, there are issues as to how deep or shallow the copy is, so it seems kind of "dangerous" to know what is going to come out when you clone an Object. I think I have only used clone() once or twice, and that was to copy the current state of the object because another thread (ie another HTTP request accessing the same object in Session) could be modifying it. Edit - A comment I made below is more the question: But then again, you DID change the Date, so it's kind of your own fault, hence whole discussion of term "defensive". If it is all application code under your own control among a small to medium group of developers, will just documenting your classes suffice as an alternative to making object copies? Or is this not necessary, since you should always assume something ISN'T copied when calling a setter/getter?

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